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  • ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

    - by chucknelson
    I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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  • ThickBox - update inside without redirect

    - by Alex Maslakov
    ASP.NET MVC and jQuery ThickBox. I show some content in ThickBox. It includes file upload form The view multi-media.apsx (it's strange, the this editor doesn't allow start the line with "<" in the code) form action="/upload/multi-media" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data" label for="file"File name: input type="file" name="file" id="file" / input type="submit" value="Upload" / <% if (Model.Count > 0) { foreach (FileInfo mediaFile in Model) { <img width="100px" height="100px" src="<%: ResolveUrl("~/audio.png") %>" border="0" alt="<%: mediaFile.Name %>" / //................ After file upload I redirect to /upload/multi-media action and content shows in normal window, not in ThickBox. [ActionName("multi-media"), HttpPost] public ActionResult MultiMedia(HttpPostedFileBase file) { if (file.ContentLength > 0) { file.SaveAs(GenerateNewFileName(fullFileName)); return View("multi-media", model); } } How can I stay into ThickBox after file upload? I need show content in ThickBox all the time, even after the file upload.

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  • Where do I control the behavior of the "X" close button in the upper right of a winform?

    - by John at CashCommons
    I'm venturing into making my VB.NET application a little better to use by making some of the forms modeless. I think I've figured out how to use dlg.Show() and dlg.Hide() instead of calling dlg.ShowDialog(). I have an instance of my modeless dialog in my main application form: Public theModelessDialog As New dlgModeless To fire up the modeless dialog I call theModelessDialog.Show() and within the OK and Cancel button handlers in dlgModeless I have Private Sub OK_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OK_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub Cancel_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Cancel_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Me.Hide() End Sub and that seems to work fine. The "X" button in the upper right is getting me, though. When I close the form with that button, then try to reopen the form, I get ObjectDisposedException was unhandled. Cannot access a disposed object. I feel like I'm most of the way there but I can't figure out how to do either of the following: Hide that "X" button Catch the event so I don't dispose of the object (just treat it like I hit Cancel) Any ideas? The class of this dialog is System.Windows.Forms.Form. Thanks as always!

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  • How is covariance cooler than polymorphism...and not redundant?

    - by P.Brian.Mackey
    .NET 4 introduces covariance. I guess it is useful. After all, MS went through all the trouble of adding it to the C# language. But, why is Covariance more useful than good old polymorphism? I wrote this example to understand why I should implement Covariance, but I still don't get it. Please enlighten me. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Sample { class Demo { public delegate void ContraAction<in T>(T a); public interface IContainer<out T> { T GetItem(); void Do(ContraAction<T> action); } public class Container<T> : IContainer<T> { private T item; public Container(T item) { this.item = item; } public T GetItem() { return item; } public void Do(ContraAction<T> action) { action(item); } } public class Shape { public void Draw() { Console.WriteLine("Shape Drawn"); } } public class Circle:Shape { public void DrawCircle() { Console.WriteLine("Circle Drawn"); } } public static void Main() { Circle circle = new Circle(); IContainer<Shape> container = new Container<Circle>(circle); container.Do(s => s.Draw());//calls shape //Old school polymorphism...how is this not the same thing? Shape shape = new Circle(); shape.Draw(); } } }

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Is it possible to use a serial port like session in c#?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I am using serial port communication in my asp.net webform application... private bool sendSMS(int portNo, string mobNo, string details) { try { SerialPort SerialPort1 = new SerialPort(); SerialPort1.PortName = "COM" + portNo.ToString(); SerialPort1.BaudRate = 9600; SerialPort1.Parity = Parity.None; SerialPort1.DataBits = 8; SerialPort1.StopBits = StopBits.One; SerialPort1.RtsEnable = true; SerialPort1.DtrEnable = true; SerialPort1.Encoding.GetEncoder(); SerialPort1.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; SerialPort1.NewLine = Environment.NewLine; SerialPort1.Open(); SerialPort1.Write("AT" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGF=1" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGS=" + (char)34 + mobNo + (char)34 + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(1000); SerialPort1.Write(details + (char)26); Sleep(2000); SerialPort1.Close(); } catch { } return true; } This method works when i send i single message... But when want to send sms in bulk opening and closing port everytime is not a good idea... So my question is it possible to use a serial port like session in c#?... When i open a port i want it to be open for 1 hour and then if my time expires i want to close the port and open it the next time... Any suggestion...

