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• WCF service reference namespace differs from original

  - by Thorarin

  I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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• can javascript process binary data?

  - by Johnny

  admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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• maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

  - by jr

  I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

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• Trouble Running Leaks Instrument

  - by TheGeoff

  I'm having trouble running the Leaks Instrument since installing the 3.0 SDK. An NDA disclaimer here I don't think this is a 3.0 SDK issue, just a configuration problem. So I'm looking for advice on configuring the tools in question not the 3.0 SDK per se. Here’s the breakdown of the behavior I am seeing. My Application is compiled to OS version 2.2. I can run it out of XCode in debug mode on the Simulator and Device running 2.2, 2.2.1, 3.0. If I start it with Performance Tools - Leaks, I get an error message from the OS, “The application xxxx quit unexpectedly”, “Ignore, Report, Relaunch.” If I click “Ignore” one of two things will happen, either Leaks tells me it couldn’t attach, or Leaks stop responding to input and I have to Force Quit. Interesting thing is the Simulator starts in 3.0 OS. If I start Instruments Manually and attach to a running 2.2 Simulator it shows the same behavior. If I attach Leaks to an iPhone Device it works. It seems that once I launch Leaks my app won't run in the simulator until I do a new build. Any ideas for getting my Simulator/Leaks/Xcode synced back up? Thanks, Geoff

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• Problems migrating databinding in VB.NET from Winforms to ASP.NET 2.0

  - by David

  And this was supposed to be so easy... I have existing business and data access layers that handle the retrieval and update of the data in question. These work great with the existing Winforms application (.Net V2.0) Now, in trying to write a new web-based UI, I'm running into all sorts of problems (last time I wrote asp.net code was in 1.1). Specifically, I can't data bind a text box to a business object. Oh, sure there's the ObjectDataSource but that wants to know how to do CRUD operations on the data. What I'm looking for is something that acts like the 'classic' binding objects so that, in my code, it's as simple as retrieving the object and doing a a refresh. The data component like FormView and DetailsView are so generic-looking that it's ridiculous. The existing application would have tabbed dialogs, text boxes grouped by panels, etc. On top of that, I have a directive to use master pages and unless one control causes it, I can't seem to get the content section to expand. I can't just put a text box 'below' the bottom of "Content1" and have it resize the content section - which gives me the same results as an earlier question I posted when the footer wasn't being 'pushed down' - relative position solved that but doesn't seem to solve it with placing small text boxes in the area. What I want is fairly simple. Something like: bindingobject.datasource = businessdataobject bindingobject.refresh ...and have the text boxes refresh with the new values. Likewise to have 'businessdataobject' properties updated as the user enters new data. I was able to do this with the GridView (grdRequests.DataSource = lstRequests) by making a list of asp:BoundField tags inside the collection of the GridView. Am I tilting at windmills here?

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• How do I remove HTML that I place dynamically with JQuery

  - by Vivek

  lets say i have fallowing html... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> what i want to do is, add a html on onclick of these links, if you click on first link output should look like <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> means hide the original html of that li and append new html for ex. a span as i have written above...and if i clicked on second link the first li should get it's original html and appended html should get removed and get appended to current li bieng clicked..in this case output should look like... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> i tried to achieve this thing through variuos way...but could not find out the correct way.. please help me out guys.. Thanks in advance!!!!

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• ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

  - by Chris Klepeis

  I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

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• Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

  - by c.batt

  I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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• RSKeyMgmt -r unable to remove installtion ID

  - by Eves

  I have backed up databases on one 2005 SQL Server and have restored those databases on a second 2005 SQL Server. I am currently trying to remove the new server's OLD key instance ID using the Reporting Services Key Manager (RSKeyMgmt -r). Prior to running the removal command the list of the current instances shows the new server's OLD instance ID as well as the NEW instance ID from the first SQL Server. Executing the RSKeyMgmt -r command results in: "The command completed successfully". However, when I recheck the listing of current instance IDs I see both the OLD and NEW instance IDs. In addition, when I check the Application Event Viewer I see an error: Report Server Windows Service (MSSQLSERVER) has not been granted access to the catalog content Does anyone know why I would be getting the above application error? Or...does anyone know what I would need to do to give access to the catalog to the Report Server Window Service? The first SQL Server where the databases were backed up is an Enterprise edition SQL Server and the second SQL Server where the databases were restored is Standard edition. Could this be the cause of the problem? Is there a way to make this backup and restore migration work?

