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  • Why did instruments report a leak while its ref count did become zero

    - by bromj
    Hello guys, green hand i am. I'm using instruments, and it did a great help to me so far, but I'm confused now 'cause it report a memory leak to me while its leaked block history shows me that the ref count of that memory had finally become 0. What does it mean? It's really embarrassing that I couldn't post a image here... so I have to describe it in text. Hope it would be clear enough for you: Event Type || RefCt || Responsible Library || Responsible Caller Malloc         || 1        || MyWeather              || +[ForecastData parseSingleForecastWithXMLElement:] Autorelease||           || MyWeather              || +[ForecastData parseSingleForecastWithXMLElement:] Retain         || 2        || MyWeather              || +[ForecastData parseWithData:] Release      || 1        || Foundation              || +[NSAutoreleasePool drain:] Retain         || 2        || Foundation              || +[NSThread initWithTarget:selector:object:] Release      || 1        || Foundation              || +[NSString compare:options:] Release      || 0        || MyWeather              || +[RootViewController dealloc] Any help will be appreciated~

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  • DataGrid: dynamic DataTemplate for dynamic DataGridTemplateColumn

    - by Lukas Cenovsky
    I want to show data in a datagrid where the data is a collection of public class Thing { public string Foo { get; set; } public string Bar { get; set; } public List<Candidate> Candidates { get; set; } } public class Candidate { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } ... } where the number of candidates in Candidates list varies at runtime. Desired grid layout looks like this Foo | Bar | Candidate 1 | Candidate 2 | ... | Candidate N I'd like to have a DataTemplate for each Candidate as I plan changing it during runtime - user can choose what info about candidate is displayed in different columns (candidate is just an example, I have different object). That means I also want to change the column templates in runtime although this can be achieved by one big template and collapsing its parts. I know about two ways how to achieve my goals (both quite similar): Use AutoGeneratingColumn event and create Candidates columns Add Columns manually In both cases I need to load the DataTemplate from string with XamlReader. Before that I have to edit the string to change the binding to wanted Candidate. Is there a better way how to create a DataGrid with unknown number of DataGridTemplateColumn? Note: This question is based on dynamic datatemplate with valueconverter

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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  • Lightweight alternative to Manual/AutoResetEvent in C#

    - by sweetlilmre
    Hi, I have written what I hope is a lightweight alternative to using the ManualResetEvent and AutoResetEvent classes in C#/.NET. The reasoning behind this was to have Event like functionality without the weight of using a kernel locking object. Although the code seems to work well in both testing and production, getting this kind of thing right for all possibilities can be a fraught undertaking and I would humbly request any constructive comments and or criticism from the StackOverflow crowd on this. Hopefully (after review) this will be useful to others. Usage should be similar to the Manual/AutoResetEvent classes with Notify() used for Set(). Here goes: using System; using System.Threading; public class Signal { private readonly object _lock = new object(); private readonly bool _autoResetSignal; private bool _notified; public Signal() : this(false, false) { } public Signal(bool initialState, bool autoReset) { _autoResetSignal = autoReset; _notified = initialState; } public virtual void Notify() { lock (_lock) { // first time? if (!_notified) { // set the flag _notified = true; // unblock a thread which is waiting on this signal Monitor.Pulse(_lock); } } } public void Wait() { Wait(Timeout.Infinite); } public virtual bool Wait(int milliseconds) { lock (_lock) { bool ret = true; // this check needs to be inside the lock otherwise you can get nailed // with a race condition where the notify thread sets the flag AFTER // the waiting thread has checked it and acquires the lock and does the // pulse before the Monitor.Wait below - when this happens the caller // will wait forever as he "just missed" the only pulse which is ever // going to happen if (!_notified) { ret = Monitor.Wait(_lock, milliseconds); } if (_autoResetSignal) { _notified = false; } return (ret); } } }

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  • Subscribe to the Button's events into a custom control

