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  • Jquery .hide problem

    - by Sergio
    I'm using jquery to show animated MSN like window at the bottom of the page. Jquery code: $(document).ready(function() { $(" .inner").stop().animate({height:'142px'},{queue:false, duration:600}); $(' .close').click(function(event) { $(' .inner').hide(); }); $(' .inner').click(function() { location.replace("somepage.php"); }); }); The CSS: .close {height:14px; z-index:100; position: absolute; margin-left:174px; margin-top:12px; border:1px solid #F00;} .inner {position:absolute;bottom:0;width:201px;height:117px;right: 0; margin-right:10px; float:left; z-index:-1; display:block; cursor:pointer;} The problem that I have with this code is that the close button (showing at the right top corner of .inner DIV) can't fire Jquery .hide function. Why?

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  • Trouble with LINQ databind to GridView and RowDataBound

    - by Michael
    Greetings all, I am working on redesigning my personal Web site using VS 2008 and have chosen to use LINQ to create by data-access layer. Part of my site will be a little app to help manage my budget better. My first LINQ query does successfully execute and display in a GridView, but when I try to use a RowDataBound event to work with the results and refine them a bit, I get the error: The type or namespace name 'var' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) This interesting part is, if I just try to put in a var s = "s"; anywhere else in the same file, I get the same error too. If I go to other files in the web project, var s = "s"; compiles fine. Here is the LINQ Query call: public static IQueryable pubGetRecentTransactions(int param_accountid) { clsDataContext db; db = new clsDataContext(); var query = from d in db.tblMoneyTransactions join p in db.tblMoneyTransactions on d.iParentTransID equals p.iTransID into dp from p in dp.DefaultIfEmpty() where d.iAccountID == param_accountid orderby d.dtTransDate descending, d.iTransID ascending select new { d.iTransID, d.dtTransDate, sTransDesc = p != null ? p.sTransDesc : d.sTransDesc, d.sTransMemo, d.mTransAmt, d.iCheckNum, d.iParentTransID, d.iReconciled, d.bIsTransfer }; return query; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!this.IsPostBack) { this.prvLoadData(); } } internal void prvLoadData() { prvCtlGridTransactions.DataSource = clsMoneyTransactions.pubGetRecentTransactions(2); prvCtlGridTransactions.DataBind(); } protected void prvCtlGridTransactions_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { var datarow = e.Row.DataItem; var s = "s"; e.Row.Cells[0].Text = datarow.dtTransDate.ToShortDateString(); e.Row.Cells[1].Text = datarow.sTransDesc; e.Row.Cells[2].Text = datarow.mTransAmt.ToString("c"); e.Row.Cells[3].Text = datarow.iReconciled.ToString(); }//end if }//end RowDataBound My googling to date hasn't found a good answer, so I turn it over to this trusted community. I appreciate your time in assisting me.

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  • Facebook IOS SDK: Error in Publish Story Dialog

    - by lividsquirrel
    I've successfully set up the "DemoApp" project from the Facebook IOS SDK to use my "OKC ThunderCast" Facebook application. I have also configured another "Tester" application from scratch to successfully use the Facebook SDK and publish stories to my news feed. However, in my production application, I always get this result when calling the "dialog" method. The full description of the error message is "Error on line 52 at column 17: Opening and ending tag mismatch: div line 0 and body" Here's a detailed walkthrough of all of my code to make sure nothing is missed. 1) A UIViewController calls the "authorize" method NSArray *fbPerms = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"read_stream", @"offline_access", nil]; [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook authorize:fbPerms delegate:self]; Note: The FacebookSingleton is a class I wrote that always returns a single instance of the "Facebook" class. I am using it successfully in other applications. 2) Safari is opened and the user is successfully authenticated and authorized 3) The application is called back and the "handleOpenUrl" method is called, which calls the "fbDidLogin" method of the UIViewController - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application handleOpenURL:(NSURL *)url { Facebook *fb = [FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook; return [fb handleOpenURL:url]; } 4) The same UIViewController handles the "fbDidLogin" event, and calls the "dialog" method - (void)fbDidLogin { [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook dialog:@"feed" andDelegate:self]; } I also have the necessary "URL Schemes" and "URL Types" entries in the .plist file. To my eyes, I am using exactly the same code in the "DemoApp", "Tester", and production applications. But while the DemoApp and Tester work, I always see this HTML error in the feed dialog in my production application. Has anyone seen a similar issue? Could it be related to the Facebook "Bundle ID" setting in the Facebook application settings? Is there some build or .plist setting that is different? I have invested a great deal of time into troubleshooting with no success in several weeks. Thanks in advance...

