Search Results

Search found 24719 results on 989 pages for 'ajax form'.

Page 919/989 | < Previous Page | 915 916 917 918 919 920 921 922 923 924 925 926  | Next Page >

• entering datas of php page to database

  - by Rahima farzana.S

  I have a php form with two text boxes and i want to enter the text box values into the database. I have created the table (with two columns namely webmeasurementsuite id and webmeasurements id) I used the following syntax for creating table: CREATE TABLE `radio` ( `webmeasurementsuite id` INT NOT NULL, `webmeasurements id` INT NOT NULL ); Utilising the tutorial in the following link, I wrote the php coding but unfortunately the datas are not getting entered into the database. I am getting an error in the insert sql syntax. I checked it but i am not able to trace out the error.Can anyone correct me? I got the coding from http://www.webune.com/forums/php-how-to-enter-data-into-database-with-php-scripts.html $sql = "INSERT INTO $db_table(webmeasurementsuite id,webmeasurements id) values ('".mysql_real_escape_string(stripslashes($_REQUEST['webmeasurementsuite id']))."','".mysql_real_escape_string(stripslashes($_REQUEST['webmeasurements id']))."')"; echo$sql; My error is as follows: INSERT INTO radio(webmeasurementsuite id,webmeasurements id) values ('','')ERROR: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'id,webmeasurements id) values ('','')' at line 1

  Read the article

• Displaying a message after adding duplicate records in database

  - by user1770370

  I wrote program in C# winforms and SQL server and LINQ to SQL. I use user control instead of form. In my user control, I put 3 textbox, txtStartNumber, txtEndNumber, txtQuantity. user define value of textboxes, when clicked button, it will insert some records according to the value of txtQuantity. I want to when duplicate number is created, it won't add to database and display message. how do i do? I must write code in code behind or server side? i must set this in store procedure or trigger? private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { long from = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_f.Text); long to = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_t.Text); long quantity = Convert.ToInt64(to - from); int card_Type_ID=Convert.ToInt32(cmb_BracodeType .SelectedValue); long[] arrCardNum = new long[(to - from)]; arrCardNum[0]=from; for (long i = from; i < to; i++) { for(int j=0; j<(to-from) ;j++) { arrCardNum[j]=from+j; string r = arrCardNum[j].ToString(); sp.SaveCards(r, 2, card_Type_ID, SaveDate, 2); } } } Stored Procedure code. ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.SaveCards @Barcode_Num int ,@Card_Status_ID int ,@Card_Type_ID int ,@SaveDate varchar(10) ,@Save_User_ID int AS BEGIN INSERT INTO [Parking].[dbo].[TBL_Cards] ([Barcode_Num] ,[Card_Status_ID] ,[Card_Type_ID] ,[Save_User_ID]) VALUES (@Barcode_Num ,@Card_Status_ID ,@Card_Type_ID ,@Save_User_ID) END

  Read the article

• How do I pass a javascript parameter to an asp.net MVCmodel from within a View?

  - by Josh

  Hi everyone! I am having an issue trying to access a list property on a model from within a javascript. My basic situation is this: I have an ArticleController and an ArticleViewModel. An Article has a number of properties, one of which is Text, which is just a string that contains the contents of the article. The ArticleViewModel contains a Pages property, which is just a List of Strings. When the ArticleViewModel constructor is called, I populate the Pages list by dividing up the article text based on some delimeters. I have a View which inherits the ArticleViewModel type. What I want to do is only display one page at a time, and then when the user clicks a page number (from a list at the bottom of the article), I want to use javascript to load that page into the #dynamicContent div. The problem: I can't seem to pass a parameter to the Model.Pages property from within javascript... Is this possible? I get an error stating, "Expression Expected" when I try what I have below. I don't want to have to worry about AJAX calls or anything like that since I already have the entire article... I just need a way to access each individual page from within the javascript function. Alternatively, if there is a better solution for "paginating" an article so that I can load each articlePage without having to refresh the entire html page, I would certainly be open to that as well. Any help would be much appreciated!! Thanks for your time! ArticleView Code: Script at the top of the view: function loadPage(pageNumber) { try { alert(pageNumber); $('#dynamicContent').html('<%=Model.Pages(' + pageNumber + ') %>'); } catch (e) { alert('in here'); alert(e.description); } } HTML for view: [...] <div id="articleBody"> <div id="dynamicContent"> <%=Model.Pages(0)%> </div> </div> [...] Page Links at bottom of page: [...] <div> <ul style="display:block"> <li style="display:inline"> <a href="#articleTitle" onclick="loadPage(0)"> 1 </a> </li> <li style="display:inline"> <a href="#articleTitle" onclick="loadPage(1)"> 2 </a> </li> </ul> </div>