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  • Clarification/explanation of RegisterClientScriptInclude method

    - by mpminnich
    I've been looking on the Internet for a fairly clear explanation of the different methods of registering javascript in an asp.net application. I think I have a basic understating of the difference between registerStartupScript and registerClientScriptBlock (the main difference being where in the form the script is inserted). I'm not sure I understand what the RegisterClientScriptInclude method does or when it is used. From what I can gather, it is used to register an external .js file. Does this then make any and all javascript functions in that file available to the aspx page it was registered on? For example, if it was registered in the onLoad event of a master page, would all pages using that master page be able to use the javascript functions in the .js file? What problems would arise when trying to use document.getElementById in this case, if any? Also, when it is necessary/advantageous to use multiple .js files and register them separately? I appreciate any help you can give. If you know of any really good resources I can use to get a thorough understanding of this concept, I'd appreciate it!

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  • TreeView Control Problem

    - by ProgNet
    Hi all, I have a public folder on the server that contains recursively nested sub folders. In the various Leaf folders contains Images. I wanted to create a server side file browser that will display the Images to the user. I am using the ASP.NET TreeView Control. I create the tree nodes using PopulateOnDemand. If the user click on a leaf directory I want the images in that folder to be displayed in a DataList Control. The problem is that when I click on a sub tree node (after I expanded it parent node) All the expanded sub tree disappears and only the parent node is showed with no + sign next to it !! ( I have set the TreeView's PopulateNodesFromClient property to true ) Can someone tell me what is the problem ?? Thanks Here is the code : <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateDataBindings="False" onselectednodechanged="TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged" ontreenodepopulate="TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate"> </asp:TreeView> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { string path = Server.MapPath("."); PopulateTopNodes(path); } } private void PopulateTopNodes(string pathToRootFolder) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(pathToRootFolder); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name,dir.FullName); if (dir.GetDirectories().Length > 0) { folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } TreeView1.Nodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (IsCallback == true) { if (e.Node.ChildNodes.Count == 0) { LoadChildNode(e.Node); } } } private void LoadChildNode(TreeNode treeNode) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(treeNode.Value); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name, dir.FullName); if(dir.GetDirectories().Length>0){ folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } treeNode.ChildNodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Retrieve the images here }

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  • page variable in a repeater

    - by carrot_programmer_3
    Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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  • Dropdownlist value not being set when there is a default blank option

    - by uriDium
    I am using ASP.Net MVC. I have a partial view which has a form with dropdownlists. The dropdownlists are set via ViewData. The partial view is used in a Create and Edit page. The create works fine. I get the dropdownlists and the blank option is a "Please select", like so <%= Html.DropDownList("ContactNrType", ViewData["ContactNrType"] as SelectList, "Please Select") %> But this doesn't seem to work for my edit. If I have that extra "Please select" parameter then it does not select the value for the drop down. I am setting the value of the drop down in the controller like so ViewData["ContactNrType"] = new SelectList(new List<string> { "Mobile", "Home", "Work", "Friend" }, candidate.ContactNrType); Any idea as to what I am doing wrong? I want to share the partial view which contains the form between the two pages. So I need the "Please Select" option for the Create. And I need the value set for the Edit (I don't mind that it has an option that still says "Please Select").

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  • case insenstive string replace that correctly works with ligatures like "ß" <=> "ss"

    - by usr
    I have build a litte asp.net form that searches for something and displays the results. I want to highlight the search string within the search results. Example: Query: "p" Results: a<b>p</b>ple, banana, <b>p</b>lum The code that I have goes like this: public static string HighlightSubstring(string text, string substring) { var index = text.IndexOf(substring, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase); if(index == -1) return HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(text); string p0, p1, p2; text.SplitAt(index, index + substring.Length, out p0, out p1, out p2); return HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p0) + "<b>" + HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p1) + "</b>" + HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(p2); } I mostly works but try it for example with HighlightSubstring("ß", "ss"). This crashes because in Germany "ß" and "ss" are considered to be equal by the IndexOf method, but they have different length! Now that would be ok if there was a way to find out how long the match in "text" is. Remember that this length can be != substring.Length. So how do I find out the length of the match that IndexOf produces in the presence of ligatures and exotic language characters (ligatures in this case)?