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  • C# StripStatusText Update Issue

    - by ikurtz
    I am here due to a strange behaviour in Button_Click event. The code is attached. The issue is the first StripStatus message is never displayed. any ideas as to why? private void FireBtn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Control local controls for launching attack AwayTableLayoutPanel.Enabled = false; AwayCancelBtn.Enabled = false; FireBtn.Enabled = false; ////////////// Below statusBar message is never displayed but the folowing sound clip is. GameToolStripStatusLabel.Text = "(Home vs. Away)(Attack Coordinate: (" + GameModel.alphaCoords(GridLock.Column) + "," + GridLock.Row + "))(Action: Fire)"; //////////////////////////////////////////// if (audio) { SoundPlayer fire = new SoundPlayer(Properties.Resources.fire); fire.PlaySync(); fire.Dispose(); } // compile attack message XmlSerializer s; StringWriter w; FireGridUnit fireGridUnit = new FireGridUnit(); fireGridUnit.FireGridLocation = GridLock; s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(FireGridUnit)); w = new StringWriter(); s.Serialize(w, fireGridUnit); ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // send attack message GameMessage GameMessageAction = new GameMessage(); GameMessageAction.gameAction = GameMessage.GameAction.FireAttack; GameMessageAction.statusMessage = w.ToString(); s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(GameMessage)); w = new StringWriter(); s.Serialize(w, GameMessageAction); SendGameMsg(w.ToString()); GameToolStripStatusLabel.Text = "(Home vs. Away)(Attack Coordinate: (" + GameModel.alphaCoords(GridLock.Column) + "," + GridLock.Row + "))(Action: Awaiting Fire Result)"; } EDIT: if I put in a messageBox after the StripStatus message the status is updated.

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  • Detect if certain UIView was touched amongst other UIViews

    - by Rudiger
    HI Guys, Sorry if this has been answered elsewhere but I can't seem to get it to work. I have 3 UIViews, layered on top of one large uiview. I want to know if the user touches the top one and not care about the other ones. I will have a couple of buttons in the second UIView and a UITable in the 3rd UIView. Problem is I turn userInteractionEngabled on on the first view and that works, but all the other views respond in the same way even if I turn it off. If I disable userInteractionEnabled on self.view none of them respond. I also can't detect which view was touched in the touchesBegan delegate method. my code: UIView *aView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 150)]; aView = userInteractionEnabled = YES; [self.view addSubview:aView]; UIView *bView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 150, 320, 50)]; bView.userInteractionEnabled = NO; [self.view addSubview:bView]; -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { //This gets called for a touch anywhere } Thanks for any help.

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  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

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  • HttpURLConnection inside a loop

    - by Carlos Garces
    Hi! I'm trying to connect to one URL that I know that exist but I don't know when. I don't have access to this server so I can't change anything to receive a event. The actual code is this. URL url = new URL(urlName); for(int j = 0 ; j< POOLING && disconnected; j++){ HttpURLConnection connection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); int status = connection.getResponseCode(); if(status == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK || status == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_NOT_MODIFIED){ //Some work }else{ //wait 3s Thread.sleep(3000); } } Java not is my best skill and I'm not sure if this code is good from the point of view of performance. I'm opening a new connection every 3 seconds? or the connection is reused? If I call to disconnect() I ensure that no new connections are open in the loop, but... it will impact in performance?. Suggestions? What is the fast/best ways to know it a URL exist?

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  • Changing label content programmatically from within a DataTemplate used in a DataGrid column header

    - by iimpact
    I'm dynamically creating DataGrid columns (based on an event from my ViewModel) and programmatically adding them to an existing DataGrid. Each column uses a generic HeaderTemplate by setting it to a DataTemplate that has been identified in the xaml. The DataTemplate contains two labels in which needs their content needs to be changed upon creation of the DataGrid column. How would this be done? I understand that the DataTemplate uses the ContentPresenter but I am having trouble accessing it within a dynamically created DataGrid column. Code is as follows: xaml: (template used to format the DataGrid column header): <DataTemplate x:Key="columnTemplate"> <StackPanel> <Label Padding="0" Name="labelA"/> <Separator HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <Label Padding="0" Name="labelB"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> c#: (used to dynamically create a DataGrid column and add it to an existing DataGrid) var dataTemplate = FindResource("columnTemplate") as DataTemplate; var column = new DataGridTextColumn(); column.HeaderTemplate = dataTemplate; DataGrid1.Columns.Add(column); I would like to then access both labelA and labelB and change the content.