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• Ajax Auto Complete in ASP.Net MVC project - How to display a an object's name but actually save it's

  - by Ben

  I have implemented the Ajax Autocomplete feature in my application using a web service file that querys my database and it works great. One problem I am having is allowing the user to see the item's name, as that's what they are typing in the textbox, but when they select it, it saves the item's ID number instead of the actual name. I want it to behave much like a dropdown list, where I can specify what is seen and entered vs. what is actually saved in the database (in this case, the product ID instead of it's name.) I have this text box in my view, along with the script: <script type="text/javascript"> Sys.Application.add_init(function() { $create( AjaxControlToolkit.AutoCompleteBehavior, { serviceMethod: 'ProductSearch', servicePath: '/ProductService.asmx', minimumPrefixLength: 1, completionSetCount: 10 }, null, null, $get('ProductID')) }); </script> <p> <label for="ProductID">Product:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("ProductID", Model.Products)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("ProductID", "*")%> </p> Here's what is in my asmx file: public class ProductService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string[] ProductSearch(string prefixText, int count) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); string[] products = (from product in db.Products where product.ProductName.StartsWith(prefixText) select product.ProductName).Take(count).ToArray(); return products; } } Can anyone help me figure this out? I'm using this so they can just start typing instead of having a dropdown list that's a mile long...

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• Lack of security in many PHP applications?

  - by John

  Over the past year of freelancing, I inherited two web projects, both of them built in PHP, both of them with sensitive information like credit card info, bank info, etc... In one application, when I typed http://thecompany.com/admin/, and without being asked for a username and password, I saw every user's sensitive information, including credit card numbers, bank account numbers etc... In another application, I was able to bypass the login screen by simply typing http://the2ndcompany.com/customer.php?user_id=777, and again, without any prompts for username and password, i was able to see user 777's credit card info. I cycled through a few more user_ids (any integer) and saw each person's credit card info. Is something wrong here? Or is this the quality of work that the "average" programmer produces? Because if this is what the average programmer produces, does that means I'm an...gasp...elite programmer?? No..that can't be right....something doesn't make sense. So my question is, is it just coincidence that I inherited two applications both of which are dangerously lacking in security? Or are there are a lot of bad PHP programmers out there?

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• Truly declarative language?

  - by gjvdkamp

  Hi all, Does anyone know of a truly declarative language? The behaviour I'm looking for is kind of what Excel does, where I can define variables and formulas, and have the formula's result change when the input changes (without having set the answer again myself) The behaviour I'm looking for is best shown with this pseudo code: X = 10 // define and assign two variables Y = 20; Z = X + Y // declare a formula that uses these two variables X = 50 // change one of the input variables ?Z // asking for Z should now give 70 (50 + 20) I've tried this in a lot of languages like F#, python, matlab etc, but every time i try this they come up with 30 instead of 70. Wich is correct from an imperative point of view, but i'm looking for a more declerative behaviour if you know what i mean. And this is just a very simple calculation. When things get more difficult it should handle stuff like recursion and memoization automagically. The code below would obviously work in C# but it's just so much code for the job, i'm looking for something a bit more to the point without all that 'technical noise' class BlaBla{ public int X {get;set;} // this used to be even worse before 3.0 public int Y {get;set;} public int Z {get{return X + Y;}} } static void main(){ BlaBla bla = new BlaBla(); bla.X = 10; bla.Y = 20; // can't define anything here bla.X = 50; // bit pointless here but I'll do it anyway. Console.Writeline(bla.Z);// 70, hurray! } This just seems like so much code, curly braces and semicolons that add nothing. Is there a language/ application (apart from Exel) that does this? Maybe I'm no doing it right in the mentioned langauges, or I've completely missed an app that does just this. I prototyped a language/ application that does this (along with some other stuff) and am thinking of productizing it. I just can't believe it's not there yet. Don't want to waste my time. Thanks in advance, Gert-Jan

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• Google Maps API v3 not working

  - by user1496322

  I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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• How to properly set JavaMail timeout setting

