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• WCF service reference namespace differs from original

  - by Thorarin

  I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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• How spoof referrer using curl

  - by golu molu

  I am using curl code below to spoof referrer , it works fine but there is error on every page - Curl error: $url = somesite.com function doMagic($url) { $curl = curl_init(); $header[0] = "Accept: text/xml,application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,"; $header[0] .= "text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Cache-Control: max-age=0"; $header[] = "Connection: keep-alive"; $header[] = "Keep-Alive: 300"; $header[] = "Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7"; $header[] = "Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Pragma: "; curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:7.0.1) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/7.0.12011-10-16 20:23:00"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://www.facebook.com"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_ENCODING, "gzip,deflate"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_AUTOREFERER, true); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,true); $html = curl_exec($curl); echo 'Curl error: '. curl_error($curl); curl_close($curl); return $html; } $text = doMagic($url); print("$text"); what i'm doing wrong?

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• Silverlight RIA Services - Showing columns from multiple tables

  - by Villager

  Hello, I have been evaluating Silverlight and .NET RIA Services for my company. I am trying to decide if it is right for us. For the most part, I like it. But, I see one item that I am surprised that I cannot do easily. Because of this, I'm guessing I'm doing some thing wrong. To demonstrate, I have two database tables: Order ----- ID CustomerID OrderDate OrderNumber Customer -------- ID FirstName LastName Address When I create my Domain Service class, I select both of these tables. On the Silverlight application, I drag-and-drop the Order entity from the Data Sources page to my Silverlight page. When I do this, a DataGrid is added with all of the properties in the Order entity. In reality though, I would like the DataGrid to show: Order.OrderNumber Order.OrderDate Customer.FirstName Customer.LastName Because this information is spread across multiple tables, I'm not sure how to use RIA Services to show them in my Silverlight application. What is the recommended way to do this? Should I add a view in my database? Can I do it without touching the database? Thank you,

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• SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

  - by Remnant

  I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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• Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

  - by c.batt

  I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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• Can I get rid of this read lock?

  - by Pieter

  I have the following helper class (simplified): public static class Cache { private static readonly object _syncRoot = new object(); private static Dictionary<Type, string> _lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(); public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.Add(type, value); } } public static string Lookup(Type type) { string result; lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.TryGetValue(type, out result); } return result; } } Add will be called roughly 10/100 times in the application and Lookup will be called by many threads, many of thousands of times. What I would like is to get rid of the read lock. How do you normally get rid of the read lock in this situation? I have the following ideas: Require that _lookup is stable before the application starts operation. The could be build up from an Attribute. This is done automatically through the static constructor the attribute is assigned to. Requiring the above would require me to go through all types that could have the attribute and calling RuntimeHelpers.RunClassConstructor which is an expensive operation; Move to COW semantics. public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { var lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(_lookup); lookup.Add(type, value); _lookup = lookup; } } (With the lock (_syncRoot) removed in the Lookup method.) The problem with this is that this uses an unnecessary amount of memory (which might not be a problem) and I would probably make _lookup volatile, but I'm not sure how this should be applied. (John Skeets' comment here gives me pause.) Using ReaderWriterLock. I believe this would make things worse since the region being locked is small. Suggestions are very welcome.

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• Store the cache data locally

  - by Lu Lu

  Hello, I develops a C# Winform application, it is a client and connect to web service to get data. The data returned by webservice is a DataTable. Client will display it on a DataGridView. My problem is that: Client will take more time to get all data from server (web service is not local with client). So I must to use a thread to get data. This is my model: Client create a thread to get data - thread complete and send event to client - client display data on datagridview on a form. However, when user closes the form, user can open this form in another time, and client must get data again. This solution will cause the client slowly. So, I think about a cached data: Client <---get/add/edit/delete--- Cached Data ---get/add/edit/delete---Server (web service) Please give me some suggestions. Example: cached data should be developed in another application which is same host with client? Or cached data is running in client. Please give me some techniques to implement this solution. If having any examples, please give me. Thanks.

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• Form Encoding Problems on GRAILS 2.0

  - by ArmlessJohn

  I have an Grails application that is configured everywhere to function as UTF-8. While running a debug version, headers say Content-Type:text/html;charset=utf-8, and meta tags agree. Browser identified page as UTF-8 and shows characters correctly. When posting a form, the browser correctly sends it encoded as UTF-8. When reading the data via params.paramname, however, the data looks garbled; maçã becomes maçã. Upon further inspection, it seems the form is sending UTF-8 data, but Grails seem to try and read it as if it was ISO-8859-1. Setting accept-charset="ISO-8859-1" on the form confirms this problem, as it fixes the problem. I also have this on applicationContext.xml: <bean id="characterEncodingFilter" class="org.springframework.web.filter.CharacterEncodingFilter"> <property name="encoding"> <value>utf-8</value> </property> <property name="forceEncoding"> <value>true</value> </property> </bean> Is there an solution for this besides adding accept-charset="ISO-8859-1" to all forms in the application? Thanks.

