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  • OOP + MVC advice on Member Controller

    - by dan727
    Hi, I am trying to follow good practices as much as possible while I'm learning using OOP in an MVC structure, so i'm turning to you guys for a bit of advice on something which is bothering me a little here. I am writing a site where I will have a number of different forms for members to fill in (mainly data about themselves), so i've decided to set up a Member controller where all of the forms relating to the member are represented as individual methods. This includes login/logout methods, as well as editing profile data etc. In addition to these methods, i also have a method to generate the member's control panel widget, which is a constant on every page on the site while the member is logged in. The only thing is, all of the other methods in this controller all have the same dependencies and form templates, so it would be great to generate all this in the constructor, but as the control_panel method does not have the same dependencies etc, I cannot use the constructor for this purpose, and instead I have to redeclare the dependencies and same template snippets in each method. This obviously isn't ideal and doesn't follow DRY principle, but I'm wondering what I should do with the control_panel method, as it is related to the member and that's why I put it in that controller in the first place. Am I just over-complicating things here and does it make sense to just move the control_panel method into a simple helper class? Here are the basic methods of the controller: class Member_Controller extends Website_Controller { public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); if (request::is_ajax()) { $this->auto_render = FALSE; // disable auto render } } public static function control_panel() { //load control panel view $panel = new View('user/control_panel'); return $panel; } public function login() { } public function register() { } public function profile() { } public function household() { } public function edit_profile() { } public function logout() { } }

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  • Does a jQuery selector by id always work without quotes and # sign?

    - by anarinsky
    I suddenly found that while using Mozilla / jQuery v1.8.2 I do not need to use the id with quotes and # sign. For example, $(bt2) works the same as $(“#bt2”), see the code below. Will this selector always work and are there any potential drawbacks from using this shorter form of selection? <html> <head> <title>append</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function(){ $(bt2).click(function(){ $(i1).append("<li>a4</li>", "<li>a5</li>"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <button id="Button1">Append List</button> <ul id="i1"> <li>a1</li> </ul> </body> </html>

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  • How can I call a function in a parent movieclip from an externally-loaded child?

    - by Doug Wolfgram
    I have a swf file that is my 'shell' program that contains many functions. This shell program loads child movies. In the root timeline of the child movie, I have the following code: function putresponse(q,r) { trace (r); _root.debug(r); } _root.debug("foo"); Debug is a function that writes some text to the screen. When I run this locally, the putresponse function gets called and the trace happens. When I run it remotely (inside the shell) the first debug happens immediately on load (as you'd expect) but then later when putresponse is called, the debug(r) is not executed. The external clip is at the same url as the shell so I don't think it is a security issue. Also, as I said, the debug("foo") works fine. This one really has me perplexed. Can anyone shed some light as to why I can't call the debug from _root when called from a function rather than on the first-level timeline? EDIT: The call to putresponse is coming form two layers deep in local (within the child MC) MCs. The actual call is: _parent._parent.putrepsonse(q,r);

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  • How to take value from radio selection and pass that value into a hidden inputs value attribute?

    - by Matthew
    Hello guys, I need to know if this can be done and if so can someone push me in the right direction. Okay I have a series of radio buttons: <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio1" value="XXXX" class="radio1" /> <label for="radio1">choice 1</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio2" value="XXXX" class="radio2" /> <label for="radio2">choice 2</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio3" value="XXXX" class="radio3" /> <label for="radio3">choice 3</label> <label for="radio4">second choice1</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio4" value="1" class="radio4" /> <label for="radio5">second choice2</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio5" value="2" class="radio5" /> <label for="radio6">second choice3</label> <input type="radio" name="level_id" id="radio6" value="3" class="radio6" /> Now what I am looking to do is if someone selects CHOICE 1 and then selects SECOND CHOICE1 I would like to pass the value of SECOND CHOICE1 into the value of a hidden input. <input type="hidden" name="sub_source" id="sub_source" value="" /> So that when the form is ready to submit the value that gets passed would be: <input type="hidden" name="sub_source" id="sub_source" value="1" />