    - by ThitoO
    Do you know how can I subscribe to an event of the base of my customControl ? I've a custom control with some dependency properties : public class MyCustomControl : Button { static MyCustomControl () { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ) ) ); } public ICommand KeyDownCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue( KeyDownCommandProperty ); } set { SetValue( KeyDownCommandProperty, value ); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty KeyDownCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "KeyDownCommand", typeof( ICommand ), typeof( MyCustomControl ) ); public ICommand KeyUpCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue( KeyUpCommandProperty ); } set { SetValue( KeyUpCommandProperty, value ); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty KeyUpCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "KeyUpCommand", typeof( ICommand ), typeof( MyCustomControl ) ); public ICommand KeyPressedCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue( KeyPressedCommandProperty ); } set { SetValue( KeyPressedCommandProperty, value ); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty KeyPressedCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "KeyPressedCommand", typeof( ICommand ), typeof( MyCustomControl ) ); } And I whant to subscribe to Button's events (like MouseLeftButtonDown) to run some code in my customControl. Do you know how can I do something like this in the constructor ? static MyCustomControl() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( typeof( MyCustomControl ) ) ); MouseLeftButtonDownEvent += (object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) => "something"; } Thanks for you help

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  • Access 2003 VBA: Return only the index of the last item selected in a ListBox

    - by Eric D. Johnson
    I will preface this with saying, this is my first time using listboxes and earlier posts were criticized for lacking detail. So, all help is greatly appreciated and I hope this is enough information without being overkill. Currently, I have a listbox updating a junction table with an on click event (iterates through selected items and if they are not in the table it adds them). The list box is also updated by an option group (based on the option group value a query populates the list with the appropriate items and they are selected/highlighted based on the junction table). Also, when items are a "sub-category" the "category" is also selected. This functions perfectly until I ask it to do more... Problem 1: I need to differentiate "categories" of items from each other. So, I have included a blank item to the list box to add a space between categories. When the blank items are present the listbox does not update the junction table properly and vice versa. Problem 2: My users want to be able to deselect the "category" under certain circumstances. This is fine, just de-select the "category" after the "sub-category" is selected. However, the "category" is re-selected whenever the listbox is clicked again because it iterates through all entries. Perceived solution for both problems: Return only the index of the item (de)selected and manipulate accordingly. Is this possible? If so, how? OR: Should I take a different approach?

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  • Use AJAX to reload captcha

    - by arik-so
    Hello! This question may have been asked already - but unfortunately, I could not find any satisfactory answers. I will just ask it for my concrete case and ask the admins not to delete the question for at least a few days so I can try it out... I have a page. It uses a captcha. Like so: <?php session_start(); // the captcha saves the md5 into the session ?> <img src="captcha.php" onclick="this.src = this.src" /> That was my first code. It did not work, because the browser condsidered it useless to reload an image if the source is the same. My current solution is to pass a get parameter: onclick="this.src = 'captcha.php?randomNumber='+ranNum" The JavaScript variable var ranNum is generated randomly every time the onclick event fires. It works fine, still, I don't like the possibility, if the - though improbable - case of two numbers being the same twice in a row. Although the random number varies between -50,000 and 50,000 - I still do not like it. And I don't think the method is right. I would like to know the 'righter' method, by means of AJAX. I know it's possible. I hope you know how it's possible ^^ In that case, please show me. Thanks in advance! By the way - if I spell cap(t)cha differently, never mind, the reference to the PHP file is right in my code: I use randomImage.php

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  • How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

    - by S.C. Madsen
    Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

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  • How to tell if you touched a CCLabel? (Cocos2d Question)

    - by RexOnRoids
    How to tell if you touched a CCLabel? The following code obviously does not work well enough because it only tests for point equality. Naturally touch point will not necessarily be equal to the position property of the CCLabel (CCNode). How to I tell if a Touch point has fallen within the "rectangle?" of the CCLabel? - (void)ccTouchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for( UITouch *touch in touches ) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView: [touch view]]; location = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL:location]; self.myGraphManager.isSliding = NO; if(CGPointEqualToPoint(location, label1.position)){ NSLog(@"Label 1 Touched"); }else if(CGPointEqualToPoint(location, label2.position)){ NSLog(@"Label 2 Touched"); }else if(CGPointEqualToPoint(location, label3.position)){ NSLog(@"Label 3 Touched"); }else if(CGPointEqualToPoint(location, label4.position)){ NSLog(@"Label 4 Touched"); }else if(CGPointEqualToPoint(location, label5.position)){ NSLog(@"Label 5 Touched"); }else if(CGPointEqualToPoint(location, label6.position)){ NSLog(@"Label 6 Touched"); } NSLog(@"Touch Made!"); } }

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  • MVVM pattern: ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

    - by Pavel Savara
    I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

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  • Why does the add() method in PHP-GTK cause 2 parent-set signals to be emmitted?