  Read the article

• Automatic adition of `using` in CodeRush.

  - by drasto

  I just installed CodeRush Pro (evaluation trial) for Visual Studio and I can say I like it much so far. Comparing to Resharper there is only one type of feature I'm really missing. It is the way CodeRush deals with using. When I type some class name that is not declared in some package listed in using, CodeRush underlines it red as an error(what it is) but if I hover over it with cursor it does not offer me to add using, it merely says it is "Undeclared element". I have to use VS default using addition (move caret to the identifier, hover cursor over that really small box that appears under first letter, click the button that appears and choose for example using System form a drop down menu). Is there a way how to configure CodeRush to offer mi add using when I hover a cursor over highlighted "issue"(that says Undeclared element)? The second part of this is that Resharper has somethink called Type name completion. It some improved intellisense. Lets say you have no using declaration in your file. Then you type something like ICompar and press CTRL+SPACE. Of cause there will be no suggestions. But with Resharper you can press CTRL+ALT+SPACE and you get suggestions of all classes starting with ICompar even if they are not in using. When you choose one of them the correct using is automatically added for you. Is there a way to make CodeRush behave this way ?

  Read the article

• What type of objects can be sent back to an action Method using HTML.HIDDEN()

  - by Richard77

  Hello, 1)Let's say I've this form: <%Using(Html.BeginForm()){%> <% = Html.Hidden("myObject", (cast to the appropriate type)ViewData["KeyForMyObject"]%> <input type = "submit" "Submit Object"> <%}%> 2) Here's the Action which's supposed to intercept the value of the object public ActionResult MyAction(Type myObject) { //Do Something with the object } Here's my question: What type of objects the Hidden field can support? In fact, when ViewData["KeyForMyObject"] contains a string, int, or bool, myAction is able to retrieve the value. But, when it comes to objects, such as List, and dictionary, nothing happens. When I debug to check the local values, I see null for Type myObject in the MyMethod. So what are the rules in MVC when it comes to a List or Dictionary? ================================= EDIT To make things simpler, can I write something like this <% = Html.Hidden("contactDic", (Dictionary<string, string>) ViewData["contacts"])%> and expect to retrieve the dictionary in the action Method like this public ActionResult myMethod(Dictionary<string, string> contactDic) { //Do something with the dictionary } Thanks for Helping

  Read the article

• selected area to cut an image

  - by Oskar Marciniak

  Hi I would do the selected area to cut an image on picturebox control. I have the following code: using System; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private Rectangle rect; private Pen p; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (this.p == null) this.p = new Pen(Color.FromArgb(100, 200, 200, 200), 5); if (this.rect.Width > 0) e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(this.p, this.rect); } private void pictureBox1_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (e.X < this.rect.X) { this.rect.Width = this.rect.X - e.X; this.rect.X = e.X; } else { this.rect.Width = e.X - this.rect.X; } if (e.Y < this.rect.Y) { this.rect.Height = this.rect.Y - e.Y; this.rect.Y = e.Y; } else { this.rect.Height = e.Y - this.rect.Y; } this.Invalidate(this.rect); } private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.rect.X = e.X; this.rect.Y = e.Y; } } } It returns an error here: Application.Run(new Form1()); Why? thanks for all replies ;p

  Read the article

• What are the Rails best practices for javascript templates in restful/resourceful controllers?

