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• How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

  - by chobo

  I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

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• Login form validation using javascript and php

  - by ipl

  Hi, I have been trying to create a login form using javascript.My login form needs to do the fllowing using javascript validation 1.login field contains only letters with a minimum of 4 and a maximum of 6 letters 2.password is at least 5 characters long and not more than 7 characters and contains only letters and digits with at least 1 letter and at least 1 digit 3.if the data is incorrect, generate an alert window with an appropriate message and set the cursor to the incorrect input field and the form needs to be submitted to a php file which needs to validate against a text file I tried to use regular expression to check for the login fiels and password in the javascript and i have used a login .php but havent done anything in that till now.However my javascript/html file which i have pasted below doesnt seem to work.Can anyone tell me the issue with my file? Rgds ip function validateFormOnSubmit(theForm) { reason += validateUsername(theForm.username.value) reason += validatePassword (theForm.pwd.value) if (reason == "") return true else { alert(reason); return false } } function validateUsername(fld) { if (fld == "") return "No username entered" else if((fld.length 6) || (fld.length 7 ) { return "length shoild be b/w 4 and 7"; } else if (!/[a-z]/.test(fld) || !/[A-Z]/.test(fld) || !/[0-9]/.test(fld)){ return "passwords rewuire one of the letters or digitys"; } } SignupForm Your user name: Your Password:    

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• How To Join Tables from Two Different Contexts with LINQ2SQL?

  - by RSolberg

  I have 2 data contexts in my application (different databases) and need to be able to query a table in context A with a right join on a table in context B. How do I go about doing this in LINQ2SQL? Why?: We are using a SaaS product for tracking our time, projects, etc. and would like to send new service requests to this product to prevent our team from duplicating data entry. Context A: This db stores service request information. It is a third party DB and we are not able to make changes to the structure of this DB as it could have unintended non-supportable consequences downstream. Context B: This data stores the "log" data of service requests that have been processed. My team and I have full control over this DB's structure, etc. Unprocessed service requests should find their way into this DB and another process will identify it as not being processed and send the record to the SaaS product. This is the query that I am looking to modify. I was able to do a !list.Contains(c.swHDCaseId) initially, but this cannot handle more than 2100 items. Is there a way to add a join to the other context? var query = (from c in contextA.Cases where monitoredInboxList.Contains(c.INBOXES.inboxName) select new { //setup fields here... });

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• SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

  - by Jordan

  I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

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• Concurrency problem with arrays (Java)

  - by Johannes

  For an algorithm I'm working on I tried to develop a blacklisting mechanism that can blacklist arrays in a specific way: If "1, 2, 3" is blacklisted "1, 2, 3, 4, 5" is also considered blacklisted. I'm quite happy with the solution I've come up with so far. But there seem to be some serious problems when I access a blacklist from multiple threads. The method "contains" (see code below) sometimes returns true, even if an array is not blacklisted. This problem does not occur if I only use one thread, so it most likely is a concurrency problem. I've tried adding some synchronization, but it didn't change anything. I also tried some slightly different implementations using java.util.concurrent classes. Any ideas on how to fix this? public class Blacklist { private static final int ARRAY_GROWTH = 10; private final Node root = new Node(); private static class Node{ private volatile Node[] childNodes = new Node[ARRAY_GROWTH]; private volatile boolean blacklisted = false; public void blacklist(){ this.blacklisted = true; this.childNodes = null; } } public void add(final int[] array){ synchronized (root) { Node currentNode = this.root; for(final int edge : array){ if(currentNode.blacklisted) return; else if(currentNode.childNodes.length <= edge) { currentNode.childNodes = Arrays.copyOf(currentNode.childNodes, edge + ARRAY_GROWTH); } if(currentNode.childNodes[edge] == null) { currentNode.childNodes[edge] = new Node(); } currentNode = currentNode.childNodes[edge]; } currentNode.blacklist(); } } public boolean contains(final int[] array){ synchronized (root) { Node currentNode = this.root; for(final int edge : array){ if(currentNode.blacklisted) return true; else if(currentNode.childNodes.length <= edge || currentNode.childNodes[edge] == null) return false; currentNode = currentNode.childNodes[edge]; } return currentNode.blacklisted; } } }

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• architecture - centraled location for different modules (cms, webapplications, ...) - best practise