  - by user286149

  I am using JavaMail to connect to a POP3 server. Further, I set the following properties, so that JavaMail won't wait to long if an email server doesn't respond: props.setProperty("mail.pop3.connectionpooltimeout", "3000"); props.setProperty("mail.pop3.connectiontimeout", "3000"); props.setProperty("mail.pop3.timeout", "3000"); However, in some cases the timeout works properly but sometimes JavaMail freezes for minutes(!) with the following debug message: DEBUG POP3: connecting to host "pop3.yahoo.com", port 110, isSSL false Changing ports or protocols (SSL, TLS..) has no effect. I assume that the host simply doesn't exist. For example, if I poll pop3.yahoo.com instead of pop.mail.yahoo.com (which would be the right host name), I have to wait very long til a timeout exception occurs. After several minutes, I get the following exception and the application continues to run: java.net.ConnectException: Operation timed out pop3.yahoo.com seems to exist but won't respond: localhost:~ me$ ping pop3.yahoo.com PING pop3.yahoo.com (206.190.46.10): 56 data bytes Request timeout for icmp_seq 0 Request timeout for icmp_seq 1 Request timeout for icmp_seq 2 Request timeout for icmp_seq 3 ^C You might be asking why I use pop3.yahoo.com instead of pop.mail.yahoo.com. Well, I simply wanted to test what happens if the user of my application inserts a wrong host name. I believe that this issue is related to this report http://www.opensubscriber.com/message/[email protected]/180946.html where the poster claims that the problem occurs if the email server closes the connection. JavaMail then seems to wait very long (don't know why). Since the issue wasn't resolved in the link I posted: Does somebody know how to fix or at least debug this? Any help would be really appreciated!

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• 'send' button error 401

  - by jjd

  I'm having a strange error with 'Send' button I have the following code on my page <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&amp;appId=<myAppId>"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk')); </script> <br/> <fb:like send="true" width="450" show_faces="true"></fb:like> The 'send' button works fine if I access the application via IP address, but if I use a domain name, Facebook returns The page at http://<...>.com:8080/pages/question.jsf could not be reached because the server returned status code 401. Meantime 'like' button works fine. The application front-end is built with JSF2+Primefaces. Any ideas would be appreciated Thanks

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• How can you get the call tree with python profilers?

  - by Oliver

  I used to use a nice Apple profiler that is built into the System Monitor application. As long as your C++ code was compiled with debug information, you could sample your running application and it would print out an indented tree telling you what percent of the parent function's time was spent in this function (and the body vs. other function calls). For instance, if main called function_1 and function_2, function_2 calls function_3, and then main calls function_3: main (100%, 1% in function body): function_1 (9%, 9% in function body): function_2 (90%, 85% in function body): function_3 (100%, 100% in function body) function_3 (1%, 1% in function body) I would see this and think, "Something is taking a long time in the code in the body of function_2. If I want my program to be faster, that's where I should start." Does anyone know how I can most easily get this exact profiling output for a python program? I've seen people say to do this: import cProfile, pstats prof = cProfile.Profile() prof = prof.runctx("real_main(argv)", globals(), locals()) stats = pstats.Stats(prof) stats.sort_stats("time") # Or cumulative stats.print_stats(80) # 80 = how many to print but it's quite messy compared to that elegant call tree. Please let me know if you can easily do this, it would help quite a bit. Cheers!

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• Silverlight RIA Services - Showing columns from multiple tables

  - by Villager

  Hello, I have been evaluating Silverlight and .NET RIA Services for my company. I am trying to decide if it is right for us. For the most part, I like it. But, I see one item that I am surprised that I cannot do easily. Because of this, I'm guessing I'm doing some thing wrong. To demonstrate, I have two database tables: Order ----- ID CustomerID OrderDate OrderNumber Customer -------- ID FirstName LastName Address When I create my Domain Service class, I select both of these tables. On the Silverlight application, I drag-and-drop the Order entity from the Data Sources page to my Silverlight page. When I do this, a DataGrid is added with all of the properties in the Order entity. In reality though, I would like the DataGrid to show: Order.OrderNumber Order.OrderDate Customer.FirstName Customer.LastName Because this information is spread across multiple tables, I'm not sure how to use RIA Services to show them in my Silverlight application. What is the recommended way to do this? Should I add a view in my database? Can I do it without touching the database? Thank you,

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• How to use data receive event in Socket class?