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  • Value is zero after filter SQL in C#

    - by Chuki2
    I`m new in C#.. I have write function to filter department. And this function will return idDepartment. New problem is, department keep value "System.Windows.Forms.Label, Text : ADMIN ", that`s why i got zero. So how can i take "ADMIN" only and keep to department? Update : public partial class frmEditStaff : Form { private string connString; private string userId, department; //Department parameter coming from here private string conString = "Datasource"; public frmEditStaff(string strUserID, string strPosition) { InitializeComponent(); //Pass value from frmListStaff to userID text box tbStaffId.Text = strUserID.ToString(); userId = strUserID.ToString(); department = strPosition.ToString(); } This code below is working, don`t have any problem. public int lookUpDepart() { int idDepart=0; using (SqlConnection openCon = new SqlConnection(conString)) { string lookUpDepartmenId = "SELECT idDepartment FROM tbl_department WHERE department = '" + department + "';"; openCon.Open(); using (SqlCommand querylookUpDepartmenId = new SqlCommand(lookUpDepartmenId, openCon)) { SqlDataReader read = querylookUpDepartmenId.ExecuteReader(); while (read.Read()) { idDepart = int.Parse(read[0].ToString()); break; } } openCon.Close(); return idDepart; } } Thanks for help. Happy nice day!

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  • CakePHP - Paginating an Array

    - by Ashok
    Cake handles pagination of a model with a simple $this-paginate(), but what should I use if I want to paginate a array of values? The Scenario is like this: $this->set('sitepages', $this->paginate()); This code in my index() returns an array like Array ( [0] => Array ( [Sitepage] => Array ( [id] => 13 [name] => Home [urlslug] => home [parent_id] => 1 [page_title] => Welcome to KIAMS, Pune [order] => 1 ) ) [1] => Array ( [Sitepage] => Array ( [id] => 26 [name] => About Us [urlslug] => aboutus [parent_id] => 1 [page_title] => [order] => 2 ) ) [2] => Array ( [Sitepage] => Array ( [id] => 27 [name] => Overview of KIAMS [urlslug] => aboutus/overview [parent_id] => 26 [page_title] => [order] => 2 ) ) I retrieved the same data using $this-Sitepage-find('all') and then performed some manipulations as required and form a array which is very similar to the above one, but the ordering gets changed. I want to paginate this new array and pass it to the view. I tried $this->set('sitepages',$this->paginate($newarray)) But the data is not getting paginated. Can some one please help with paginating the $newarray in CakePHP?

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  • VB.Net Memory Issue

    - by Skulmuk
    We have an application that has some interesting memory usage issues. When it first opens, the program uses aroun 50-60MB of memory. This stays consistent on 32-bit machines. On 64-bit machines, however, re-activating the form in any way (clicking, dragging, alt-tabbing, etc.) adds around another 50MB to it's memory usage. It repeats this process several times before resetting back to around 45MB, at which point the cycle begins again. I've done some research and a lot of people have said that VB in general has pretty poor garbage collection, which could be affecting the software in some way. However, I've yet to find a solution. There are no events fired when the application is activated (as shown by 32-bit usage) - the applications is merely sitting awaiting the user's actions. At load, the system pulls some data into a tree view, but that's the only external connection, and it only re-fires the routine when the user makes a change to something and saves the change. Has anyone else experienced anything this strange, and if so, does anyone know of what might fix it? It seems strange that it only occurs under x64 systems. Thanks

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  • Website badge system

    - by linkyndy
    I am currently working on a widget-based website, built entirely on user socialization. Since a reputation system pays off for attracting users, I decided to implement one of these. Now, I would like to hear some solutions on how should this be implemented the right way (take, for example, Foursquare's badge system). Basically, I need to be able to do the following: have a badges table, where I can add, edit and delete badges; be able to enable and disable a badge; be able to introduce a new badge, but without writing new code - simply give some parameters to the add badge form regarding what should be followed in order for a user to receive a badge; be able to give badges in real time - meaning that whenever a user accomplishes whatever it needs to receive a badge, the system should know immediately to give the badge to that user; also, the system should not be overloaded with "badge listeners" - I believe interrogating each user request with every badge requirements is time consuming; These being said, I would like to hear your opinions on how to implement the right way a badge system (logic, database schema, methods etc.) Thank you very much!