  - by NicoJuicy

  Let's just say that i want to create a cms + other online applications. I want them all to integrate into a central location, but they also have to be available seperately (not everyone want's more than the cms solution). Would i create a huge central application that contains all the database, which communicates through a webserice with the "standalone - integrated" modules? Or would i create them seperately and the only thing that the "central" application would do is syncing the information (eg. the cms and another solution can have the same tables (eg. clients or employees). Or do you have another idea? (i know i'm a little vague, but i can't "give" a lot of details because of work - contract). If someone has all the "packages" it should be possible for the central application to integrate all the modules at one place! Or if someone has more than 1 module, it should combine this on the website. What i thought is best, is that the central location contains only the users and their rights (eg. cms - all rights, ...), and the information get synced with every change. (module cms, adding a new client - store locally and send data to the central location, central location - send to modules = table clients updated everywhere) This way it is easy if someone only "bought" a module, they can sync it easily through the complete architecture. I hope i made myself clear!

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• summing functions handles in matlab

  - by user552231

  Hi I am trying to sum two function handles, but it doesn't work. for example: y1=@(x)(x*x); y2=@(x)(x*x+3*x); y3=y1+y2 The error I receive is "??? Undefined function or method 'plus' for input arguments of type 'function_handle'." This is just a small example, in reality I actually need to iteratively sum about 500 functions that are dependent on each other. EDIT The solution by Clement J. indeed works but I couldn't manage to generalize this into a loop and ran into a problem. I have the function s=@(x,y,z)((1-exp(-x*y)-z)*exp(-x*y)); And I have a vector v that contains 536 data points and another vector w that also contains 536 data points. My goal is to sum up s(v(i),y,w(i)) for i=1...536 Thus getting one function in the variable y which is the sum of 536 functions. The syntax I tried in order to do this is: sum=@(y)(s(v(1),y,z2(1))); for i=2:536 sum=@(y)(sum+s(v(i),y,z2(i))) end

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• Eclipse BIRT - Unnecessary inline style with external CSS when rendering HTML

  - by Etienne

  Hello! I am designing a report using external CSS with BIRT 2.5. When BIRT renders the html report, it creates copies of each external style to inline styles (name style_x) in the resulting html. The report.design contains: <list-property name="cssStyleSheets"> <structure> <property name="fileName">… mycss.css</property> <property name="externalCssURI"> http://.../mycss.css </property> </structure> </list-property> The resulting html contains: <style type="text/css"> .style_0 {…} .style_1 {…} …. </style> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://.../mycss.css"></link> For each reference of my styles, the rendered html elements use both styles usually like this: <div class="style_x myclass" …. > …. </div> Is there any way to get rid of the useless inline styles when rendering html?

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• How to store visited states in iterative deepening / depth limited search?

  - by colinfang

  Update: Search for the first solution. for a normal Depth First Search it is simple, just use a hashset bool DFS (currentState) = { if (myHashSet.Contains(currentState)) { return; } else { myHashSet.Add(currentState); } if (IsSolution(currentState) return true; else { for (var nextState in GetNextStates(currentState)) if (DFS(nextState)) return true; } return false; } However, when it becomes depth limited, i cannot simply do this bool DFS (currentState, maxDepth) = { if (maxDepth = 0) return false; if (myHashSet.Contains(currentState)) { return; } else { myHashSet.Add(currentState); } if (IsSolution(currentState) return true; else { for (var nextState in GetNextStates(currentState)) if (DFS(nextState, maxDepth - 1)) return true; } return false; } Because then it is not going to do a complete search (in a sense of always be able to find a solution if there is any) before maxdepth How should I fix it? Would it add more space complexity to the algorithm? Or it just doesn't require to memoize the state at all. Update: for example, a decision tree is the following: A - B - C - D - E - A | F - G (Goal) Starting from state A. and G is a goal state. Clearly there is a solution under depth 3. However, using my implementation under depth 4, if the direction of search happens to be A(0) -> B(1) -> C(2) -> D(3) -> E(4) -> F(5) exceeds depth, then it would do back track to A, however E is visited, it would ignore the check direction A - E - F - G

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• Am I fundamentally misunderstanding how Silverlight runs? (debugging issues)

