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  • What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

    - by RubberDuck
    I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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  • Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

    - by abszero
    I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

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  • [CakePHP] I am so confused. What should I write in the default.ctp

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am learning cakePHP, everything seems alright except that I am very confused of how to make use of the default.ctp and what should be put inside the Elements folder. Here is the default.ctp file that I have been using since my very first lesson on learning cakePHP: (I copied from this URL http://book.cakephp.org/view/96/Layouts) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title><?php echo $title_for_layout?></title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <!-- Include external files and scripts here (See HTML helper for more info.) --> <?php echo $scripts_for_layout ?> </head> <body> <!-- If you'd like some sort of menu to show up on all of your views, include it here --> <div id="header"> <div id="menu">...</div> </div> <!-- Here's where I want my views to be displayed --> <?php echo $content_for_layout ?> <!-- Add a footer to each displayed page --> <div id="footer">...</div> </body> </html> But the problem is that the layout will take effect to all web pages that I have created. Let's see the case that I have recently encountered. In one of the .ctp files, I need to use JQuery function and I need to ass some and tags in the .ctp file. Here are the and tags I used: <Script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // some functions here }); </Script> <style type="text/css"> { #toppage{ width:800px; } But when I followed the default.ctp file, I noticed that these tags (i.e. and ) happened to appear below the tag. As far as I know, the and self-defined Javascript functions should be put inside the tag of the HTML instead. I have considered to add the and in the default.ctp file, but then these codes would appear in every web pages instead of just a particular web page. Please help.

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  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

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  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

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  • how to set a polyline on google maps every time when i click twice(make two markers) on maps,

    - by zjm1126
    this is my code : thanks <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//WAPFORUM//DTD XHTML Mobile 1.0//EN" "http://www.wapforum.org/DTD/xhtml-mobile10.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,minimum-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=5.0,user-scalable=yes"> </head> <body onload="initialize()" onunload="GUnload()"> <style type="text/css"> </style> <div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;float:left;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-7cuV3vqp7w6zUNiN_F4uBRi_j0U6kJrkFvY4-OX2XYmEAa76BSNz0ifabgugotzJgrxyodPDmheRA&sensor=false"type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //********** function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()){ //var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); //map.setCenter(new GLatLng(39.9493, 116.3975), 13); var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var center=new GLatLng(39.917,116.397); map.setCenter(center, 13); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(new GLatLng(39.917,116.397))); map.enableDrawing() //GEvent.addListener(map, "mouseover", function() { //alert("???????"); //}); var one; aFn=function(y_scale,x_scale){ //************ //function p(){ var bounds = map.getBounds(); var southWest = bounds.getSouthWest(); var northEast = bounds.getNorthEast(); var lngSpan = northEast.lng() - southWest.lng(); var latSpan = northEast.lat() - southWest.lat(); var point = new GLatLng(southWest.lat() + latSpan * (1-y_scale), southWest.lng() + lngSpan * x_scale); if(!one){ map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); one=point; }else{ var polyline = new GPolyline([one,point], "#ff0000", 5); map.addOverlay(polyline); one=0; } } //********** //************* } } </script> </body> </html>

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  • Navbar Menu Trouble shoot

    - by Nabeel M
    So I wanted to create the fixed nav bar on top of the page. Instead of creating nav bar with ordered list, I used the following approach: <header> <div class="nav"> <img src="images/logo_ab.png" alt="AurinBioTech Logo"/> <a href="index.html">Home</a> <a href="#">About</a> <a href="#">Team</a> <a href="#">Science</a> <a href="#">Need</a> <a href="#">Pipeline</a> <a href="#">Contact</a> </div> </header> CSS: header .nav { margin-top:100px; width:100%; height:10%; text-align:center; padding-top:2%; margin:0 auto; position:fixed; top:0; } header .nav a { font-size: 2em; padding-left: 15px; padding-right: 15px; color:rgb(1, 1, 1); text-decoration: none; font-family: 'Bebas'; } header .nav a:hover { color:white; background-color: #404040; border-radius:5px; padding:0 auto; } header .nav a:active{ background-color: #404040; border-radius:5px; text-decoration:overline; } header .nav img { width:260px; height:65px; padding-right:4em; } The reason I used this approach is because I wanted to use logo image next to the nav bar so it would align properly in the same line. Now the problem is that I need to add sub-menus under Science and Pipeline heading. Since I didn't use UL or LI, how can I add sub-menus under those heading. OR, can you tell me any other way to create a NAV bar that shows the logo as well. so it would be LOGO and MENUS on the same line. Great thanks in advance.