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  • WCF timedout waiting for System.Diagnostics.Process to finish

    - by Bartek
    Dear All, We have a WCF Service deployed on Windows Server 2003 that handles file transfers. When file is in Unix format, I am converting it to Dos format in the initialization stage using System.Diagnostics.Process (.WaitForExit()). Client calls the service: obj_DataSenderService = New DataSendClient() obj_DataSenderService.InnerChannel.OperationTimeout = New TimeSpan(0, System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("DatasenderServiceOperationTimeout"), 0) str_DataSenderGUID = obj_DataSenderService.Initialize(xe_InitDetails.GetXMLNode) This works fine, however for large files the conversion takes more than 10 minutes and I am getting exception: A first chance exception of type 'System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException' occurred in mscorlib.dll Additional information: The socket connection was aborted. This could be caused by an error processing your message or a receive timeout being exceeded by the remote host, or an underlying network resource issue. Local socket timeout was '00:59:59.8749992'. I tried configuring both client: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="NetTcpBinding_IDataSend" closeTimeout="01:00:00" openTimeout="01:00:00" receiveTimeout="01:00:00" sendTimeout="01:00:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" protectionLevel="EncryptAndSign" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" /> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:4000/DataSenderEndPoint" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="NetTcpBinding_IDataSend" contract="IDataSend" name="NetTcpBinding_IDataSend"> <identity> <servicePrincipalName value="host/localhost" /> <!--<servicePrincipalName value="host/axopwrapp01.Corp.Acxiom.net" />--> </identity> </endpoint> </client> </system.serviceModel> And service: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="NetTcpBinding_IDataSend" closeTimeout="01:00:00" openTimeout="01:00:00" receiveTimeout="01:00:00" sendTimeout="01:00:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> </system.serviceModel> but without luck. In the Service trace viewer I can see: Close process timed out waiting for service dispatch to complete. with stack trace: System.ServiceModel.ServiceChannelManager.CloseInput(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.InstanceContextManager.CloseInput(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnClose(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Close(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Close() DataSenderService.DataSender.OnStop() System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase.DeferredStop() System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.StackBuilderSink._PrivateProcessMessage(IntPtr md, Object[] args, Object server, Int32 methodPtr, Boolean fExecuteInContext, Object[]& outArgs) System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.StackBuilderSink.PrivateProcessMessage(RuntimeMethodHandle md, Object[] args, Object server, Int32 methodPtr, Boolean fExecuteInContext, Object[]& outArgs) System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.StackBuilderSink.AsyncProcessMessage(IMessage msg, IMessageSink replySink) System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.AgileAsyncWorkerItem.DoAsyncCall() System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.AgileAsyncWorkerItem.ThreadPoolCallBack(Object o) System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runTryCode(Object userData) System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallbackInternal(_ThreadPoolWaitCallback tpWaitCallBack) System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback(Object state) Many thanks Bartek

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  • ASP Button Calling JavaScript Function

    - by Steven
    I am attempting to construct my own date picker using code from several sources. Specifically, I am now attempting to have an asp:button display/hide the calendar. What am I doing wrong? myDate.ascx <%@ Control Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="myDate.ascx.vb" Inherits="Website.myDate" %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function toggleCalendar(myID) { var obj = document.getElementById(myID) obj.style.display = (obj.style.display == "none") ? "" : "none"; } </script> <asp:TextBox ID="dateText" runat="server" > </asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="dateBtn" runat="server" UseSubmitBehavior="false" Text="x" /> <asp:Calendar ID="dateCal" runat="server" > </asp:Calendar> myDate.ascx.vb Partial Public Class myDate Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Protected Sub Page_Load (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Add OnClick event to call JavaScript to toggle calendar display' calBtn.Attributes.Add("OnClick", "toggleCalendar(" & cal.ClientID & ")") End Sub End Class HTML code for button (from browser) <input type="button" name="ctl03$calBtn" value="x" onclick="toggleCalendar(ctl03_cal);__doPostBack('ctl03$calBtn','')" id="ctl03_calBtn" />