  - by affan

  I have wrote a simple client that use TcpClient in dotnet to communicate. In order to wait for data messages from server i use a Read() thread that use blocking Read() call on socket. When i receive something i have to generate various events. These event occur in the worker thread and thus you cannot update a UI from it directly. Invoke() can be use but for end developer its difficult as my SDK would be use by users who may not use UI at all or use Presentation Framework. Presentation framework have different way of handling this. Invoke() on our test app as Microstation Addin take a lot of time at the moment. Microstation is single threaded application and call invoke on its thread is not good as it is always busy doing drawing and other stuff message take too long to process. I want my events to generate in same thread as UI so user donot have to go through the Dispatcher or Invoke. Now i want to know how can i be notified by socket when data arrive? Is there a build in callback for that. I like winsock style receive event without use of separate read thread. I also do not want to use window timer to for polling for data. I found IOControlCode.AsyncIO flag in IOControl() function which help says Enable notification for when data is waiting to be received. This value is equal to the Winsock 2 FIOASYNC constant. I could not found any example on how to use it to get notification. If i am write in MFC/Winsock we have to create a window of size(0,0) which was just used for listening for the data receive event or other socket events. But i don't know how to do that in dotnet application.

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• Attempting to Convert Byte[] into Image... but is there platform issues involved

  - by user305535

  Greetings, Current, I'm attempting to develop an application that takes a Byte Array that is streamed to us from a Linux C language program across a TCPClient (stream) and reassemble it back into an image/jpg. The "sending" application was developed by a off-site developer who claims that the image reassembles back into an image without any problems or errors in his test environment (all Linux)... However, we are not so fortunate. I (believe) we successfully get all of the data sent, storing it as a string (lets us append the stream until it is complete) and then we convert it back into a Byte[]. This appears to be working fine... But, when we take the byte[] we get from the streaming (and our string assembly) and try to convert it into an image using the System.Drawing.Image.FromStream() we get errors.... Anyone have any idea what we're doing wrong? Or, does anyone know if this is a cross-platform issue? We're developing our app for Windows XP and C# .net, but the off-site developer did his work in c and Linux... perhaps there's some difference as to how each Operating System Coverts Images into Byte Arrays? Anyway, here's the code for converting our received ByteArray (from the TCPClient Stream) into an image. This code works when we send an image from a test machine we built that RUNS on XP, but not from the Linux box... System.Text.ASCIIEncoding encoding = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] imageBytes = encoding.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); // Convert byte[] to Image ms.Write(imageBytes, 0, imageBytes.Length); System.Drawing.Image image = System.Drawing.Image.FromStream(ms, false); <-- DIES here, throws a {System.ArgumentException: Parameter is not valid.} error Any advice, suggestions, theories, or HELP would be GREATLY appreciated! Please let me know??? Best wishes all! Thanks in advance! Greg

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• Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

  - by AspOnMyNet

  1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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• how to upgrade compact framework applications?

  - by Derick Bailey

  i'm looking for a way to manage application upgrades for my compact framework app. let's say i have v1 of the app installed on my device, and v1.1 has been released. I want the app to make a call to my server to see if there is a new version. since a new version is found, i want to send down the new version of the app to the device and have it installed, replacing the old version. my first thought was just to have the app download the .cab file and kick off the cab file just before exiting the app. this would mostly get the job done but it would prompt the user to pick the installation location if they have a storage card or other partitions on their device. i would like to prevent any user input and just have the new version of the app installed, replacing the old app. i'm certain that there are others doing this already and i don't want to reinvent the wheel, here. what application management tools and systems exist for this type of process? how can I facilitate this type of process?

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• Address family not supported by protocol exception

  - by srg

  I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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• App hosting Report Viewer crashes on exit after export

  - by Paul Sasik

  We have a .NET Winforms application that hosts the Crystal Reports Viewer control (Version XI). It works well for the most part but when an export of data from the viewer is performed the application will crash on exit and in unmanaged code. The error message is not very useful and just says that an incorrect memory location was accessed. No other info such a specific DLL etc. is provided. This only happens after the viewer is used to export a report to CSV, XML etc. My guess is that at some point in the export process Crystal creates a resource that attempts an action on shut down to a parent window (perhaps) that no longer exists. I've seen a number of memory leak and shut down issues with Crystal but this one's new. Has anyone seen it and come up with a workaround or has ideas for workarounds? So far we've tried explicitly disposing of all crystal-related objects, setting to null and even setting a Thread.Sleep cycle on shut down to "give Crystal time to clean up." Update: The crash happens only on shut down (so not immediate) All export formats work All export files are created properly CR is installed on the same machine as the hosting .NET app not sure about exporting from the IDE... is that even possible?