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  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

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  • UPDATE Table SET Field

    - by davlyo
    This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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  • customized form_for tag in rails

    - by poseid
    I want to make a table within a form by making a new form_tag. The following code in ApplicationHelper fails: module ApplicationHelper class TabularFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder # ... code to insert <tr> tags </tr> end def tabular_form_for(name, object = nil, options = nil, &proc) concat("<table>", proc.binding) form_for(name, object, (options||{}).merge(:builder => TabularFormBuilder), &proc) concat("</table>", proc.binding) end end The view I use is: <h1>New project</h1> <% tabular_form_for :project, :builder => ApplicationHelper::TabularFormBuilder do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :name %> <%= f.text_area :description %> <%= f.text_field :location %> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> <% end %> The error I get is: NoMethodError in Projects#new Showing app/views/projects/new.html.erb where line #5 raised: undefined method `errors' for {:builder=ApplicationHelper::TabularFormBuilder}:Hash Any ideas how to make this custom tag work?

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  • What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • Database tables with dynamic information

    - by Tim Fennis
    I've googled this and found that it's almost impossible to create a database with dynamic collumns. I'll explain my problem first. I am making a webshop for a customer. It has multiple computer products for sale. CPU's HDD's RAM ect. All these products have different properties, a CPU has an FSB, RAM has a CAS latency. But this is very inconvenient because my orders table needs foreign keys to different tables which is impossible. An other option is to store all the product specific information in a varchar or blob field and let PHP figure it out. The problem with this solution is that the website needs a PC builder. A step-by-step guide to building your PC. So for instance if a customer decides he wants a new "i7 920" or whatever i want to be able to sellect all motherboards for socket 1366, which is impossible because all the data is stored in one field. I know it's possible to select all motherboards form the DB and let PHP figure out which ones are for socket 1366 but i was wondering, is there a better solution?

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  • jquery asp.net combo box question

    - by coson
    Good Day, I have a small form with a combo box (ASP.NET Drop Down List control) and a text box (with a DIV id txtName). When the selected index of the combo box changes, I want to clear out the text box. I understand that: $("#txtName").val(''); clears the text box value The thing is the combo box. It contains a list of integers representing the months of the year. The drop down control is called ddlMonths. $("#ddlMonths").change(function() { $("#txtName").val(''); }); I thought by using change, an onSelectedIndexChange event handler would be associated with this control. I also tried (because I've ran into the client id being mangled in ASP.NET w/ jQuery) this: $("#<%=ddlMonths.ClientID%>").change(function() { $("#<%=txtName.ClientID%>").val(''); }); and neither approach seems to be working. Am I missing something? TIA, coson

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  • VB.NET Program Locks Up with Internet Explorer Opened

    - by aaronsj
    I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and developing a VB.NET application. I'm having strange lockup problems with my program, but only when Internet explorer 8 is opened. When I cover my form with another window and then uncover it, I find that it has locked up. My program has no references to IE and the only thing it even has to do with IE is using Process.Start with a web address. My program works fine and exactly as it should, but only when IE is not opened. Does anyone know why a program would lock up only while IE is running? Edit: I've done some digging and I've found the offending thread in my program. I don't know what starts this thread or what it does, but when I kill it, my program no longer freezes. The thread is one of the CreateApplicationContext threads, here is the last few items in the stack trace of that thread. 6 ntkrnlpa.exe+0x897bc 7 ntdll.dll!KiFastSystemCallRet 8 mscorwrks.dll!LogHelp_TerminateOnAssert+0x61 9 mscorwrks.dll!DllUnregisterServerInternal+0x10523 10 mscorwrks.dll!DllUnregisterServerInternal+0x10542 11 mscorwrks.dll!StrongNameErrorInfo+0x34387 12 mscorwrks.dll!StrongNameErrorInfo+0x34815 13 mscorwrks.dll!CreateApplicationContext+0xbc35 14 KERNEL32.dll!GetModuleHandleA+0xdf Process explorer says my program is using no CPU nor throwing any exceptions while it is hung.