  - by SP

  I've got a vs2010 solution containing an ASP.Net 4 website, and a Silverlight 4 project. The website is linked to the Silverlight project ('Map') and the ClientBin folder contains a Map.xap file. The Map project is very simple. It contains the default App.xaml and App.xaml.cs files. The MainPage.xaml file looks like this <UserControl x:Class="Map.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="380" d:DesignWidth="800"> <Canvas x:Name="MainCanvas" Width="800" Height="380"> <Canvas.Background> <ImageBrush ImageSource="map.png" Stretch="None"/> </Canvas.Background> </Canvas> The code behind for that looks like this: public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); throw new Exception(); } } Inside one of the website pages I have the default object pointing to my Silverlight xap When I run the website, I see my background image on the Canvas in the Silverlight window, so I know it's working in that sense. However, I cannot break on any breakpoints set in the MainPage.xaml.cs file (in IE). I have checked the correct settings for Silverlight debugging. And see that Exception I'm throwing in the MainPage constructor? I'm not seeing that either. In fact, nothing I put in there seems to be run at all, but I know the xaml is rendering because I can see my canvas background. What am I not getting here?

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• Navigation Controller not Pushing/Popping View Controllers

  - by senfo

  I'm working on a view-based iPhone app that has the following flow: search - (list | map) - details To accomplish the transitions between views, I have a UINavigationController, with the search view controller being the root. After a user performs a search, I transition to a view with a segmented control, which acts as a tab to switch between the list and map functionality (per a suggestion from a related question I had). This view contains a UIViewController, which allows me to switch between the list/map view when a user taps the segmented control. I'm fine up until this point. As you can see from the above mentioned flow, I would like to provide the ability to transition into a details view. Each row of my table in the list view contains a details disclosure button for allowing the user to drill down into a details view. The problem is, when I try to push the details view onto the navigation stack, nothing happens. Below is the delegate method (from my list view controller) to handle the details disclosure button being tapped. I've set up break points, so I know the code is running. The navigation controller simply doesn't want to push the detailsController onto the stack (my guess is that I don't have a pointer to the correct UINavigationController). - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView accessoryButtonTappedForRowWithIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (detailController == nil) { detailController = [[DetailsViewController alloc] init]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailController animated:YES]; } Assuming I was probably missing a pointer to the navigation controller, I exposed a UINavigation property on my list and map views (navigationController is readonly) and initialized them with a pointer to the navigation controller from my SwitchViewController (the view responsible for switching between list/map views when a user changes the value of the segmented control). Unfortunately, this did not solve the problem. Am I on the right track? If so, how do I see to it that my view has a pointer to the correct navigation controller? Should I add a delegate, which allows me to call a function in the SwitchViewController that transitions into the details view (this seems messy)?

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• Android: Adding header to dynamic listView

  - by cg5572

  I'm still pretty new to android coding, and trying to figure things out. I'm creating a listview dynamically as shown below (and then disabling items dynamically also) - you'll notice that there's no xml file for the activity itself, just for the listitem. What I'd like to do is add a static header to the page. Could someone explain to me how I can modify the code below to EITHER add this programatically within the java file, before the listView, OR edit the code below so that it targets a listView within an xml file! Help would be much appreciated!!! public class Start extends ListActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); DataBaseHelper myDbHelper = new DataBaseHelper(null); myDbHelper = new DataBaseHelper(this); try { myDbHelper.openDataBase(); }catch(SQLException sqle){ throw sqle; } ArrayList<String> categoryList = new ArrayList<String>(); Cursor cur = myDbHelper.getAllCategories(); cur.moveToFirst(); while (cur.isAfterLast() == false) { if (!categoryList.contains(cur.getString(1))) { categoryList.add(cur.getString(1)); } cur.moveToNext(); } cur.close(); Collections.sort(categoryList); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.listitem, categoryList) { @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View view = super.getView(position, convertView, parent); if(Arrays.asList(checkArray3).contains(String.valueOf(position))){ view.setEnabled(false); } else { view.setEnabled(true); } return view; } }); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { if(v.isEnabled()) { String clickedCat = l.getItemAtPosition(position).toString(); Toast.makeText(this, clickedCat, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); finish(); Intent myIntent = new Intent(getApplicationContext(), Questions.class); myIntent.putExtra("passedCategory", clickedCat); myIntent.putExtra("startTrigger", "go"); startActivity(myIntent); } } }

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• Accettend letter and other graphic simbols PHP->JS