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  • Accordion nonfunctional in Opera

    - by nona
    While working as expected in all other browsers, opera refuses to tween the height of content. oddly enough, as i sat annoyed rapidly clicking it over and over again, if it's closed, and you select some text, and keep clicking the same spot long enough, sometimes it pops open. lol. seriously. ahh, it seems to sometimes open the first time clicked after the page is loaded. wth? the javascript: window.addEvent('domready', function(){ var content_height = [];i=0; $$( '.bio_accordion' ).each(function(item){ i++; content_height.push(item.getElement('.moreInfo').offsetHeight); var thisSlider = new Fx.Slide( item.getElement( '.moreInfo' ), { mode: 'horizontal' } ); thisSlider.hide(); item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween').tween('height', '0px'); var morph = new Fx.Morph(item.getElement( '.divToggle' )); var selected = 0; item.getElement( '.divToggle' ).addEvents({ 'mouseenter': function(){ if(!selected) this.morph('.div_highlight'); }, 'mouseleave': function(){ if(!selected) { this.morph('.divToggle'); } }, 'click': function(){ if (!selected){ if (this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML == '+') this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '-'; else this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '+'; item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween', { duration: 1500, transition: Fx.Transitions.Bounce.easeOut }).tween('height', content_height[i]); selected = 1; thisSlider.slideIn(); } else{ if (this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML == '+') this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '-'; else this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '+'; thisSlider.slideOut(); item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween', { duration: 1000, transition: Fx.Transitions.Bounce.easeOut }).tween('height', '0px'); selected = 0; } } }); } ); }); the html: <div class="bio_accordion"> <div class="divToggle">test<span class="symbol">-</span></div> <div class="moreInfo" style="margin-left:10px;"> aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf </div> </div> the css: .bio_accordion { padding:0px; margin:0px; } .divToggle { cursor: pointer; color: #ffffff; background-color:#1089b5; padding: 8px; } .div_highlight { padding-left:30px; padding-right:30px; background-color:#096687; } .moreInfo { padding: 2px; padding-top:15px; padding-bottom:15px; overflow: hidden; } .symbol { float:right; }

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  • jquery - targetting a select using $this

    - by Maureen
    I am trying to get individual selects (which have the same class as other selects) to respond to a .change function, however it only works on one of the selects. If you test out this code it will make more sense. Try to add a few "ON/OFF events", and then select "Specified Time" in the various selects. You'll see only the first one responds. Any ideas? Thanks! Please see the following code: $(document).ready(function() { var neweventstring = '<div class="event">Turns <select name="ONOFF"><option value="On">ON</option><option value="Off">OFF</option></select> at: <select name="setto" class="setto"><option>Select Time</option><option value="Sunrise">Sunrise</option><option value="Sunset">Sunset</option><option value="specifiedtime">Specified Time</option></select></div>'; $('#addmondaysevent').click(function () { $('#monday .events').append(neweventstring); }); $('.setto').change(function() { alert('The function is called'); if($("option:selected", this).val() =="specifiedtime"){ alert('If returns true'); $(this).css("background-color", "#cc0000"); $(this).after('<div class="specifictime"><input type="text" value="00" style="width:30px"/> : <input type="text" value="00" style="width:30px"> <select name="ampm"><option value="AM" selected>AM</option><option value="PM">PM</option></select></div>') } }); }); And my HTML: <div id="monday"> <h2>Mondays</h2> <div class="events"> <div class="event"> Turn <select name="ONOFF"> <option value="On">ON</option> <option value="Off">OFF</option> </select> at: <select name="setto" class="setto"> <option>Select Time</option> <option value="Sunrise">Sunrise</option> <option value="Sunset">Sunset</option> <option value="specifiedtime">Specified Time</option> </select> </div> [<a id="addmondaysevent">Add an ON/OFF event</a>] </div> </div>

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  • Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

    - by Ed Kirk
    On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • Working with Multiple Layers - KineticJS