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • Populate on demand a TreeView with datas in an XML

    - by m6a-uds
    Hi I have a large XML file (3000+ nodes) that I want to represent in a TreeView on ASP.NET. I cannot databind it to a XMLDataSource because loading the TreeView will then be way too slow (I never even waited long enough to see it finish...) So the solution for this would be to use the PopulateOnDemand property of the TreeNodes to load data only when needed. Problem is, I can't think of a way to acheive this... How can-I, based on the ID of a node, search a XMLDocument to get all the childnodes of the node having this ID? XML would look like that: <document ID=1> <document ID=2> <document ID=3> </document> </document> <document ID=4> </document> </document> There are nor rules on how much levels it can go down or anything...

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  • jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

    - by AaronS
    I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

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  • URL path changes between dev and published version

    - by Bob Horn
    I just got Scott Hanselman's chat app with SignalR working with ASP.NET MVC 4. After hours of configuration, trial and error, and getting different versions of Windows to talk to each other on my home network, it's all working except that I'm left with one issue that I'm not sure how to handle. This line of javascript has to change, depending on if I'm running the app through Visual Studio or the published (IIS) version: Works when running within VS: var connection = $.connection('echo'); Works with published version: var connection = $.connection('ChatWithSignalR/echo'); When I run within VS, the URL is: http://localhost:9145/ And the published version is: http://localhost/ChatWithSignalR If I don't change that line of code, and try to run the app within VS, using the javascript that has ChatWithSignalR in it, I get an error like this: Failed to load resource: the server responded with a status of 404 (Not Found) http://localhost:9145/ChatWithSignalR/echo/negotiate?_=1347809290826 What can I do so that I can use the same javascript code and have it work in both scenarios? var connection = $.connection('??????'); Note, this is in my Global.asax.cs: RouteTable.Routes.MapConnection<MyConnection>("echo", "echo/{*operation}");

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  • [C# Thread] I'd like access to a share on the network!

    - by JustLooking
    Some Details I am working with VisualWebGUI, so this app is like ASP.NET, and it is deployed on IIS 7 (for testing) For my 'Web Site', Anonymous Authentication is set to a specific user (DomainName\DomainUser). In my web.config, I have impersonation on. This is how I got my app to access the share in the first place. The Problem There is a point in the the app where we use the Thread class, something similar to: Thread myThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(objInstance.PublicMethod)); myThread.Start(); What I have noticed is that I can write to my logs (text file on the share), everywhere throughout my code, except in the thread that I kicked off. I added some debugging output and what I see for users is: The thread that's kicked off: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Everywhere else in my code: DomainName\DomainUser (described in my IIS setup) OK, for some reason the thread gets a different user (NETWORK SERVICE). Fine. But, my share (and the actual log file) was given 'Full Control' to the NETWORK SERVICE user (this share resides on a different server than the one that my app is running). If NETWORK SERVICE has rights to this folder, why do I get access denied? Or is there a way to have the thread I kick off have the same user as the process?

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  • MVC route doesn't work

    - by bill
    Hi All, I have a bunch of Views in a default folder that represent single "static" pages. Everything works as advertised except i tried adding a new page yesterday.. using the exact same routing syntax and cannot for the life of me get it to work. here's is an example of a working route: routes.MapRoute( "OurProgram", // Route name "Our_Program", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Default", action = "OurProgram" } ); The filename is OurProgram and hitting http:// localhost/Our_Program/ opens the correct view which resides in the Views/Default folder. So i added another view into this folder: Views/Default/BuyNow.aspx and added the route: routes.MapRoute( "BuyNow", // Route name "Buy_Now", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Default", action = "BuyNow" } ); And this doesn't open. I have tried the "route debugger http://haacked.com/archive/2008/03/13/url-routing-debugger.aspx" and it correctly identifies the route. I am at a lose. I have tried re-creating the view.. I am using MVC.Net 2.0 and VS 10. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

    - by bufferz
    I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

    - by Rob
    I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

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  • Entity framework 4.0 compiled query with Where() clause issue