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  • Actionscript project that loads a Flex SWF, "Could not find resource bundle" Error when using Layout

    - by Leeron
    Hi guys. I'm using an actionsciprt only project (under FlashDevelop) to load an .swf flex file built by another department of the company I work for. Using the follwing code: var mLoader:Loader = new Loader(); var mRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest('flexSWF.swf'); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onCompleteHandler); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, onProgressHandler); mLoader.load(mRequest); That worked fine until I wanted to use Flex's mx.managers.LayoutManager. I've added the this line to my class: import mx.managers.ILayoutManagerClient; import mx.managers.LayoutManager; . . . private var _layoutManager:LayoutManager; And I get this run time error: Error: Could not find resource bundle messaging at mx.resources::ResourceBundle$/getResourceBundle()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\resources\ResourceBundle.as:143] at mx.utils::Translator$cinit() at global$init() at mx.messaging.config::ServerConfig$cinit() at global$init() at _app_FlexInit$/init() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::docFrameHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3217] at mx.managers::SystemManager/docFrameListener()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3069] commenting the LayoutManager line, the swf works fine. But I do want to use LayoutManager. Any hints?

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  • jQuery Validation error...

    - by Povylas
    Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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  • Problem using form builder & DOM manipulation in Rails with multiple levels of nested partials

    - by Chris Hart
    I'm having a problem using nested partials with dynamic form builder code (from the "complex form example" code on github) in Rails. I have my top level view "new" (where I attempt to generate the template): <% form_for (@transaction_group) do |txngroup_form| %> <%= txngroup_form.error_messages %> <% content_for :jstemplates do -%> <%= "var transaction='#{generate_template(txngroup_form, :transactions)}'" %> <% end -%> <%= render :partial => 'transaction_group', :locals => { :f => txngroup_form, :txn_group => @transaction_group }%> <% end -%> This renders the transaction_group partial: <div class="content"> <% logger.debug "in partial, class name = " + txn_group.class.name %> <% f.fields_for txn_group.transactions do |txn_form| %> <table id="transactions" class="form"> <tr class="header"><td>Price</td><td>Quantity</td></tr> <%= render :partial => 'transaction', :locals => { :tf => txn_form } %> </table> <% end %> <div>&nbsp;</div><div id="container"> <%= link_to 'Add a transaction', '#transaction', :class => "add_nested_item", :rel => "transactions" %> </div> <div>&nbsp;</div> ... which in turn renders the transaction partial: <tr><td><%= tf.text_field :price, :size => 5 %></td> <td><%= tf.text_field :quantity, :size => 2 %></td></tr> The generate_template code looks like this: def generate_html(form_builder, method, options = {}) options[:object] ||= form_builder.object.class.reflect_on_association(method).klass.new options[:partial] ||= method.to_s.singularize options[:form_builder_local] ||= :f form_builder.fields_for(method, options[:object], :child_index => 'NEW_RECORD') do |f| render(:partial => options[:partial], :locals => { options[:form_builder_local] => f }) end end def generate_template(form_builder, method, options = {}) escape_javascript generate_html(form_builder, method, options) end (Obviously my code is not the most elegant - I was trying to get this nested partial thing worked out first.) My problem is that I get an undefined variable exception from the transaction partial when loading the view: /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/views/transaction_groups/_transaction.html.erb:2:in _run_erb_app47views47transaction_groups47_transaction46html46erb_locals_f_object_transaction' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/helpers/customers_helper.rb:29:in generate_html' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/helpers/customers_helper.rb:28:in generate_html' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/helpers/customers_helper.rb:34:in generate_template' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/views/transaction_groups/new.html.erb:4:in _run_erb_app47views47transaction_groups47new46html46erb' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/views/transaction_groups/new.html.erb:3:in _run_erb_app47views47transaction_groups47new46html46erb' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/views/transaction_groups/new.html.erb:1:in _run_erb_app47views47transaction_groups47new46html46erb' /Users/chris/dev/ss/app/controllers/transaction_groups_controller.rb:17:in new' I'm pretty sure this is because the do loop for form_for hasn't executed yet (?)... I'm not sure that my approach to this problem is the best, but I haven't been able to find a better solution for dynamically adding form partials to the DOM. Basically I need a way to add records to a has_many model dynamically on a nested form. Any recommendations on a way to fix this particular problem or (even better!) a cleaner solution are appreciated. Thanks in advance. Chris