    - by Bruno Sampaio
    I'm using KineticJS 4.0.5 and I'm currently trying to draw the contents of several layers but only the last one added to stage is drawn... If I understood the documentation correctly this should be possible, otherwise why would we need a layer? I have three different layers: a background layer with just a Kinectic.Rect object; a elements layer with several types of shapes; and a top layer with elements I want to be always on top of everything. I populate those layers inside a draw function I have inside a object I created, this object also has a shape attribute which refers to the background and a contents attribute with the elements to add to the elements layer. My code for the draw function is the following: this.draw = function() { var stage = E.game.stage, layers = E.game.layers; stage.clear(); // Add Background this.shape.setSize(stage.getWidth(), stage.getHeight()); layers.background.add(this.shape); // Iterate over contents for(var i = 0; i < this.contents.length; i++) { layers.elements.add(this.contents[i].shape); } // Draw Everything stage.add(layers.background); stage.add(layers.elements); stage.add(layers.top); // This one is currently empty stage.draw(); } After running this function, only layers.top is drawn in the canvas, and if I comment the line where it is added only layers.elements is drawn. However the stage has 3 childrens (I checked it with inspect element on chrome) and in the documentation it says the draw function draws all layers... Am I doing something wrong here? Or it isn't possible? And if it's not possible why would I need a layer and a stage? Wouldn't one be enough? Thank you in advance. Edit: I was able to solve the problem, I was applying a white background color with css to the canvas element and since each layer creates a new canvas element above the others I could only see the contents for the top most layer (in this case just white). However, I still have a problem related with multiple layers that I didn't have before with just one layer. When I use the clear function on the stage it should clear the layers right? But instead the layers remain exactly the same, even if I try to call clear on each individual layer they won't change... I'm also using the stage draw function after clearing them but still no changes at all... The only solution I found until now was by removing the layer from the stage and adding it again :s Is there a better way to reset the layers contents? Thank you again and sorry for the confusion with the first question.

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  • Log4j: Issues about the FallbackErrorHandler

    - by rdogpink
    I am working on a client-server-application and wanted to implement a flexible Loggingframework, so I chose log4j, which doesn´t really evolve anymore, but it is still handy framework. Because the Logging happens along the network, i wanted a solution for the case, that the network drive isn´t available, so the Logger has to change its destination file(s). Now I wanted to use the FallbackErrorHandler (configured with a XML-File) from the Log4j-library and the implementation worked: When my network drive isn´t available, it switches to a local Logfile, so no logging should be lost. But I headded two problems since yesterday and couldn´t figure or find out, how to solve it. No return to initial Logging Configuration: When the network drive is on again and the Logger could write to the old destinations, log4j still logs at the local drive and I can´t figure out, how to notify the original (primary) Logger to start again. I also tried to attach a second Appender to the ErrorHandler, which should mirror the failed primary Logger, that it tries to write on the network destination and when the network is on again, it logs in both files, on the local and on the network drive. But unfortunately it didn´t work out, I only got a failure message that the ErrorHandler-content doesn´t fit. log4j:WARN The content of element type "errorHandler" must match "(param*,root-ref?,logger-ref*,appender-ref?)". This is the responsible code. <appender name="TraceAppender" class="org.apache.log4j.DailyRollingFileAppender"> <!-- The second appender-ref "TestAppender" leads to the error. --> <errorHandler class="org.apache.log4j.varia.FallbackErrorHandler"> <logger-ref ref="com.idoh"/> <appender-ref ref="TraceFallbackAppender"/> <appender-ref ref="TestAppender"/> </errorHandler> <param name="datePattern" value=".yyyy-MM-dd" /> <param name="file" value="logs/Trace.txt" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-6r %d{HH:mm:ss,SSS} [%t] %-5p - %m%n"/> </layout> </appender> So, how could I trigger log4j to reset to initial configuration or hold a second appender parallel to the "Local-Logger". My Application should work by itself and shouldn´t have to be restarted often. First Error message is swallowed: I recognized, that the first message, which leads to the switching between the primary logger and the FallbackErrorHandler (for example a logging-request to a readonly-File), is swallowed, so neither the primary logger logs it (because it can´t) nor the backup-Logger knows what it missed. So anybody else ran in this problem and could solve it? Or has any suggestions?

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  • Instance Failure in asp.net

    - by user85511
    I have a web application that is working perfectly in my system. However, when I copied it to another system, I couldn't login to the application. There is an error: Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Instance failure. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Instance failure. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Instance failure.] System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) +4858423 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +90 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +257 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +221 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +189 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +4859187 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +31 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +433 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +499 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +65 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +117 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +122 System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHolder.Open(HttpContext context, Boolean revertImpersonate) +87 System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHelper.GetConnection(String connectionString, Boolean revertImpersonation) +221 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.GetPasswordWithFormat(String username, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Int32& status, String& password, Int32& passwordFormat, String& passwordSalt, Int32& failedPasswordAttemptCount, Int32& failedPasswordAnswerAttemptCount, Boolean& isApproved, DateTime& lastLoginDate, DateTime& lastActivityDate) +815 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.CheckPassword(String username, String password, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Boolean failIfNotApproved, String& salt, Int32& passwordFormat) +105 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.CheckPassword(String username, String password, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Boolean failIfNotApproved) +42 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.ValidateUser(String username, String password) +78 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.AuthenticateUsingMembershipProvider(AuthenticateEventArgs e) +60 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.OnAuthenticate(AuthenticateEventArgs e) +119 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.AttemptLogin() +115 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +101 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +166 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +10 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +13 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +36 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1565 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3053; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3053 What could be the reason for such an error? How could I solve this?