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  • I can not navigate to the next page in windows phone 7

    - by Vijay
    I am trying to navigate form one page to another page depends upon the login. If already user logged in, Welcome page should open. Else Log in Page should open. I am trying like this. The Splash Page is the start up page. This is a Splash Screen Xaml.cs: namespace NewExample.Views { public partial class SplashPage : PhoneApplicationPage { public SplashPage() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new SplashPageViewModel(); } } } This is Splash Screen View Model: Here I am check the user already logged in or not. namespace NewExample.ViewModel { public class SplashPageViewModel { public static bool isLogin = false; public SplashPageViewModel() { var rootFrame = (App.Current as App).RootFrame; if (isLogin) rootFrame.Navigate(new Uri("/Views/WelcomePage.xaml", UriKind.Relative)); else rootFrame.Navigate(new Uri("/Views/LoginPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative)); } } } But it is not working. The Splash Page only showing. This is not navigating to another page. Please help me to resolve this problem.

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  • how the get estimated output in timer

    - by ratty
    i have working with twp timer,the code below using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace example { public partial class Form1 : Form { int i = 0; int j = 0; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); timer1.Interval = 3000; } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer1.Enabled = true; } private void timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { i++; timer2.Enabled = true; if (i < 3) time1(i); else timer1.Enabled = false; } private void timer2_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { j++; timer2.Interval = timer1.Interval / 5; if (j < 5) time2(j); else timer2.Enabled = false; } private void time1(int i) { MessageBox.Show(i.ToString(), "First Timer"); } private void time2(int j) { MessageBox.Show(j.ToString(), "SecondTimer"); } } } when running this program it gives output like this firsttimer:1 secondTimer:1 secondTimer:2 secondTimer:3 secondTimer:4 firsttimer:2 in message box but when debugging debug cannot move that order.after finisheg the secondtimer:2 it gose back to first timer. but i need to go for how i am output get i need for this in another application. why it occurs

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  • Server Unable to Capture the POST Data sent from another server by Redirecting the URL

    - by user1749092
    Recently i started working on the Payment Gateway( further spelled as 'PG') process for my site. And for the process we have to send the Post data by form to PG server by redirecting to there page and by response from the PG about the Transaction they are sending POST data by redirecting the URL to our server page, the problem arises here, as my server unable to retrieve the POST Data sent from PG server. As i am coding in PHP, i tried to print all the response coming from PG by print_r($_POST); and even tried with print_r($_REQUEST);. I didn't found any data printing except the PHPSESSID and some other data array. As for the confirmation I checked wether they sending the Data or not by the IE addon as "TamperIE" where it is showing the all the POST Data sending from there server. But it is not at all coming to our server. And I tried this process on some other Server, there i able to get the POST response but not with currently working server. So please can you suggest me what might be the problem. Thanks!

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  • auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

    - by bgadoci
    I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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  • Can anyone help with this (Javascript arrays)?

    - by Rich
    Hi I am new to Netui and Javascript so go easy on me please. I have a form that is populated with container.item data retuned from a database. I am adding a checkbox beside each repeater item returned and I want to add the container item data to an array when one of the checkboxes is checked for future processing. The old code used Anchor tag to capture the data but that does not work for me. <!--netui:parameter name="lineupNo" value="{container.item.lineupIdent.lineupNo}" /> here is my checkbox that is a repeater. <netui:checkBox dataSource="{pageFlow.checkIsSelected}" onClick="checkBoxClicked()" tagId="pceChecked"/> this is my Javascript function so far but I want to a way to store the container.item.lineupIdent.lineupNo in the array. function checkBoxClicked() { var checkedPce = []; var elem = document.getElementById("PceList").elements; for (var i = 0; i < elem.length; i ++) { if (elem[i].name == netui_names.pceChecked) { if (elem[i].checked == true) { //do some code. } } } } I hope this is enough info for someone to help me. I have searched the web but could not find any examples. Thanks.