    - by Andrey Salnikov
    Hello, I encountered with some strange behavior of System.Data.Objects.CompiledQuery.Compile function - here is my code for compile simple query: private static readonly Func<DataContext, long, Product> productQuery = CompiledQuery.Compile((DataContext ctx, long id) => ctx.Entities.OfType<Data.Product>().Where(p => p.Id == id) .Select(p=>new Product{Id = p.Id}).SingleOrDefault()); where DataContext inherited from ObjectContext and Product is a projection of POCO Data.Product class. My data context in first run contains Data.Product {Id == 1L} and in second Data.Product {Id == 2L}. First using of compilled query productQuery(dataContext, 1L) works perfect - in result I have Product {Id == 1L} but second run productQuery(dataContext, 2L) always returns null, instead of context in second run contains single product with id == 2L. If I remove Where clause I will get correct product (with id == 2L). It seems that first id value caching while first run of productQuery, and therefore all further calls valid only when dataContext contains Data.Product {id==1L}. This issue can't be reproduced if I've used direct query instead of its precompiled version. Also, all tests I've performed on test mdf base using SQL Server 2008 express and Visual studio 2010 final from my ASP.net application.

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  • Are workflows good for web service business logic?

    - by JL
    I have a series of complex web services that are getting used in my SOA application. I am generally happy with the overall design of the application, but as the complexity grows, I was wondering if Windows Workflow might be the way to go. My motivations for this are that you can get a graphic representation of the applications functionality, so it would be easier to maintain the code by its business function, rather than what I have now ( a standard 3 tier class library structure). My concerns are: I would be inducing an abstraction in my code, and I don't want to spend time having to deal with possible WF quirks or bugs. I've never worked with WF, is it a solid technology? I don't want to hit any WF limitations that prevent me from developing my solution. Is a WF even the right solution for the task? Simply put I am considering writing my next web service in this app to call a WF, and in this work flow manage the tasks the web service needs to carry out. I think it will be much neater and easier to maintain than a regular c# class library (maintainable by namespaces, classes ). Do you think this is the right thing to do? I'm hoping for positive feedback on WF (.net 4), but brutal honestly at the end of the day would help more. Thanks

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  • Handling a mix of server side code and html in a resource file?

    - by Brandon
    I'm trying to convert an ASP.NET web application to use resource files. I haven't used resource files before, so I'm just toying around with them and was wondering if this is possible. I have a message that returns from a search when no results are found, that prompts the user to return to the home page. A lot of these pages have methods to determine what is the proper page to send the user to, so there are many sections with markup similar to this: Sorry, but we could not find an item matching your search criteria. Please adjust your search criteria or <a href="<%= SomeMethodToDetermineUri() %>">return to (SomePage)</a>. So basically, some type of message, followed by a link or a list of links. Getting the message part works fine, it's the server side code to generate links thats the problem. What is the best way to put that into a resource file? It is able to recognize the html link part just fine, but the server side code gets inserted as plain text. Is the only way to break it into 2 resources? (Which seems messy) <%= Resources.Master.NoSearchResultsFound %> <a href="<%= SomeMethodToDetermineUri() %>"> <%= Resources.Master.NoSearchResultsFoundReturnLinkText %> </a>. Or is there a way to get the page to evaluate the server code?

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  • Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • What do I need to do if I want all typeof(MyEnum)'s to be handled with MyEnumModelBinder?

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I have an Enum that appears in several of my models. For the most part, the DefaultModelBinder handles binding to my models beautifully. That it, until it gets to my Enum... it always returns the first member in the Enum no matter what is handed it by the POST. My googling leads me to believe I need to have a model binder that knows how to handle Enums. I found an excellent article on a possible custom modelBinder for Enums: http://eliasbland.wordpress.com/2009/08/08/enumeration-model-binder-for-asp-net-mvc/. I've since implemented that modelBinder and registered it in my global.asax: ModelBinders.Binders[typeof (MyEnum)] = new EnumBinder<MyEnum>(MyEnum.MyDefault); For some reason, the EnumBinder< isn't being called when the model I'm binding to has MyEnum. I have a breakpoint in the .BindModel() method and it never break. Also, my model hasn't changed after modelBinding. Have I done everything? What am I missing here?

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