  - by numbers1311407

  First, 2 common (basic) approaches: # returning from some FoosController method respond_to do |format| # 1. render the javascript directly format.js { render :json => @foo.to_json } # 2. render the default template, say update.js.erb format.js { render } end # in update.js.erb $('#foo').html("<%= escape_javascript(render(@foo)) %>") These are obviously simple cases but I wanted to illustrate what I'm talking about. I believe that these are also the cases expected by the default responder in rails 3 (either the action-named default template or calling to_#{format} on the resource.) The Issues With 1, you have total flexibility on the view side with no worries about the template, but you have to manipulate the DOM directly via javascript. You lose access to helpers, partials, etc. With 2, you have partials and helpers at your disposal, but you're tied to the one template (by default at least). All your views that make JS calls to FoosController use the same template, which isn't exactly flexible. Three Other Approaches (none really satisfactory) 1.) Escape partials/helpers I need into javascript beforehand, then inserting them into the page after, using string replacement to tailor them to the results returned (subbing in name, id, etc). 2.) Put view logic in the templates. For example, looking for a particular DOM element and doing one thing if it exists, another if it does not. 3.) Put logic in the controller to render different templates. For example, in a polymorphic belongs to where update might be called for either comments/foo or posts/foo, rendering commnts/foos/update.js.erb versus posts/foos/update.js.erb. I've used all of these (and probably others I'm not thinking of). Often in the same app, which leads to confusing code. Are there best practices for this sort of thing? It seems like a common enough use-case that you'd want to call controllers via Ajax actions from different views and expect different things to happen (without having to do tedious things like escaping and string-replacing partials and helpers client side). Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Accessing to Request object will lead to ReadEntityBody to return 0 (in a HttpHandler class)

  - by EBAG

  I created a httpHandler that successfully implements IHttpHandler for handling file uploads. It works perfectly fine. You send the file with the form, the class receives it and will save it to hard disk. It reads chunks of file with ReadEntityBody function of HttpWorkerRequest class. Here is the situation i'm faced with.If at any stage before trying to read the file with ReadEntityBody, I try to access Request object (even Request.InputStream.Length!) ReadEntityBody would return 0 means it won't read from file stream. After further testing I found out the reason behind it. Accessing to Context.Current.Request object will trigger some sort of functionality that will cause asp.net to handle file uploads at that moment by it's own! I believe this is a bug. for example exactly after this line of code, asp.net will upload the file completely, and so there will be no stream for ReadEntityBody to read from later. int FileSize = context.Request.InputStream.Length; Can anybody tell how to stop this?

  Read the article

• Query not being executed

  - by user2385241

  I'm trying to create a script that allows me to upload an image, grab the details sent through inputs (a description and chosen project number) and insert this information into a table. I currently have this function: public function NewEntry() { $connect = new dbconnect; $_SESSION['rnd'] = substr(number_format(time() * rand(),0,'',''),0,15); $allowedExts = array("gif", "jpeg", "jpg", "png"); $size = $_FILES["file"]["size"]; $path = $_FILES["file"]["name"]; $extension = pathinfo($path, PATHINFO_EXTENSION); $pr = $_POST['project']; $cl = $_POST['changelog']; $file = $_SESSION['rnd'] . "." . $extension; if (in_array($extension, $allowedExts) && $size < 200000000) { if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] == 0) { if (!file_exists("../uploads/" . $_SESSION['rnd'])) { move_uploaded_file($_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"], "../uploads/" . $_SESSION['rnd'] . "." . $extension); } } } else { echo "File validation failed."; } $row = $connect->queryExecute("INSERT INTO entries(project,file,changelog)VALUES($pr,$file,$cl)"); header('location:http://www.example.com/admin'); } When the form is posted the function runs, the image uploads but the query isn't executed. The dbconnect class isn't at fault as it's untampered and has been used in past projects. The error logs don't give any output and no MySQL errors show. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Refetching a previously visited page