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  • Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

    - by Endemic
    In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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  • Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods?

    - by RCola
    Why I can noy access my variable p in mull form iterate method? How to resolve a problem? Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods? public class mull { public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final JPanel p = createAndShowGUI(); Timer timer = new Timer(1000, new MyTimerActionListener()); timer.start(); try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } timer.stop(); public static void iterate(){ for (int i = 0; i < 55; i++){ // "p cannot be resolved" p.moveSquare(i*10, i*10); p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); // p.repaint(); } } } class MyPanel extends JPanel { .... } How to access variable set in another method (in this example main())? Why Eclipse forces me to use this ((MyPanel) p).setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); instead of this p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200);?

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  • jQuery toggle content-div from menubar

    - by nuclearsugar
    I'm having trouble getting jQuery to allow only one content-DIV to be visible at a time. So that clicking between the menu buttons (about, newsletter, contact) this will allow only one content-DIV to be visible. --- Then the content-DIV needs to hide when the associated menu button is clicked (like it does currently). --- Upon clicking the header 'alliteration', any content-DIVs that are open need to hide. http://home.jasonfletcher.info/all/alliteration/index.html $('#collapse_about').hide(); $('#collapse_newsletter').hide(); $('#collapse_contact').hide(); $('#menu1').click(function() { $('#collapse_about').slideToggle(400); return false; }); $('#menu2').click(function() { $('#collapse_newsletter').slideToggle(400); return false; }); $('#menu3').click(function() { $('#collapse_contact').slideToggle(400); return false; }); I understand that this is a pretty simple bit of code... but the form of it evades me. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • C function prototype: void f(). Is it recommended?

    - by ycalleecharan
    Hi, I'm learning C and I saw in a book that a function prototype has the form void f() and in the function declaration or in the calling function, the f function takes arguments. Thus In the function declaration we have something like void f(long double y[], long double A) and in the calling function is f(y, A). The function is doing operations on the array y i.e. when the function is called, some elements in the array y are changing. A is just a constant numerical value that doesn't change. I have two questions: If defining the function prototype at the top in the program as void f() a good practice? Or is it better to put it as void f(long double y[], long double A) as in the function declaration? The called function f is changing elements in the array y. Is void the right return type? The program is working fine as such with the void as described. Or should I change all my "voids" to "long double". I'm working with long double as I need as much precision as possible though on my machine both double and long double gives me 15 precision digits. Thanks a lot

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  • C# InternalsVisibleTo() attribute for VBNET 2.0 while testing?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm building an Active Directory wrapper in VBNET 2.0 (can't use later .NET) in which I have the following: IUtilisateur IGroupe IUniteOrganisation These interfaces are implemented in internal classes (Friend in VBNET), so that I want to implement a façade in order to instiate each of the interfaces with their internal classes. This will allow the architecture a better flexibility, etc. Now, I want to test these classes (Utilisateur, Groupe, UniteOrganisation) in a different project within the same solution. However, these classes are internal. I would like to be able to instantiate them without going through my façade, but only for these tests, nothing more. Here's a piece of code to illustrate it: public static class DirectoryFacade { public static IGroupe CreerGroupe() { return new Groupe(); } } // Then in code, I would write something alike: public partial class MainForm : Form { public MainForm() { IGroupe g = DirectoryFacade.CreerGroupe(); // Doing stuff with instance here... } } // My sample interface: public interface IGroupe { string Domaine { get; set; } IList<IUtilisateur> Membres { get; } } internal class Groupe : IGroupe { private IList<IUtilisateur> _membres; internal Groupe() { _membres = new List<IUtilisateur>(); } public string Domaine { get; set; } public IList<IUtilisateur> Membres { get { return _membres; } } } I heard of InternalsVisibleTo() attribute, recently. I was wondering whether it is available in VBNET 2.0/VS2005 so that I could access the assmebly's internal classes for my tests? Otherwise, how could I achieve this?

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