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  • iPhone: Proper use of View and View Controller

    - by Joel
    I've recently been doing a lot of Objective-C programming, and just got back into doing more iPhone development. I've done a lot of programming using MVC in other languages/frameworks, but I just want to make sure I'm using MVC properly in my iPhone Development. I created a new iPhone Utility Application, which creates two views: MainView and FlipsideView. Both have a controller (FlipsideViewController and MainViewController) and XIB file of their own. What I've been doing is putting the IBOutlet UIControl myControl variables in my MainView.h or FlipsideView.h files and then tying the controls in Interface Builder to those variables. Then I put any IBAction SomeAction myAction methods in the MainViewController.h and FlipsideViewController.h files and tying the events to those methods in Interface Builder. This seems to be conceptually correct, but seems to cause problems. Say I have a button that when clicked it changes a label's text. So the Controller doesn't have a clue of what the variable name of the label is in the OnTouchUp event handler for my button. So I make a @property for it. But since the MainViewController.view property isn't of type MyView, I get warnings or errors whenever I try to access those properties from the view controller. I am doing this correctly? Is there a better way to do this? If this is correct, how do I properly work with those variables without getting warnings or errors? Thanks

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • WPF: Once I set a property in code, it ignores XAML binding forever more... how do I prevent that?

    - by Timothy Khouri
    I have a button that has a datatrigger that is used to disable the button if a certain property is not set to true: <Button Name="ExtendButton" Click="ExtendButton_Click" Margin="0,0,0,8"> <Button.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding IsConnected}" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Button.IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> That's some very simple binding, and it works perfectly. I can set "IsConnected" true and false and true and false and true and false, and I love to see my button just auto-magically become disabled, then enabled, etc. etc. However, in my Button_Click event... I want to: Disable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = false;) Run some asynchronous code (that hits a server... takes about 1 second). Re-enable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = true;) The problem is, the very instant that I manually set IsEnabled to either true or false... my XAML binding will never fire again. This makes me very sad :( I wish that IsEnabled was tri-state... and that true meant true, false meant false and null meant inherit. But that is not the case, so what do I do?

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  • CGContext problems

    - by Peyman
    Hi I have a CALayer tree hierarchy A B C D where A is the view's root layer (and I create and add B,C and D layers. I am using the same delegate method `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context to provide content to each of these layers (implemented through a switch statement in the above method). At initiation A's content is drawn (A.contents) sequentially through these methods `- (void) drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context -(void) drawCircle:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context where drawCircle does CGContextSaveGState(context); / draws circle and other paths here / CGContextRestoreGState(context); CGImageRef contentImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); theLayer.contents = (id) contentImage; CGImageRelease(contentImage); (i.e I save the Context, do the drawing, restore the context, make a bitmap of the context, update the layer's contents, in this case A's, then release the contentimage). When the user then clicks somewhere in the circle at touchesEnded:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event delegate method I then try to paint the content of B by (still in touchesEnded:) CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); [self drawLayer:self.B inContext:context]; [self.B setNeedsDisplay]; the setNeedsDisplay call the delegate - drawLayer:(CALayer *) theLayer inContext:(CGContextRef)context again but this time the switch statement (using a layer flag) calls [self drawCircle:theLayer inContext:context]; with color red. The problem I am facing is that when -drawCircle: inContext: is called I get a long list of CGContext errors, starting with <Error>: CGContextSaveGState: invalid context and ending with CGBitmapContextCreateImage: invalid context I played around with making context the view's ivar and it worked so i am sure the context is the problem but I don't know what. I've tried CGContextFlush but it didn't help. Any help would be appreciated thank you

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  • jQuery - IF then Remove class on .hover