  - by user613665

  All, I am having a field day with page refetching. Any help or pointer will be greatly appreciated!! The behavior is a bit specific to mobile browser. Problem: I have two pages and created a shortcut link to pg#1 in the home page. Through a form submit button, user is taken from pg#1 to pg#2. All that is working fine. Now once I am on pg#2. I will leave the browser and click the shortcut later. The browser will stay on pg#2 and won't go to pg#1 even though the path in URLS is different between the two views. It is almost like Django decides that since I have already visited view#1, it doesn't need to fetch it again. This problem or behavior doesn't happen if I move the same code that handle the two views and the templates to a bare bone test project. Setup: I am using django-registration, context session. I am not using any HTML caching tag. I already have DEBUG turned on in my settings.py. Are there other ways that I can tell what the server is doing. Thanks in advance. pdxMobile Update: Here is the code snippets. def sendmsg(request): if request.method =='POST': messages.add_message(request, messages.INFO, "Hello world") return redirect ('rcvmsg') return render_to_response('sendMsg.html',RequestContext(request)) def rcvmsg(request): '''view that receives the msg.''' printMsg ='Didnt get a message' if messages: thisMsg = messages.get_messages(request) for rcvMsg in thisMsg: printMsg = rcvMsg return render_to_response('rcvMsg.html',{'print_msg':printMsg},RequestContext(request)) URL: url(r'^rcvMsg/','mydomain.mainApp.views.rcvmsg',name='rcvmsg'), (r'^sendMsg/code','mydomain.mainApp.views.sendmsg'),

  Read the article

• Does a jQuery selector by id always work without quotes and # sign?

  - by anarinsky

  I suddenly found that while using Mozilla / jQuery v1.8.2 I do not need to use the id with quotes and # sign. For example, $(bt2) works the same as $(“#bt2”), see the code below. Will this selector always work and are there any potential drawbacks from using this shorter form of selection? <html> <head> <title>append</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function(){ $(bt2).click(function(){ $(i1).append("<li>a4</li>", "<li>a5</li>"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <button id="Button1">Append List</button> <ul id="i1"> <li>a1</li> </ul> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

  - by beemaster

  Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

  Read the article

• How can I call a function in a parent movieclip from an externally-loaded child?

  - by Doug Wolfgram

  I have a swf file that is my 'shell' program that contains many functions. This shell program loads child movies. In the root timeline of the child movie, I have the following code: function putresponse(q,r) { trace (r); _root.debug(r); } _root.debug("foo"); Debug is a function that writes some text to the screen. When I run this locally, the putresponse function gets called and the trace happens. When I run it remotely (inside the shell) the first debug happens immediately on load (as you'd expect) but then later when putresponse is called, the debug(r) is not executed. The external clip is at the same url as the shell so I don't think it is a security issue. Also, as I said, the debug("foo") works fine. This one really has me perplexed. Can anyone shed some light as to why I can't call the debug from _root when called from a function rather than on the first-level timeline? EDIT: The call to putresponse is coming form two layers deep in local (within the child MC) MCs. The actual call is: _parent._parent.putrepsonse(q,r);

  Read the article

• initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

  - by ludwigs3rd

  I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

  Read the article

• odd behavior when checking if radio button selected in jQuery

  - by RememberME

  I had the following check in my jQuery which I thought was working fine to see if a radio button was checked. if ($("input[@name='companyType']:checked").attr('id') == "primary") { ... } Here's the radiobuttons: <p> <label>Company Type:</label> <label for="primary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').hide('slow');$('#primary_company').find('option:first').attr('selected','selected');" type="radio" name="companyType" id="primary" checked />Primary</label> <label for="secondary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').show('slow');" type="radio" name="companyType" id="secondary" />Subsidiary</label> </p> Then, it suddenly stopped working (or so I thought). I did some debugging and finally realized that it was returning an id of "approved_status". Elsewhere on my form I have a checkbox called "approved_status". I realized that when I originally tested this, I must have testing it on records where approved_status is false. And, now most of my approved_statuses are true/checked. I changed the code to this: var id = $("input:radio[@name='companyType']:checked").attr('id'); alert(id); if (id == "primary") { And it's now properly returning "primary" or "secondary" as the id. So, it is working, but it seems that it's not checking the name at all and now just checking radio buttons. I just want to know for future use, what's wrong with the original code b/c I can see possibly having 2 different radio sets on a page and then my new fix probably wouldn't work. Thanks!