    - by JW
    I am going through the book PHP-GTK and trying out listing 4-1 One thing I notice is that with the following code some odd output occurs: <?php //listing4-1b.php function setParentFunction($widget) { //get the widgets parent $parent = $widget->get_parent(); //echo a mssg about the widget echo 'The ' . get_class($widget) .' has '; if (isset($parent)) { //ech the class of the parent widget echo 'a '. get_class($parent); } else { //the widget does not have a parent echo 'no'; } echo " parent. \n"; } //start with widgets $frame = new GtkFrame('i am a frame'); $button = new GtkButton('i am a button'); //connect the event to our test function $button->connect('parent-set', 'setParentFunction'); $frame->add($button); ?> The output is: # php listing4-1b.php The GtkButton has a GtkFrame parent. The GtkButton has no parent. Now, I can understand why the first signal is getting emitted and causing the first line of output: The GtkButton has a GtkFrame parent. But, I don't understand why the 2nd 'parent change' is reported to have happened: The GtkButton has no parent. I expected only to see the signal getting emitted / and handled only once in this short script. Does this 2nd signal get emmitted when the script closes down?

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  • Help to restructure my Doc/View more correctly

    - by Harvey
    Edited by OP. My program is in need of a lot of cleanup and restructuring. In another post I asked about leaving the MFC DocView framework and going to the WinProc & Message Loop way (what is that called for short?). Well at present I am thinking that I should clean up what I have in Doc View and perhaps later convert to non-MFC it that even makes sense. My Document class currently has almost nothing useful in it. I think a place to start is the InitInstance() function (posted below). In this part: POSITION pos=pDocTemplate->GetFirstDocPosition(); CLCWDoc *pDoc=(CLCWDoc *)pDocTemplate->GetNextDoc(pos); ASSERT_VALID(pDoc); POSITION vpos=pDoc->GetFirstViewPosition(); CChildView *pCV=(CChildView *)pDoc->GetNextView(vpos); This seem strange to me. I only have one doc and one view. I feel like I am going about it backwards with GetNextDoc() and GetNextView(). To try to use a silly analogy; it's like I have a book in my hand but I have to look up in it's index to find out what page the Title of the book is on. I'm tired of feeling embarrassed about my code. I either need correction or reassurance, or both. :) Also, all the miscellaneous items are in no particular order. I would like to rearrange them into an order that may be more standard, structured or straightforward. ALL suggestions welcome! BOOL CLCWApp::InitInstance() { InitCommonControls(); if(!AfxOleInit()) return FALSE; // Initialize the Toolbar dll. (Toolbar code by Nikolay Denisov.) InitGuiLibDLL(); // NOTE: insert GuiLib.dll into the resource chain SetRegistryKey(_T("Real Name Removed")); // Register document templates CSingleDocTemplate* pDocTemplate; pDocTemplate = new CSingleDocTemplate( IDR_MAINFRAME, RUNTIME_CLASS(CLCWDoc), RUNTIME_CLASS(CMainFrame), RUNTIME_CLASS(CChildView)); AddDocTemplate(pDocTemplate); // Parse command line for standard shell commands, DDE, file open CCmdLineInfo cmdInfo; ParseCommandLine(cmdInfo); // Dispatch commands specified on the command line // The window frame appears on the screen in here. if (!ProcessShellCommand(cmdInfo)) { AfxMessageBox("Failure processing Command Line"); return FALSE; } POSITION pos=pDocTemplate->GetFirstDocPosition(); CLCWDoc *pDoc=(CLCWDoc *)pDocTemplate->GetNextDoc(pos); ASSERT_VALID(pDoc); POSITION vpos=pDoc->GetFirstViewPosition(); CChildView *pCV=(CChildView *)pDoc->GetNextView(vpos); if(!cmdInfo.m_Fn1.IsEmpty() && !cmdInfo.m_Fn2.IsEmpty()) { pCV->OpenF1(cmdInfo.m_Fn1); pCV->OpenF2(cmdInfo.m_Fn2); pCV->DoCompare(); // Sends a paint message when complete } // enable file manager drag/drop and DDE Execute open m_pMainWnd->DragAcceptFiles(TRUE); m_pMainWnd->ShowWindow(SW_SHOWNORMAL); m_pMainWnd->UpdateWindow(); // paints the window background pCV->bDoSize=true; //Prevent a dozen useless size calculations return TRUE; } Thanks