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• npgsql Leaking Postgres DB Connections: Way to monitor connections?

  - by Alan

  Background: I'm moving my application from npgsql v1 to npgsql v2.0.9. After a few minutes of running my application, I get a System.Exception: Timeout while getting a connection from the pool. The web claims that this is due to leaking connections (opening a db connection, but not properly closing them). So I'm trying to diagnose leaking postgres connections in npgsql. From the various web literature around; one way to diagnose leaking connections is to setup logging on npgsql, and look for the leaking connection warning message in the log. Problem is, I'm not seeing this message in the logs anywhere. I also found utility that monitors npgsql connections, but it's unstable and crashes. So I'm left manually inspecting code. For everyplace that creates an npgsql connection, there is a finally block disposing of it. For everyplace that opens a datareader, CommandBehavior.CloseConnection is used (and the datareader is disposed). Any other places to check or can someone recommend a way to look for leaking pool connections?

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• ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

  - by Chris Klepeis

  I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use an Interface as the Type for a Strongly Typed View

  - by Rake36

  I'd like to keep my concrete classes separate from my views. Without using strongly typed views, I'm fine. I just use a big parameter list in the controller method signatures and then use my service layer factory methods to create my concrete objects. This is actually just fine with me, but it got me thinking and after a little playing, I realized it was literally impossible for a controller method to accept an interface as a method parameter - because it has no way of instantiating it. Can't create a strongly-typed view using an interface through the IDE either (which makes sense actually). So my question. Is there some way to tell the controller how to instantiate the interface parameter using my service layer factory methods? I'd like to convert from: [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, String TypeCode, String TimeCode, String[] SelectedSchoolSystems, String PositionChoice1, String PositionChoice2, String PositionChoice3, String Reason, String LocationPreference, String AvailableDate, String RecipientsNotSelected, String RecipientsSelected) { //New blank app IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id); to something like [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, IApplication app) { //Don't need to do this anymore //IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id);

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• Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

  - by Benny

  I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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• UINaviagtionBar not displaying?

  - by Rajendra Bhole

  Hi, I developing an application in which initially choose UINavigationController based application. In rooViewController xib i added two more UIView, the code is written as follows. @implementation RootViewController @synthesize introductionView, WheelView; (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self.navigationController setNavigationBarHidden:YES]; } pragma mark pragma mark strart up screen: -(void)startIntroductionScreen{ if(window == nil) { window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; } [window addSubview: introductionView]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } -(void)WheelScreen{ [window addSubview:carnivalWheelView]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; self.navigationController.navigationBar.hidden = NO; [self.navigationItem setLeftBarButtonItem:[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Setting" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:nil action:nil] animated:YES]; } pragma mark pragma mark IBAction: -(IBAction)breakGlass:(id)sender{ [self startIntroductionScreen]; } -(IBAction)anotherView:(id)sender{ [self WheelScreen]; } In above code, when the -(void)WheelScreen method on the IBAction anotherView of invoke the UINaviagtionBar is not displaying. Thank's in advance.

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• Sms via a nokia phone over a serial port

  - by abigblackman

  Hi, I'm trying to send a sms via a Nokia phone over serial which is easy enough via putty. The commands from the nokia documentation works fine. However, trying to send the same commands from a c# application fails miserably. I've run Sysinternals PortMon and can see the commands come through OK, the only difference I can see is in the way it connects but I am having trouble finding the commands that would iron out those differences. The code I'm running looks a little bit like this using (SerialPort port = new SerialPort(comPort, 9600, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One)) { port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); port.ErrorReceived += new SerialErrorReceivedEventHandler(port_ErrorReceived); //port.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; port.DtrEnable = true; port.RtsEnable = true; port.ReadTimeout = 1; port.Handshake = Handshake.XOnXOff; try { port.Open(); port.WriteLine("AT"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGF=1"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGS=\"" + number + "\""); port.WriteLine(message); port.Write(new byte[] { (byte)26 }, 0, 1); } finally { if (port.IsOpen) { port.Close(); } } The differences I'm seeing in the trace from the serial port are At the start 0.00001844 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_SET_HANDFLOW USBSER001 SUCCESS Shake:1 Replace:43 XonLimit:4096 XoffLimit:4096 And at the very end 0.00061153 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: RXABORT RXCLEAR 0.00004442 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: TXABORT TXCLEAR Has anyone got any tips on how to iron out these issues? I also notice that the phone is not responding back to the application with any acknowledgement when I issue a command so I suspect the problem is with the connection, not those messages at the end.