  Read the article

• appending multiple groups with values from xml

  - by zurna

  In my xml file comments are listed as <Comments> <CommentID id="1"> <CommentBy>efet</CommentBy> <CommentDesc> Who cares!!! My boyfriend thinks the same with me. tell your friends. </CommentDesc> </CommentID> <CommentID id="2"> <CommentBy>tetto</CommentBy> <CommentDesc> xyz.... </CommentDesc> </CommentID> </Comments> I need to append them inside the ul of the div id="nw-comments". <div id="nw-comments" class="article-page"> <h3>Member Comments</h3> <ul> <li class="top-level"> <ul class="comment-options right"> <li> <a id="reply_1272195" class="reply" href="javascript:void(0);" name="anchor_1272195">Reply</a> </li> <li class="last"> <a id="report_1272195" class="report" href="javascript:void(0);">Report Abuse</a> </li> </ul> <h6>Posted By: [CommentBy] @ [CommentDateEntered]</h6> <div class="post-content"> <p>[CommentDesc]</p> </div> </li> </ul> </div> I tried to do it with the following code but I keep getting errors. $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ dataType: "xml", url: "/FLPM/content/news/news.cs.asp?Process=ViewNews&NEWSID=<%=Request.QueryString("NEWSID")%>", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('row').each(function(){ var id = $(this).attr('id'); var FullName = $(this).find('FullName').text(); var CommentBy = $(this).find('CommentBy').text(); var CommentDateEntered = $(this).find('CommentDateEntered').text(); var CommentDesc = $(this).find('CommentDesc').text(); $("#nw-comments ul").append("<h6>Posted By: " + CommentBy + " @ " + CommentDateEntered + "</h6><div class=""post-content""><p>" + CommentDesc + "</p></div>"); }); } });

  Read the article

• How with lambda function in MVC3

  - by doogdeb

  I have a model which contains view models for each view. This model is held in session and is initialised when application starts. I need to be able to populate a field from one view model with the value from another so have used a lambda function. Below is my model. I am using a lambda so that when I get Test2.MyProperty it will use the FunctionTestProperty to retrieve the value from Test1.TestProperty. public class Model { public Model() { Test1 = new Test1() Test2 = new Test2(FunctionTestProperty () => Test1.TestProperty) } } public class Test1 { public string TestProperty { get; set; } } public class Test2 { public Test2() : this (() => string.Empty) {} public Test2(Func<string> functionTestProperty) { FunctionTestProperty = functionTestProperty; } public Func<string> FunctionTestProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty { get{ return FunctionTestProperty() ?? string.Empty; } } } This works perfectly when I first run the application and navigate from Test1 to Test2; I can see that when I get the value for MyProperty it calls back to Model constructor and retrieves the Test1.TestProperty value. However when I then submit the form (Test2) it calls the default constructor which sets it to string.Empty. So if I go back to Test1 and back to Test2 again it always then calls the Test2 default constructor. Does anyone know why this works when first running the application but not after the view is submitted, or if I have made an obvious mistake?

  Read the article

• How to replace same text in a text file

  - by user1688220

  i created a c# windows login form and i am saving username or password to a text file but every time i use same username or password that i have saved before it takes new place in that text file. But What i want is to replace the same username or password that is already saved in that text file. this is my code: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { FileStream fs = new FileStream("data.txt", FileMode.Append, FileAccess.Write); StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(fs); sw.Write("Email ID: "); sw.WriteLine(textBox1.Text); sw.Write("Password: "); sw.Write(textBox2.Text); sw.WriteLine(); sw.WriteLine(); sw.Flush(); sw.Close(); fs.Close(); } catch (Exception) { MessageBox.Show("Error", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); this.Close(); } MessageBox.Show("DONE", "Done", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); textBox1.Clear(); textBox2.Clear(); }

  Read the article

• How to take value from radio selection and pass that value into a hidden inputs value attribute?