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• Set form MinWidth and MinHeight based on child property

  - by Jon Mitchell

  I'm writing an application in WPF using the MVVM pattern. In my application I've got an IPopupWindowService which I use to create a popup dialog window. So to show a ViewModel in a popup window you'd do something like this: var container = ServiceLocator.Current.GetInstance<IUnityContainer>(); var popupService = container.Resolve<IPopupWindowService>(); var myViewModel = container.Resolve<IMyViewModel>(); popupService.Show((ViewModelBase)myViewModel); This is all well and good. What I want to do is be able to set the MinHeight and MinWidth on the View bound to myViewModel and have the popup window use those settings so that a user cannot make the window smaller than its contents will allow. At the moment when the user shrinks the window the contents stops resizing but the window doesn't. EDIT: I map my Views to my ViewModels in ResourceDictionarys like so: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type ViewModels:MyViewModel}"> <Views:MyView /> </DataTemplate> And my popup view looks like this: <Window x:Class="TheCompany.Cubit.Shell.Views.PopupWindowView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" SizeToContent="WidthAndHeight" WindowStartupLocation="CenterOwner"> <DockPanel x:Name="panelContent"> <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Right" DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Orientation="Horizontal" Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=Window},Path=ButtonPanelVisibility}"> <Button Width="75" IsDefault="True" x:Uid="ViewDialog_AcceptButton" Click="OnAcceptButtonClick" Margin="4">OK</Button> <Button Width="75" IsCancel="True" x:Uid="ViewDialog_CancelButton" Click="OnCancelButtonClick" Margin="0,4,4,4">Cancel</Button> </StackPanel> <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding}" /> </DockPanel>

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• Debugging Post Request with Chrome Dev Tools

  - by benek

  I am trying to use Chrome Dev for debugging the following Angular post request : $http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader) After running the statement with right-click / evaluate, I can see the post in the network panel with a pending state. How can I get the result or "commit" the request and leave easily this "pending" state from the dev console ? I am not yet very familiar with JS callbacks, some code is expected. Thanks. EDIT I have tried to run from the console : $scope.$apply(function(){$http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader).success(function(data){console.log("error "+data)}).error(function(data){console.log("error "+data)})}) It returns : undefined EDIT The post I am trying to solve generate an HTTP 400. Here is the result : Request URL:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader Request Method:POST Status Code:400 Mauvaise Requ?te Request Headersview source Accept:application/json, text/plain, / Accept-Encoding:gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language:fr-FR,fr;q=0.8,en-US;q=0.6,en;q=0.4 Connection:keep-alive Content-Length:5354 Content-Type:application/json;charset=UTF-8 Cookie:JSESSIONID=285AF523EA18C0D7F9D581CDB2286C56 Host:picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Origin:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Referer:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/ User-Agent:Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/30.0.1599.101 Safari/537.36 X-Requested-With:XMLHttpRequest Request Payloadview source {refHeader:IDSFP, idEntrepot:619, codeEntreprise:null, codeBanniere:null, codeArticle:7,…} cessionPrice: 78 codeArticle: "7" codeBanniere: null codeDateAppro: null codeDateDelivery: null codeDatePrepa: null codeEntreprise: null codeFournisseur: null codeUtilisateur: null codeUtilisateurLastUpdate: null createDate: null dateAppro: null dateDelivery: null datePrepa: null hasAssortControl: null hasCadenceForce: null idEntrepot: 619 isFreeCost: null labelArticle: "Mayonnaise de DIJON" labelFournisseur: null listDetail: [,…] pcbArticle: 12 pvc: 78 qte: 78 refCommande: "ref" refHeader: "IDSFP" state: "CREATED" stockArticle: 1200 updateDate: null Response Headersview source Connection:close Content-Length:996 Content-Type:text/html;charset=utf-8 Date:Fri, 08 Nov 2013 15:19:30 GMT Server:Apache-Coyote/1.1 X-Powered-By:Servlet 2.5; JBoss-5.0/JBossWeb-2.1

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