    - by danit
    I have the following jQuery function: $(function(){ if ($(".menu li").hasClass("active")) { $(".active").css("margin-top", "6px"); } }); This is applied to a CSS/jQuery menu, which expands and contracts when each menu item is hovered over. The onClick event adds a margin-top of 6px to give the impressions of a button depress. I'm then using PHP to detect which page the user is visiting to add an .active class to the relevant menu item. The question, the .active class should remain in place until the user hovers over a different menu item. At which point the .active class should be removed from this element - As the .active class is reused on the .hover events. Here is the basic HTML Markup: <ul id="menu"> <li> <div class="inner"> <div class="button"><img src="images/insightbutton.png" /></div> <div class="description">&nbsp;</div> </div> </li> <li> <div class="inner"> <div class="button"><img src="images/insightbutton.png" /></div> <div class="description">&nbsp;</div> </div> </li> </ul> How can I keep the .active class applied to the active menu item, but remove it when .inner is hovered over?

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  • having trouble disabling textbox in vb.net

    - by user225269
    How do I disable a textbox the second time? here is my code, In form load the textbox is disabled, unless the user will input an idnumber that is in the database. But what if the user will input an idnumber that is in the database then, input again another that is not, That is where this code comes in, but it has problems, it doesnt disable the textbox in the event of a mouse click, what would be the proper way of doing this? Private Sub Button12_MouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles Button12.MouseClick Dim NoAcc As String Dim NoAccmod2 As String Dim NoPas As String Dim sqlcon As New MySqlConnection("Server=localhost; Database=school;Uid=root;Pwd=nitoryolai123$%^;") Dim sqlcom As MySqlCommand = New MySqlCommand("Select * from student where IDNO= '" & TextBox14.Text & "' ", sqlcon) sqlcon.Open() Dim rdr As MySqlDataReader rdr = sqlcom.ExecuteReader If rdr.HasRows Then rdr.Read() NoAcc = rdr("IDNO") If (TextBox14.Text <> NoAcc) Then MsgBox("ID Number is not yet registered!, please register first in the general information before trying to register parents information", MsgBoxStyle.Information) TextBox7.Enabled = False TextBox8.Enabled = False TextBox9.Enabled = False TextBox10.Enabled = False TextBox11.Enabled = False TextBox12.Enabled = False TextBox13.Enabled = False End If End If

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  • validation control unable to find its control to validate

    - by nat
    i have a repeater that is bound to a number of custom dataitems/types on the itemdatabound event for the repeater the code calls a renderedit function that depending on the custom datatype will render a custom control. it will also (if validation flag is set) render a validation control for the appropriate rendered edit control the edit control overrides the CreateChildControls() method for the custom control adding a number of literalControls thus protected override void CreateChildControls() { //other bits removed - but it is this 'hidden' control i am trying to validate this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format( "<input type=\"text\" name=\"{0}\" id=\"{0}\" value=\"{1}\" style=\"display:none;\" \">" , this.UniqueID , this.MediaId.ToString()) )); //some other bits removed } the validation control is rendered like this: where the passed in editcontrol is the control instance of which the above createchildcontrols is a method of.. public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.UniqueID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.Dynamic; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.ErrorMessage = this.Caption + " cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; } the problem is, altho the validation controls .ControlToValidate property is set to the uniqueid of the editcontrol. when i hit the page i get the following error: Unable to find control id 'FieldRepeater$ctl01$ctl00' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'FieldRepeater_ctl01_ctl00_validator'. i have tried changing the literal in the createchildcontrols to a new TextBox(), and then set the id etc then, but i get a similar problem. can anyone enlighten me? is this because of the order the controls are rendered in? ie the validation control is written before the editcontrol? or... anyhow any help much appreciated thanks nat

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  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

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  • wpf c# databinding on object

    - by Enriquev
    Hello, say I have this control: public partial class bloc999 : UserControl { bloc999Data mainBlock = new bloc999Data(); public bloc999() { InitializeComponent(); mainBlock.txtContents = "100"; base.DataContext = mainBlock; } } in the xaml: <TextBox Margin="74,116,106,0" Name="txtContents" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Margin="74,145,106,132" Name="txtContents2" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents2, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> Then I have this class: public class bloc999Data : INotifyPropertyChanged { string _txtContents; string _txtContents2; public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propName)); } public string txtContents2 { get { return this._txtContents2; } set { if (int.Parse(value) > int.Parse(this._txtContents)) { this._txtContents2 = "000"; } else this._txtContents2 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents2"); } } public string txtContents { get { return this._txtContents; } set { this._txtContents = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents"); } } } Ok now say I have A button on the form and I do this in the code: mainBlock.txtContents2 = "7777777"; It puts 000 in the textbox, but If i just type in manually, in the textbox (txtContents2, the setter code is called but for some reason the textboxes value does not change, the instance value does change. help?