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  • Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • Java library class to handle scheduled execution of "callbacks"?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    My program has a component - dubbed the Scheduler - that lets other components register points in time at which they want to be called back. This should work much like the Unix cron service, i. e. you tell the Scheduler "notify me at ten minutes past every full hour". I realize there are no real callbacks in Java. Here's my approach, is there a library which already does this stuff? Feel free to suggest improvements, too. Register call to Scheduler passes: a time specification containing hour, minute, second, year month, dom, dow, where each item may be unspecified, meaning "execute it every hour / minute etc." (just like crontabs) an object containing data that will tell the calling object what to do when it is notified by the Scheduler. The Scheduler does not process this data, just stores it and passes it back upon notification. a reference to the calling object Upon startup, or after a new registration request, the Scheduler starts with a Calendar object of the current system time and checks if there are any entries in the database that match this point in time. If there are, they are executed and the process starts over. If there aren't, the time in the Calendar object is incremented by one second and the entreis are rechecked. This repeats until there is one entry or more that match(es). (Discrete Event Simulation) The Scheduler will then remember that timestamp, sleep and wake every second to check if it is already there. If it happens to wake up and the time has already passed, it starts over, likewise if the time has come and the jobs have been executed. Edit: Thanks for pointing me to Quartz. I'm looking for something much smaller, however.

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • Exiting from the Middle of an Expression Without Using Exceptions

    - by Jon Purdy
    Is there a way to emulate the use of flow-control constructs in the middle of an expression? Is it possible, in a comma-delimited expression x, y, for y to cause a return? Edit: I'm working on a compiler for something rather similar to a functional language, and the target language is C++. Everything is an expression in the source language, and the sanest, simplest translation to the destination language leaves as many things expressions as possible. Basically, semicolons in the target language become C++ commas. In-language flow-control constructs have presented no problems thus far; it's only return. I just need a way to prematurely exit a comma-delimited expression, and I'd prefer not to use exceptions unless someone can show me that they don't have excessive overhead in this situation. The problem of course is that most flow-control constructs are not legal expressions in C++. The only solution I've found so far is something like this: try { return x(), // x(); (1 ? throw Return(0) : 0); // return 0; } catch (Return& ret) { return ref.value; } The return statement is always there (in the event that a Return construct is not reached), and as such the throw has to be wrapped in ?: to get the compiler to shut up about its void result being used in an expression. I would really like to avoid using exceptions for flow control, unless in this case it can be shown that no particular overhead is incurred; does throwing an exception cause unwinding or anything here? This code needs to run with reasonable efficiency. I just need a function-level equivalent of exit().

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  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

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  • Changing html content of a div before and after ajax request

    - by R27
    I am trying to change the button "ADD" (in a div) to some text/img as soon as it is clicked. And after the ajax request is processed, in the success block , I want the div to get the button back. I see the ajax request is itself not getting processed. Can someone explain whats my mistake. I just removed the jsfiddle link and pasting the script here to avoid confusion about the dependencies. JS script var ajax_load = "Please wait..."; jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#add_button").click(function(event){ var st = $("#add_div").html(); $("#add_div").html(ajax_load); $("#sform").validate({ errorClass: "error", submitHandler: function (form) { alert('inside submit'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'form.cgi', data: $("#sform").serialize(), success: function (msg) { alert('msg'); $("#add_div").html(st); $("#sform")[0].reset(); } }); } }); }); }); And the html piece is <form id=sform>LABEL <input id=field1 type=text> <div id="add_div"> <input type="button" value="ADD" id="add_button"> </div> </form> I have jquery.validate.min.js script included.