  - by Kreker

  I have to read a txt via file php. This file contains some normal so may contains this kind of symbols : € é ò à ° % etc I read the content in php with file_get_contents and transform these for inserenting in SQL database. $contFile = file_get_contents($pathFile); $testoCommento = htmlspecialchars($contFile,ENT_QUOTES); $testoCommento = addslashes($testoCommento); Now if I have this text for example : "l'attesa ?é cruciale fino a quando il topo non viene morso dall'?€" in the database I have this: l&#039;attesa è cruciale fino a quando il topo non veniene morso dall&#039;€ When I was GETTING the data from the database I use the php function for decode html entites $descrizione = htmlspecialchars_decode($risultato['descrizione'],ENT_QUOTES); $descrizione = addslashes($descrizione); Now I use jasvascript and AJAX for getting the table content and display to an HTML page In the browser instead of getting the correct text (€,è) I have square symbol. I think there is some mess with charset code/decode but never figured out. The SQL' table is in "utf8_unicode_ci" format and the column in "utf8_general_ci". The content-type of the page is <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Thanks for help me!

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• How to validate DataReader is actually closed using FxCop custom rule?

  - by tanmay

  I have written couple of custom rules in for FxCop 1.36. I have written code to find weather an opened DataReader is closed or not. But it does not check which DataReader object is calling the Close() method so I can't be sure if all opened DataReader objects are closed!! 2nd: If I am a DataReader in an 'if/else' like if 1=2 dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); else dr = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); end if In this case it will search for 2 DataReader objects to be closed. I am putting my code for more clarity. public override ProblemCollection Check(Member member) { Method method = member as Method; int countCatch =0; int countErrLog = 0; Instruction objInstr = null; if (method != null) { for (int i = 0; i < method.Instructions.Count; i++) { objInstr = method.Instructions[i]; if (objInstr.Value != null) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString() .Contains("System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader")) { countCatch += 1; } if (countCatch>0) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString().Contains( "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.Close")) { countErrLog += 1; } } } } } if (countErrLog!=countCatch) { Resolution resolu = GetResolution(new string[] { method.ToString() }); Problems.Add(new Problem(resolu)); } return Problems; }

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• Move SELECT to SQL Server side

  - by noober

  Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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• MySQL left outer join is slow

  - by Ryan Doherty

  Hi, hoping to get some help with this query, I've worked at it for a while now and can't get it any faster: SELECT date, count(id) as 'visits' FROM dates LEFT OUTER JOIN visits ON (dates.date = DATE(visits.start) and account_id = 40 ) WHERE date >= '2010-12-13' AND date <= '2011-1-13' GROUP BY date ORDER BY date ASC That query takes about 8 seconds to run. I've added indexes on dates.date, visits.start, visits.account_id and visits.start+visits.account_id and can't get it to run any faster. Table structure (only showing relevant columns in visit table): create table visits ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `account_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `start` DATETIME NOT NULL, `end` DATETIME NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; CREATE TABLE `dates` ( `date` date NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`date`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; dates table contains all days from 2010-1-1 to 2020-1-1 (~3k rows). visits table contains about 400k rows dating from 2010-6-1 to yesterday. I'm using the date table so the join will return 0 visits for days there were no visits. Results I want for reference: +------------+--------+ | date | visits | +------------+--------+ | 2010-12-13 | 301 | | 2010-12-14 | 356 | | 2010-12-15 | 423 | | 2010-12-16 | 332 | | 2010-12-17 | 346 | | 2010-12-18 | 226 | | 2010-12-19 | 213 | | 2010-12-20 | 311 | | 2010-12-21 | 273 | | 2010-12-22 | 286 | | 2010-12-23 | 241 | | 2010-12-24 | 149 | | 2010-12-25 | 102 | | 2010-12-26 | 174 | | 2010-12-27 | 258 | | 2010-12-28 | 348 | | 2010-12-29 | 392 | | 2010-12-30 | 395 | | 2010-12-31 | 278 | | 2011-01-01 | 241 | | 2011-01-02 | 295 | | 2011-01-03 | 369 | | 2011-01-04 | 438 | | 2011-01-05 | 393 | | 2011-01-06 | 368 | | 2011-01-07 | 435 | | 2011-01-08 | 313 | | 2011-01-09 | 250 | | 2011-01-10 | 345 | | 2011-01-11 | 387 | | 2011-01-12 | 0 | | 2011-01-13 | 0 | +------------+--------+ Thanks in advance for any help!