  - by Matthew

  Hello guys, I need to know if this can be done and if so can someone push me in the right direction. Okay I have a series of radio buttons: <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio1" value="XXXX" class="radio1" /> <label for="radio1">choice 1</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio2" value="XXXX" class="radio2" /> <label for="radio2">choice 2</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio3" value="XXXX" class="radio3" /> <label for="radio3">choice 3</label> <label for="radio4">second choice1</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio4" value="1" class="radio4" /> <label for="radio5">second choice2</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio5" value="2" class="radio5" /> <label for="radio6">second choice3</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio6" value="3" class="radio6" /> Now what I am looking to do is if someone selects CHOICE 1 and then selects SECOND CHOICE1 I would like to pass the value of SECOND CHOICE1 into the value of a hidden input. <input type="hidden" name="sub_source" id="sub_source" value="" /> So that when the form is ready to submit the value that gets passed would be: <input type="hidden" name="sub_source" id="sub_source" value="1" />

  Read the article

• VB.Net Memory Issue

  - by Skulmuk

  We have an application that has some interesting memory usage issues. When it first opens, the program uses aroun 50-60MB of memory. This stays consistent on 32-bit machines. On 64-bit machines, however, re-activating the form in any way (clicking, dragging, alt-tabbing, etc.) adds around another 50MB to it's memory usage. It repeats this process several times before resetting back to around 45MB, at which point the cycle begins again. I've done some research and a lot of people have said that VB in general has pretty poor garbage collection, which could be affecting the software in some way. However, I've yet to find a solution. There are no events fired when the application is activated (as shown by 32-bit usage) - the applications is merely sitting awaiting the user's actions. At load, the system pulls some data into a tree view, but that's the only external connection, and it only re-fires the routine when the user makes a change to something and saves the change. Has anyone else experienced anything this strange, and if so, does anyone know of what might fix it? It seems strange that it only occurs under x64 systems. Thanks

  Read the article

• Array length is zero in jQuery.

  - by James123

  I wrote like this. After submit click loop is not excuting. But I saw value are there, But array lenght is showing '0'. (Please see picture). Why it is not going into loop? and $('#myVisibleRows').val(idsString); becoming 'empty'. $(document).ready(function() { $('tr[@class^=RegText]').hide().children('td'); var list_Visible_Ids = []; var idsString, idsArray; alert($('#myVisibleRows').val()); idsString = $('#myVisibleRows').val(); idsArray = idsString.split(','); $.each(idsArray, function() { if (this != "") { $('#' + this).siblings(('.RegText').toggle(true)); window['list_Visible_Ids'][this] = 1; } }); $('tr.subCategory1') .css("cursor", "pointer") .attr("title", "Click to expand/collapse") .click(function() { //this = $(this); $(this).siblings('.RegText').toggle(); list_Visible_Ids[$(this).attr('id')] = $(this).css('display') != 'none' ? 1 : null; alert(list_Visible_Ids[$(this).attr('id')]) }); $('#form1').submit(function() { idsString = ''; $.each(list_Visible_Ids, function(key, val) { alert(val); if (val) { idsString += (idsString != '' ? ',' : '') + key; } }); $('#myVisibleRows').val(idsString); form.submit(); }); });

  Read the article

• I can not navigate to the next page in windows phone 7

  - by Vijay

  I am trying to navigate form one page to another page depends upon the login. If already user logged in, Welcome page should open. Else Log in Page should open. I am trying like this. The Splash Page is the start up page. This is a Splash Screen Xaml.cs: namespace NewExample.Views { public partial class SplashPage : PhoneApplicationPage { public SplashPage() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new SplashPageViewModel(); } } } This is Splash Screen View Model: Here I am check the user already logged in or not. namespace NewExample.ViewModel { public class SplashPageViewModel { public static bool isLogin = false; public SplashPageViewModel() { var rootFrame = (App.Current as App).RootFrame; if (isLogin) rootFrame.Navigate(new Uri("/Views/WelcomePage.xaml", UriKind.Relative)); else rootFrame.Navigate(new Uri("/Views/LoginPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative)); } } } But it is not working. The Splash Page only showing. This is not navigating to another page. Please help me to resolve this problem.