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  • .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

    - by Biri
    I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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  • No Method Error Undefined method 'save' for nil:NilClass

    - by BennyB
    I'm getting this error when i try to create a "Lecture" via my Lecture controller's create method. This used to work but i went on to work on other parts of the app & then of course i come back & something is now throwing this error when a user tries to create a Lecture in my app. I'm sure its something small i'm just overlooking (been at it a while & probably need to take a break)...but I'd appreciate if someone could let me know why this is happening...let me know if i need to post anything else...thx! The error I get NoMethodError in LecturesController#create undefined method `save' for nil:NilClass Rails.root: /Users/name/Sites/rails_projects/app_name Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/lectures_controller.rb:13:in `create' My view to create a new Lecture views/lectures/new.html.erb <% provide(:title, 'Start a Lecture') %> <div class="container"> <div class="content-wrapper"> <h1>Create a Lecture</h1> <div class="row"> <div class="span 6 offset3"> <%= form_for(@lecture) do |f| %> <%= render 'shared/error_messages', :object => f.object %> <div class="field"> <%= f.text_field :title, :placeholder => "What will this Lecture be named?" %> <%= f.text_area :content, :placeholder => "Describe this Lecture & what will be learned..." %> </div> <%= f.submit "Create this Lecture", :class => "btn btn-large btn-primary" %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> </div> Then my controller where its saying the error is coming from controllers/lectures_controller.rb class LecturesController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, :only => [:create, :destroy] before_filter :correct_user, :only => :destroy def index end def new @lecture = current_user.lectures.build if signed_in? end def create if @lecture.save flash[:success] = "Lecture created!" redirect_to @lecture else @activity_items = [ ] render 'new' end end def show @lecture = Lecture.find(params[:id]) end def destroy @lecture.destroy redirect_to root_path end private def correct_user @lecture = current_user.lectures.find_by_id(params[:id]) redirect_to root_path if @lecture.nil? end

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  • Jquery hover with animation

    - by Brian
    anyone know how to stop a .hover happening again before the mouseout animation has finished? I have the following code which has 4 anchors. Once hovered over the anchor the related anchor slides in using animation. My problem is you hover out and in quickly, before the square has been set back to 0px it increases the slide distance. <body class="home"> <div id="container"> <a class="page-link homet" id="anim-1"></a> <a class="page-link about" id="anim-2"></a> <a class="page-link portfolio" id="anim-3"></a> <a class="page-link contacts" id="anim-4"></a> <div id="header"> <div id="logo"> </div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a id="1"></a></li> <li><a id="2"></a></li> <li><a id="3"></a></li> <li><a id="4"></a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="main"> <div id="left-content"> </div> <div id="main-content"> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html> Jquery var cc = { displayAnim : function () { actionLink = $("#container #header #navigation li a"); movePosition = "0"; $("#container a.page-link").css({ position:"absolute", right: 0}); $(actionLink).hoverIntent( function() { circleToReveal = $(this).attr('id'); switch (circleToReveal) { case "1" : movePostion = "386" break; case "2" : moveposition = "514" break; case "3" : movePosition = "643" break; case "4" : movePosition = "400" break; default : movePosition = "772" }; /* console.log(movePosition); */ $("#container #anim-" +circleToReveal+ "").stop().animate({"right": "+="+ movePosition +"px"}, "slow"); }, function() { $("#container #anim-" +circleToReveal+ "").stop().animate({"right": "-="+ movePosition +"px"}, "slow"); } ); } }; $(window).load (function () { $("body").addClass('js'); $("a.pagelink").hide(); cc.displayAnim(); });

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  • Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

    - by ChrisJamesC
    I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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  • Sync services not actually syncing

    - by Paul Mrozowski
    I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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  • Why the parent page get refreshed when I click the link to open thickbox-styled form?