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  • Overriding Object.Equals() instance method in C#; now Code Analysis / FxCop warning CA2218: "should

    - by Chris W. Rea
    I've got a complex class in my C# project on which I want to be able to do equality tests. It is not a trivial class; it contains a variety of scalar properties as well as references to other objects and collections (e.g. IDictionary). For what it's worth, my class is sealed. To enable a performance optimization elsewhere in my system (an optimization that avoids a costly network round-trip), I need to be able to compare instances of these objects to each other for equality – other than the built-in reference equality – and so I'm overriding the Object.Equals() instance method. However, now that I've done that, Visual Studio 2008's Code Analysis a.k.a. FxCop, which I keep enabled by default, is raising the following warning: warning : CA2218 : Microsoft.Usage : Since 'MySuperDuperClass' redefines Equals, it should also redefine GetHashCode. I think I understand the rationale for this warning: If I am going to be using such objects as the key in a collection, the hash code is important. i.e. see this question. However, I am not going to be using these objects as the key in a collection. Ever. Feeling justified to suppress the warning, I looked up code CA2218 in the MSDN documentation to get the full name of the warning so I could apply a SuppressMessage attribute to my class as follows: [SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Naming", "CA2218:OverrideGetHashCodeOnOverridingEquals", Justification="This class is not to be used as key in a hashtable.")] However, while reading further, I noticed the following: How to Fix Violations To fix a violation of this rule, provide an implementation of GetHashCode. For a pair of objects of the same type, you must ensure that the implementation returns the same value if your implementation of Equals returns true for the pair. When to Suppress Warnings ----- Do not suppress a warning from this rule. [arrow & emphasis mine] So, I'd like to know: Why shouldn't I suppress this warning as I was planning to? Doesn't my case warrant suppression? I don't want to code up an implementation of GetHashCode() for this object that will never get called, since my object will never be the key in a collection. If I wanted to be pedantic, instead of suppressing, would it be more reasonable for me to override GetHashCode() with an implementation that throws a NotImplementedException? Update: I just looked this subject up again in Bill Wagner's good book Effective C#, and he states in "Item 10: Understand the Pitfalls of GetHashCode()": If you're defining a type that won't ever be used as the key in a container, this won't matter. Types that represent window controls, web page controls, or database connections are unlikely to be used as keys in a collection. In those cases, do nothing. All reference types will have a hash code that is correct, even if it is very inefficient. [...] In most types that you create, the best approach is to avoid the existence of GetHashCode() entirely. ... that's where I originally got this idea that I need not be concerned about GetHashCode() always.

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  • How to compile ocaml to native code

    - by Indra Ginanjar
    i'm really interested learning ocaml, it fast (they said it could be compiled to native code) and it's functional. So i tried to code something easy like enabling mysql event scheduler. #load "unix.cma";; #directory "+mysql";; #load "mysql.cma";; let db = Mysql.quick_connect ~user:"username" ~password:"userpassword" ~database:"databasename"();; let sql = Printf.sprintf "SET GLOBAL EVENT_SCHEDULER=1;" in (Mysql.exec db sql);; It work fine on ocaml interpreter, but when i was trying to compile it to native (i'm using ubuntu karmic), neither of these command worked ocamlopt -o mysqleventon mysqleventon.ml unix.cmxa mysql.cmxa ocamlopt -o mysqleventon mysqleventon.ml unix.cma mysql.cma i also tried ocamlc -c mysqleventon.ml unix.cma mysql.cma all of them resulting same message File "mysqleventon.ml", line 1, characters 0-1: Error: Syntax error Then i tried to remove the "# load", so the code goes like this let db = Mysql.quick_connect ~user:"username" ~password:"userpassword" ~database:"databasename"();; let sql = Printf.sprintf "SET GLOBAL EVENT_SCHEDULER=1;" in (Mysql.exec db sql);; The ocamlopt resulting message File "mysqleventon.ml", line 1, characters 9-28: Error: Unbound value Mysql.quick_connect I hope someone could tell me, where did i'm doing wrong.

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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