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• Rails - Why is HAML showing the full hash?

  - by Mr. Demetrius Michael

  View: !!! %html %head %title= full_title(yield(:title)) =stylesheet_link_tag "application", media: "all" =javascript_include_tag "application" =csrf_meta_tags =render 'layouts/shim' %body =render 'layouts/header' .container =flash.each do |key, value| %div{class: "alert alert-#{key}"} #{value} Controller def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:success] = "This is Correct" redirect_to @user else flash[:wrong] = "no" render 'new' end end Regardless of the flash (:success or :wrong or otherwise) it always compiles the entire hash as html (below) Output: <!DOCTYPE html> .... <div class='container'> <div class='alert alert-wrong'>no</div> {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} </div> </body> </html> I have no idea why {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} is being displayed. I've been staring at this terminal for hours. What's interesting is that the hash is being outputted with the container id, but not in the alert class. It feels like an indentation problem, but I went through several permutations with no success.

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• Swing GUI using JNI crashes

  - by Div

  Hi, A java swing application(GUI) using JNI code to communicate with native C code. The Swing application launches properly and works fine. The GUI is used to start some customized system level tests(io,memory,cpu) and show their progress. The tests have to be left running at-least overnight to get the results. But, the next morning, GUI crashes and throws following message. Any pointers on source of the issue will be greatly appreciated. Java version: java 1.5 / java 1.6 OS: Solaris 10. Thanks, Div =============MESSAGES================== # uname -a SunOS Generic_127127-11 sun4v sparc SUNW, # # # # An unexpected error has been detected by HotSpot Virtual Machine: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0xff268924, pid=9473, tid=272 # # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (1.5.0_14-b03 mixed mode) # Problematic frame: # C [libc.so.1+0x68924] strstr+0x20 # # An error report file with more information is saved as hs_err_pid9473.log # # If you would like to submit a bug report, please visit: # HotSpot Virtual Machine Error Reporting Page # ============================= Another machine: # A fatal error has been detected by the Java Runtime Environment: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0xff231fd0, pid=1406, tid=180 # # JRE version: 6.0_18-b07 # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (16.0-b13 mixed mode solaris-sparc ) # Problematic frame: # C [libc.so.1+0x31fd0] strcpy+0x70 # # An error report file with more information is saved as: # /usr/sunvts/bin/hs_err_pid1406.log #

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• Why can't I access the facebook friends list after reopening a session in ios

  - by user1532390

  I am upgrading to the facebook 3.0 sdk for ios. Things went well, until I tried to open an existing session after relaunching the application. I am trying to access the list of friends for the facebook user. if ([[FBSession activeSession] isOpen]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //do something here }]; }else{ [[self session] openWithCompletionHandler:^(FBSession *session, FBSessionState status, NSError *error) { if ([self isValid]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //log this error we always get NSLog(@"%@",error); //do something else }]; } }]; } However I get this error: Error Domain=com.facebook.sdk Code=5 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (com.facebook.sdk error 5.)" UserInfo=0x1d92ff40 {com.facebook.sdk:ParsedJSONResponseKey={ body = { error = { code = 2500; message = "An active access token must be used to query information about the current user."; type = OAuthException; }; }; code = 400; }, com.facebook.sdk:HTTPStatusCode=400} I've found that if I use the FBSession reauthorize method it allows me to complete the request without error, but it also means I must show UI or switch apps every time we relaunch the application which is unacceptable. Any suggestions on what I should be doing differently?

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• Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

  - by AspOnMyNet

  1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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• Code Coverage tool for BlackBerry

  - by Skrud

  I'm looking for a code coverage tool that I can use with a BlackBerry application. I'm using J2ME-Unit for Unit Testing and I want to see how much of my code is being covered by my tests. I've tried using Cobertura for J2ME but after days of wrestling with it I failed to get any results from it. (I believe that the instrumentation is un-done by the RAPC compilation). And despite this message, the project seems to be dead. I've looked at JInjector but the project seems very incomplete. There is little (if any) documentation and although it claims to be able to work with BlackBerry projects, I haven't seen any places where it has been used for that purpose. I've played with the project quite a bit but to no avail. I've also tried the "Coverage" view in the BlackBerry JDE, even though I use Eclipse for development. The view stays permanently blank, regardless of clicking "Refresh" and running the application from the JDE. I've looked at most of the tools on this SO thread, but they won't work with J2ME/BlackBerry projects. Has anyone had any success with any code coverage tools on the BlackBerry? If so, what tools have you used? How have you used them? If anyone has managed to get JInjector or Cobertura for J2ME to work with a BlackBerry project, what did you have to do to get it working?