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• Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

  - by ropstah

  I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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• Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

  - by Jim Geurts

  I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

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• Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

  - by Kenny Wyland

  I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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• How to mock/stub a directory of files and their contents using RSpec?

  - by John Topley

  A while ago I asked "How to test obtaining a list of files within a directory using RSpec?" and although I got a couple of useful answers, I'm still stuck, hence a new question with some more detail about what I'm trying to do. I'm writing my first RubyGem. It has a module that contains a class method that returns an array containing a list of non-hidden files within a specified directory. Like this: files = Foo.bar :directory => './public' The array also contains an element that represents metadata about the files. This is actually a hash of hashes generated from the contents of the files, the idea being that changing even a single file changes the hash. I've written my pending RSpec examples, but I really have no idea how to implement them: it "should compute a hash of the files within the specified directory" it "shouldn't include hidden files or directories within the specified directory" it "should compute a different hash if the content of a file changes" I really don't want to have the tests dependent on real files acting as fixtures. How can I mock or stub the files and their contents? The gem implementation will use Find.find, but as one of the answers to my other question said, I don't need to test the library. I really have no idea how to write these specs, so any help much appreciated!

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• I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

  - by Moulde

  Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

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• JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

  - by Newbtophp

  If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

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• jQuery remove SELECT options based on another SELECT selected on change and on load

  - by John Sieber

  I'm using the following jQuery code to remove options from a select and it is working well. But instead of it only executing when the theOption2 select is changed I would also like it to work when the page is loaded depending on the selected item that is selected. I tried using the a copy of the script and changing the .change to .load and also tried using (window).load without the desired results. Essentially, I need the script to execute on change of the Options1 and on the loading of the page. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //copy the second select, so we can easily reset it var selectClone = $('#theOptions2').clone(); $('#theOptions1').change(function() { var val = parseInt($(this).val()); //reset the second select on each change $('#theOptions2').html(selectClone.html()) switch(val) { //if 2 is selected remove C case 2 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(c)').remove();break; //if 3 is selected remove A case 3 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(a)').remove();break; } }); }); </script> <select id="theOptions1"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> </select> <br /> <select id="theOptions2"> <option>a</option> <option>b</option> <option>c</option> </select>

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• Anchors with overlapping divs

  - by tmdelane

  I am using a grid based layout, with two main sections. Graph and Timeline. Graph, contains graded vertical bars, HTML similar to: <div id="graph" class="container_160"> <div id="Jan-97" class="grid_1 major"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="Feb-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="Mar-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="Apr-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="May-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> etc... </div> Timeline, contains horizontal bars, HTML similar to: <div id="timeline" class="container_160"> <div id="bar1" class="grid_32 suffix_128"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="bar2" class="prefix_32 grid_24 suffix_104"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="bar3" class="prefix_58 grid_7 suffix_95"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> </div> Timeline is relatively positioned to Graph so that it overlaps. My problem is that when these divs overlap, the anchors in Timeline stop working. I am open to both CSS and Jquery solutions. Thanks in advance. t.

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• Upgrade to iPhone 3.0 sdk and now simulator shows blank screen.

  - by NoShitMcGee

  I have an iPhone app that uses an UITabBarController, which contains two UINavigationControllers, each of which in turn contains one or more TableViewControllers (actually, customized UIViewControllers implementing UITableViewDelegate and UITableViewDataSource. ) On launch, it displays the UITabBarController with one of the tableviews displayed. Everything is coded; Interface Builder was NOT used to make any of the UI stuff. It was written in SDK 2. It worked fine in sdk 2. I recently updated to SDK 3.0. In Info, I set the Base SDK setting to iPhone Simulator 3.0. Now, when I launch the application in Simulator, I see only a blank white screen with the status bar at the top. No signs of my app. However, when I exit the app, the missing tableview displays briefly as the exiting animation is playing. Also, on the blank white screen I can still click where the navigation buttons should be and find that, when I exit the app and the missing screen briefly displays, that navigation has taken me to another screen. So the buttons work, and presumably the tableviewcells are there, they just cannot be seen. Has anyone seen anything like this? Does anyone have any idea what is causing it and how I can fix it? I noticed that sample apps, such as SQLiteBooks, seem to work fine when updating to SDK 3.0. My app isn't very much different from SQLiteBooks in terms of technologies used, except that, as I said above, I do not use Interface Builder. Thanks

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