  Read the article

• Problem understanding Inheritance

  - by dhruvbird

  I've been racking my brains over inheritance for a while now, but am still not completely able to get around it. For example, the other day I was thinking about relating an Infallible Human and a Fallible Human. Let's first define the two: Infallible Human: A human that can never make a mistake. It's do_task() method will never throw an exception Fallible Human: A human that will occasionally make a mistakes. It's do_task() method may occasionally throw a ErrorProcessingRequest Exception The question was: IS an infallible human A fallible human OR IS a fallible human AN infallible human? The very nice answer I received was in the form of a question (I love these since it gives me rules to answer future questions I may have). "Can you pass an infallible human where a fallible human is expected OR can you pass a fallible human where an infallible human is expected?" It seems apparent that you can pass an infallible human where a fallible human is expected, but not the other way around. I guess that answered my question. However, it still feels funny saying "An infallible human is a fallible human". Does anyone else feel queasy when they say it? It almost feels as if speaking out inheritance trees is like reading out statements from propositional calculus in plain English (the if/then implication connectives don't mean the same as that in spoken English). Does anyone else feel the same?

  Read the article

• Value is zero after filter SQL in C#

  - by Chuki2

  I`m new in C#.. I have write function to filter department. And this function will return idDepartment. New problem is, department keep value "System.Windows.Forms.Label, Text : ADMIN ", that`s why i got zero. So how can i take "ADMIN" only and keep to department? Update : public partial class frmEditStaff : Form { private string connString; private string userId, department; //Department parameter coming from here private string conString = "Datasource"; public frmEditStaff(string strUserID, string strPosition) { InitializeComponent(); //Pass value from frmListStaff to userID text box tbStaffId.Text = strUserID.ToString(); userId = strUserID.ToString(); department = strPosition.ToString(); } This code below is working, don`t have any problem. public int lookUpDepart() { int idDepart=0; using (SqlConnection openCon = new SqlConnection(conString)) { string lookUpDepartmenId = "SELECT idDepartment FROM tbl_department WHERE department = '" + department + "';"; openCon.Open(); using (SqlCommand querylookUpDepartmenId = new SqlCommand(lookUpDepartmenId, openCon)) { SqlDataReader read = querylookUpDepartmenId.ExecuteReader(); while (read.Read()) { idDepart = int.Parse(read[0].ToString()); break; } } openCon.Close(); return idDepart; } } Thanks for help. Happy nice day!

  Read the article

• Uitableview not able to hold data

  - by pankaj

  Hi i have a uitableview, i am displaying some data of about 200 rows in it. Data will be displayed in several sections which will be determined at run time. I am able to get sections but i am not able to display data for a particular section in correct order. I have data in the form of dictionaries in an array. My Code: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { TeraGoAppDelegate *appDel = (TeraGoAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UITableViewCell *cell = nil; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:nil] autorelease]; cell.textLabel.text = [(NSMutableDictionary *)[appDel.arrEqp objectAtIndex:countEqpIndex] objectForKey:@"EQP_NAME"]; cell.textLabel.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Arial" size:14]; if(![[(NSMutableDictionary *)[appDel.arrEqp objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"select"] isEqualToString:@"0"]) { cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark; } else cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } // Set up the cell... return cell; } I am trying to use indexPath.row but its values initialises from 0 in every section I can not get data from array in this case as i dont have index of array to get data. How will i get the index of array whose values i need to display????

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 915 916 917 918 919 920 921 922 923 924 925 926  | Next Page >