    - by user333205
    Hi, all: I'm using Thickbox 3.1 to show signup form. The form content comes from jquery ajax post. The jquery lib is of version 1.4.2. I placed a "signup" link into a div area, which is a part of my other large pages, and the whole content of that div area is ajax+posted from my server. To make thickbox can work in my above arangement, I have modified the thickbox code a little like that: //add thickbox to href & area elements that have a class of .thickbox function tb_init(domChunk){ $(domChunk).live('click', function(){ var t = this.title || this.name || null; var a = this.href || this.alt; var g = this.rel || false; tb_show(t,a,g); this.blur(); return false; });} This modification is the only change against the original version. Beacause the "signup" link is placed in ajaxed content, so I Use live instead of binding the click event directly. When I tested on my pc, the thickbox works well. I can see the signup form quickly, without feeling the content of the parent page(here, is the other large pages) get refreshed. But after transmiting my site files into VHost, when I click the "signup" link, the signup form get presented very slowly. The large pages get refreshed evidently, because the borwser(ie6) are reloading images from server incessantly. These images are set as background images in CSS files. I think that's because the slow connection of network. But why the parent pages get refreshed? and why the browser reloads those images one more time? Havn't those images been placed in local computer's disk? Is there one way to stop that reloadding? Because the signup form can't get displayed sometimes due to slow connection of network. To verified the question, you can access http://www.juliantec.info/track-the-source.html and click the second link in left grey area, that is the "signup" link mentioned above. Thinks!

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  • unable to trigger event in IE during clonning

    - by Abhimanyu
    Following is the code which will clone a set of div with their events(onclick) which is working fine for FF but in case of IE it is not firing events associated with each div. <html> <head> <style type='text/css'> .firstdiv{ border:1px solid red; } </style> <script language="JavaScript"> function show_tooltip(idx,condition,ev) { alert(idx +"=="+condition+"=="+ev); } function createCloneNode () { var cloneObj = document.getElementById("firstdiv").cloneNode(true); document.getElementById("maindiv").appendChild(cloneObj); } function init(){ var mainDiv = document.createElement("div"); mainDiv.id = 'maindiv'; var firstDiv = document.createElement("div"); firstDiv.id ='firstdiv'; firstDiv.className ='firstdiv'; for(var j=0;j<4;j++) { var summaryDiv = document.createElement("div"); summaryDiv.id = "sDiv"+j summaryDiv.className ='summaryDiv'; summaryDiv.onmouseover = function() {this.setAttribute("style","text-decoration:underline;cursor:pointer;");} summaryDiv.onmouseout = function() {this.setAttribute("style","text-decoration:none;");} summaryDiv.setAttribute("onclick", "show_tooltip("+j+",'view_month',event)"); summaryDiv.innerHTML = 'Div'+j; firstDiv.appendChild(summaryDiv); } mainDiv.appendChild(firstDiv); var secondDiv = document.createElement("div"); var linkDiv = document.createElement("div"); linkDiv.innerHTML ='create clone of above element'; linkDiv.onclick = function() { createCloneNode(); } secondDiv.appendChild(linkDiv); mainDiv.appendChild(secondDiv); document.body.appendChild(mainDiv); } </script> </head> <body> <script language="JavaScript"> init() </script> </body> </html> can anybody tell me whats the problem in above code please correct me..

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  • Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

    - by John Virgolino
    We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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  • position:absolute within border-radius and overflow:hidden

    - by JaNightmare
    I had a problem with border-radius in webkit browsers and found the solution at the following URL: How to make CSS3 rounded corners hide overflow in Chrome/Opera but iam using a another element with position: absolute; inside this now I need to make the caption with rounded border too, but do not know how note: i can't use another border-radius in caption, because this will have an animation see the code with: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Problem</title> <style type="text/css"> img { border: 0; } a { text-decoration: none; } .wrap-events { float: left; position: relative; width: 500px; height: 250px; } .events { overflow: hidden; -webkit-border-radius: 50px; -moz-border-radius: 50px; border-radius: 50px; } .caption { position: absolute; width: 100%; bottom: 0; color: #FFFFFF; background-color: #151515; font: 12px "Arial", Helvetica, sans-serif; opacity: 0.6; border-radius: 0 0 50px 50px; /* add border-radius to caption */ } .caption p { padding: 10px; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="wrap-events"> <div class="events"> <a href="#"> <img src="http://www.cg-auto.com.br/forum/imagens/imagens_news/26c4dc4359edcfd4c6871ee1fa958539.jpg" alt="image"> </a> <div class="caption"> <p>This is a caption</p> </div> </div> </div> <button id="slide">Slide It!</button> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#slide').click(function(){ $('.caption').hide().slideDown(2000); }); </script> </body> </html> cheers

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