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  • WPF : Access Application Resources when not referencing Shell from App.xaml

    - by CF_Maintainer
    I am beginner in WPF. My App.xaml looks like below app.xaml <Application x:Class="ContactManager.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Application.Resources> <Color x:Key="lightBlueColor">#FF145E9D</Color> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="lightBlueBrush" Color="{StaticResource lightBlueColor}" /> </Application.Resources> I do not set the startupuri since I want to a presenter first approach. I do the following in app.xaml.cs protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); var appPresenter = new ApplicationPresenter( new Shell(), new ContactRepository()); appPresenter.LaunchView(); } I have a usercontrol called "SearchBar.xaml" which references "lightBlueBrush" as a staticResource. When I try to open "Shell.xaml" in the designer it tells me : The "shell.xaml" cannot be loaded at design time because it says it could not create an instance of type "SearchBar.xaml". When I debugged the devenv.exe using another visual studio instance it tells me that it does not have access to the Brush I created in app.resources. If one is doing a Presenter first approach, how does one access resources? I had this working when the startupURI was "Shell.xaml" and the startup event was not present. Any clues/ideas/suggestions. I am just trying to understand. Everything works as expected when I run the application just not @ design time.

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  • wpftoolkit DataGridTemplateColumn Template binding

    - by Guillaume
    I want my datagrid columns to share a cell/celledit template. I have the solution do that (thanks to WPF DataGridTemplateColumn shared template?). Now what I would love to is improving the readability by avoiding all the node nesting. My current view looks like that: <wpftk:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Tests}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellTemplate"> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding Content}"/> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellEditingTemplate"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding Content}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Start Date"> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ContentPresenter ContentTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellTemplate}" Content="{Binding StartDate}"/> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ContentPresenter ContentTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellEditingTemplate}" Content="{Binding StartDate}"/> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> </wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <!--and again the whole block above for each columns...--> </wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> </wpftk:DataGrid> What I would like to achieve is to bind the value at the DataGridTemplateColumn level and propagate it to the template level. Anyone know how to do that? What I tried to do is something like that: <wpftk:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Tests}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellTemplate"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}"/> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellEditingTemplate"> <TextBox Text="{Binding}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Start Date" Binding="{Binding StartDate}" CellTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellTemplate}" CellEditingTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellEditingTemplate}"/> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="End Date" Binding="{Binding EndDate}" CellTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellTemplate}" CellEditingTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellEditingTemplate}"/> </wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> </wpftk:DataGrid> Obviously the binding porperty is not a valid property of the DataGridTemplateColumn but maybe by playing with the datacontext and some relative source could do the trick but frankly I can't find a way to implement that. Not sure if what I want is possible and i'm willing to accept a "no way you can do that" as an answer NOTE: The TextBlock/TextBox in the template is just for test (the real template is much more complex) DataGridTextColumn will not do the trick Thanks in advance

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  • Embed ActionScript (AS) into flash

    - by David ???
    Hey SO, I've never dealt with Flash/ActionScript, so please bear with me. Mostly, I'm a bit confused. I've done many work with Java/C as well as HTML/Javascript. I am working with a designer who provides me with flash files (.swf). From my point of view, it's a simple "mock" to which I need to embed a single object. This object is a TextBox, with which the user interacts. I need to be able to Insert such a TextBox to a Flash file Retrieve text upon key event process it, and return it to the TextBox As I understood from other posts, I'll be working with AS, right? How do I embed such an object to an existing Flash file? Being that the graphical part is over once I have the TextBox, would I need any fancy IDE for that? What IDE is that (I usually work with Eclipse)? One last note: I am working with that designer, so I have access to all her creation process. She does not know code, nor do I think she'll get it. I would much prefer to give her as little headache as possible (e.g. just instruct her how to export the files to me from her Adobe Flash CS5 studio). Many thanks, David

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  • ListBox and Listview problem