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• Need cause for: double dialer icon in Recents when ACTION_CALL is intercepted and re-sent

  - by Emmanuel

  Note that this happens on Android version 2.1 update1 and 2.2. This seems gone in later versions. Of course I would like to know the workaround. But if there are none, at least if this is a known bug, please provide with a link to the bug. I would also accept the source code fix info or diff where this was fixed. I have an application that intercepts an outgoing call, asks a question to the user, and then depending on the answer it could re-send the call. This works fine. But then when you go to the Recents (hold the Home key) there are two slightly different dialer icons there: one from the dialer application, and a second one for the resending of the call action: This means when you click on the first icon, it opens the dialer. But when you click on the second one, it redials the last number. I tried using android:excludeFromRecents="true" for all my activities. I also tried Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_EXCLUDE_FROM_RECENTS when I start the call action. No luck.

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• Cache data in SQL CE database

  - by user93422

  Background I have an SQL CE database, that is constantly updated (every second). I have a (web) application that allows a user to look at the data in real-time. At some point a user can click "take a snapshot" button, and it will open the snapshot in a different window. And then on that form, there is "print" and "download" buttons that will either generate a page for printing, or will stream the data as CSV file - but same data snapshot has to be used, i.e. I can't go to the DB to get latest data for that. Details SQL CE dabatase is exposed through WCF web service. Snapshot consists of up to 500 records, 10 columns each. Expiration time on the snapshot of 2 hours is sufficient. It is a low-traffic application, so I don't expect more than few (5) connections at the same time. Loosing snapshot is not a big deal, user can simply generate new one. database is accessed by self-hosted WCF web service using Linq-to-SQL. Web site is ASP.NET MVC hosted on UltiDev Cassini. database, and web site are most likely be on the same box, when deployed. The entire app is intranet bound. Problem I need to cache the snapshot of the data at the moment user pressed "take a snapshot" button, so that I can use same data to generate print page, or generate a file for download. Solution 1: Each time there is a need to generate a snapshot, I will create a table in the database. Since there are no temp tables in SQL CE, I will need to clean it up myself. Solution 2: Cache the snapshot in-memory on either DB server, or web server. Question: Is there anything wrong with proposed solutions? Any different solution suggestions?

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• How can you get the call tree with python profilers?

  - by Oliver

  I used to use a nice Apple profiler that is built into the System Monitor application. As long as your C++ code was compiled with debug information, you could sample your running application and it would print out an indented tree telling you what percent of the parent function's time was spent in this function (and the body vs. other function calls). For instance, if main called function_1 and function_2, function_2 calls function_3, and then main calls function_3: main (100%, 1% in function body): function_1 (9%, 9% in function body): function_2 (90%, 85% in function body): function_3 (100%, 100% in function body) function_3 (1%, 1% in function body) I would see this and think, "Something is taking a long time in the code in the body of function_2. If I want my program to be faster, that's where I should start." Does anyone know how I can most easily get this exact profiling output for a python program? I've seen people say to do this: import cProfile, pstats prof = cProfile.Profile() prof = prof.runctx("real_main(argv)", globals(), locals()) stats = pstats.Stats(prof) stats.sort_stats("time") # Or cumulative stats.print_stats(80) # 80 = how many to print but it's quite messy compared to that elegant call tree. Please let me know if you can easily do this, it would help quite a bit. Cheers!

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• HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Graham

  I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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• Accessing MS Access database from C#

  - by Abilash

  I want to use MS Access as database for my C# windows form application.I have used OleDb driver for connecting MS Access. I am able to select the records from the MS Access using OleDbConnection and ExecuteReader.But I am un able to insert,update and delete records. My code is as follows: OleDbConnection con=new OleDbConnection(strCon); try { con.Open(); OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("INSERT INTO DPMaster(DPID,DPName,ClientID,ClientName) VALUES('53','we','41','aw')", con); int a=com.ExecuteNonQuery(); //OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM DPMaster", con); //OleDbDataReader dr = com.ExecuteReader(); //while (dr.Read()) //{ // MessageBox.Show(dr[2].ToString()); //} MessageBox.Show(a.ToString()); } catch { MessageBox.Show("cannot"); } If I execute the commented block the application works.But the insert block doesnt works.Why I am unable to insert/update/delete the records into database? My Connection String is as follows: string strCon="Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=xyz.mdb;Persist Security Info=True";

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• can javascript process binary data?

  - by Johnny

  admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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