    - by Anu
    Hi, I have listbox in my applcation and corresponding coding.. XAML: <DataTemplate x:Key="menuItemTemplate"> <WrapPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path = Menu}" /> </WrapPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="menubox" ItemsSource="{Binding}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource menuItemTemplate}" Margin="0,5,0,0"> .CS : public void Add(string[] menu) { ItemList items = ItemList.Load(menu); DataContext = items; } It works fine.Later i add Listview for another purpose and i coded like the same way of listbox XAML: <DataTemplate x:Key="ListItemTemplate"> <WrapPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path = Title}" /> </WrapPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource ListItemTemplate}" Name="listView1" /> .cs coding: public void SetTree(string Title,int BoxNo ) { TreeList items1 = TreeList.Load(Title,BoxNo); DataContext = items1; } After adding Listview,what happended this ListView show data,but Listbox didnot show anything.When i click the listbox it perfectly executing the clicking event of listbox.Only problem it doesnot display the text.What can i do for that. Here i added corresponding list class pls see tht. namespace Tabcontrol { public class TreeList : Collection<TreeItems> { public int size; public TreeList() { size = 0; } public int Count { get { return size; } } public static TreeList Load(string pmenu,int Box) { TreeList result = new TreeList(); TreeItems item = TreeItems.Load(pmenu,Box); result.Add(item); return result; } } } The ItemList class also the same thing, only variable names are getting differred.

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  • Grayscale image with colored spotlight in JavaFX

    - by DaUltimateTrooper
    I need a way to have a gray scale image in an ImageView and on mouse moved if the cursor position is in the ImageView bounds to show a colored spotlight on the mouse position. I have created a sample to help you understand what I need. This sample negates the colors of a colored image on the onMouseMoved event. package javafxapplication3; import javafx.scene.effect.BlendMode; import javafx.scene.Group; import javafx.scene.image.Image; import javafx.scene.image.ImageView; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.scene.paint.Color; import javafx.scene.paint.RadialGradient; import javafx.scene.paint.Stop; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Circle; import javafx.stage.Stage; var spotlightX = 0.0; var spotlightY = 0.0; var visible = false; var anImage = Image { url: "{__DIR__}picture1.jpg" } Stage { title: "Spotlighting" scene: Scene { fill: Color.WHITE content: [ Group { blendMode: BlendMode.EXCLUSION content: [ ImageView { image: anImage onMouseMoved: function (me: MouseEvent) { if (me.x > anImage.width - 10 or me.x < 10 or me.y > anImage.height - 10 or me.y < 10) { visible = false; } else { visible = true; } spotlightX = me.x; spotlightY = me.y; } }, Group { id: "spotlight" content: [ Circle { visible: bind visible translateX: bind spotlightX translateY: bind spotlightY radius: 60 fill: RadialGradient { centerX: 0.5 centerY: 0.5 stops: [ Stop { offset: 0.1, color: Color.WHITE }, Stop { offset: 0.5, color: Color.BLACK }, ] } } ] } ] }, ] }, } I am a total newbie what can I say...

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  • Memory leak, again!

    - by Dave
    A couple of weeks ago I was having trouble with memory leaks associated with a ContextMenuStrip. That problem was fixed. See that question here Now I'm having similar issues with ToolStrip controls. As in the previous problem, I'm creating a large number of UserControls and adding them to a FlowLayoutPanel. Each control creates a ToolStrip for itself in its constructor. When a control is removed from the FlowLayoutPanel (the only reference to the control), it seems memory for the ToolStrip is not being released. However when I comment out the code that creates the ToolStrip the memory leak doesn't happen. Is this the same sort of issue as the previous one - I need to set the ToolStrip to null? I don't see how that could be since this time the control is creating the strip itself, and all the button events etc are handled inside it. So shouldn't everything be GC'd when the control is no longer referenced? EDIT: As to the comments, the thing I don't understand is originally I was "making" my own toolstrip out of a panel and some labels. The labels were used as buttons. No memory leaks occurred this way. The only thing I've changed is using a proper ToolStrip with proper buttons in place of the panel, but all the event handlers are wired the same way. So why is it now leaking memory?

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