Search Results

Search found 89673 results on 3587 pages for 'code conversion'.

Page 925/3587 | < Previous Page | 921 922 923 924 925 926 927 928 929 930 931 932  | Next Page >

  • UIImageView Fade-In Dissapears

    - by Winder
    I have this code which should create a splash image with either no animation or a fade in, then call code to dismiss the image out after a delay. The SplashViewAnimationNone works fine and creates the full screen image, but the Fade code fades the image in but then immediately disappears. - (void)startSplash { [[[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] objectAtIndex:0] addSubview:self]; splashImage = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:self.image]; if (self.animationIn == SplashViewAnimationNone) { [self addSubview:splashImage]; } else if (self.animationIn == SplashViewAnimationFade) { [self addSubview:splashImage]; CABasicAnimation *animSplash = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; animSplash.duration = self.animationDelay; animSplash.removedOnCompletion = NO; animSplash.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; animSplash.fromValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.0]; animSplash.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]; animSplash.delegate = self; [self.layer addAnimation:animSplash forKey:@"animateOpacity"]; } // Dismiss after delay. [self performSelector:@selector(dismissSplash) withObject:self afterDelay:self.delay]; }

    Read the article

  • How to increase PermGen memory for eclipselink StaticWeaveAntTask

    - by rayd09
    We are using Eclipselink and need to weave the code in order for lazy fetching to work property. During the weave process I'm getting the following error: weave: BUILD FAILED java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: PermGen space I have the following tasks within my ant build file: <target name="define_weave_task" description="task definition for EclipseLink static weaving"> <taskdef name="eclipse_weave" classname="org.eclipse.persistence.tools.weaving.jpa.StaticWeaveAntTask"/> </target> <target name="weave" depends="compile,define_weave_task" description="weave eclipselink code into compiled classes"> <eclipse_weave source="${path.classes}" target="${path.classes}"> <classpath refid="compile.classpath"/> </eclipse_weave> </target> It has been working great for a long time. Now that the amount of code to be woven has increased I'm getting the PermGen error. I would like to be able to up the amount of perm space. If I was doing a compile I would be able to up the perm space via a compiler argument such as <compilerarg value="-XX:MaxPermSize=256M"/> but this does not appear to be a valid argument for eclipselink weaving. How can I up the perm space for the weave?

    Read the article

  • What caused the rails application crash?

    - by so1o
    I'm sure someone can explain this. we have an application that has been in production for an year. recently we saw an increase in number of support requests for people having difficulty signing into the system. after scratching our head because we couldn't recreate the problem in development, we decided we'll switch on debug logger in production for a month. that was june 5th. application worked fine with the above change and we were waiting. then yesterday we noticed that the log files were getting huge so we made another change in production config.logger = Logger.new("#{RAILS_ROOT}/log/production.log", 50, 1048576) after this change, the application started crashing while processing a particular file. this particular line of code was RAILS_DEFAULT_LOGGER.info "Payment Information Request: ", request.inspect as you can see there was a comma instead of a plus sign. this piece of code was introduced in Mar. the question is this: why did the application fail now? if changing the debug level caused the application to process this line of code it should have started failing on june 5th! why today. please someone help us. Are we missing the obvious here? if you dont have an answer, at least let us know we aren't the only one that are bonkers.

    Read the article

  • What limits scaling in this simple OpenMP program?

    - by Douglas B. Staple
    I'm trying to understand limits to parallelization on a 48-core system (4xAMD Opteron 6348, 2.8 Ghz, 12 cores per CPU). I wrote this tiny OpenMP code to test the speedup in what I thought would be the best possible situation (the task is embarrassingly parallel): // Compile with: gcc scaling.c -std=c99 -fopenmp -O3 #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> int main(){ const uint64_t umin=1; const uint64_t umax=10000000000LL; double sum=0.; #pragma omp parallel for reduction(+:sum) for(uint64_t u=umin; u<umax; u++) sum+=1./u/u; printf("%e\n", sum); } I was surprised to find that the scaling is highly nonlinear. It takes about 2.9s for the code to run with 48 threads, 3.1s with 36 threads, 3.7s with 24 threads, 4.9s with 12 threads, and 57s for the code to run with 1 thread. Unfortunately I have to say that there is one process running on the computer using 100% of one core, so that might be affecting it. It's not my process, so I can't end it to test the difference, but somehow I doubt that's making the difference between a 19~20x speedup and the ideal 48x speedup. To make sure it wasn't an OpenMP issue, I ran two copies of the program at the same time with 24 threads each (one with umin=1, umax=5000000000, and the other with umin=5000000000, umax=10000000000). In that case both copies of the program finish after 2.9s, so it's exactly the same as running 48 threads with a single instance of the program. What's preventing linear scaling with this simple program?

    Read the article

  • jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

    - by Ben
    Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • Why does the answer print out twice?

    - by rEgonicS
    I made a program that returns the product a*b*c where a,b,c are pythagorean triples and add up to 1000. The program does output the correct answer but does it twice. I was curious as to why this is so.After playing around with it a bit I found out that it prints out when a = 200 b = 375 c = 425. And once again when a = 375 b = 200 c = 425. *How do you put your code into a "code" block? It does it automatically for part of the code but as you can see the top portion and bottom line is left out. bool isPythagTriple(int a, int b, int c); int main() { for(int a = 1; a < 1000; a++) { for(int b = 1; b < 1000; b++) { for(int c = 1; c < 1000; c++) { if( ((a+b+c)==1000) && isPythagTriple(a,b,c) ) { cout << a*b*c << " "; break; } } } } return 0; } bool isPythagTriple(int a, int b, int c) { if( (a*a)+(b*b)-(c*c) == 0 ) return true; else return false; }

    Read the article

  • How to fix error - "@interface interfaceName : someEnumeration" gives error "cannot find interface '

    - by Paul V
    How can I solve "cannot find interface declaration 'someEnumeration', superclass of 'interfaceName'" error? What steps will reproduce the problem? Compiling Wsdl2ObjC Targeting groupwise.wsdl file Fixing non-valid file names of output csource code like ".h" + ".m" and objects inside source files Moving up one of the @interface BEFORE it was used futher in code! What is the expected output? Something working What do you see instead? 33 errors. "Inherited" from only 3 similar Inheritances of a typedef enum object by a class. All errors are typical: typedef enum types_StatusTrackingOptions { types_StatusTrackingOptions_none = 0, types_StatusTrackingOptions_None, types_StatusTrackingOptions_Delivered, types_StatusTrackingOptions_DeliveredAndOpened, types_StatusTrackingOptions_All, } types_StatusTrackingOptions; types_StatusTrackingOptions types_StatusTrackingOptions_enumFromString(NSString *string); NSString * types_StatusTrackingOptions_stringFromEnum(types_StatusTrackingOptions enumValue); @interface types_StatusTracking : types_StatusTrackingOptions { ... and here I'm having error "cannot find interface declaration for 'types_StatusTrackingOptions', superclass of 'types_StatusTracking'". What version of the product are you using? On what operating system? Wsdl2ObjC - rev 168, OS - Mac OS X 10.6.2, iPhone SDK - 3.2, Simulator - v. 3.1.2 - 3.1.3, wsdl - for GroupWise v.8, NDK released 2008-12-23, wsdl and xsd files are attached. P.S. GroupWise.wsdl + .xsd files could be downloaded from http://code.google.com/p/wsdl2objc/issues/detail?id=99

    Read the article

  • Chrome targeted CSS

    - by Chris
    I have some CSS code that hides the cursor on a web page (it is a client facing static screen with no interaction). The code I use to do this is below: *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } Blank.cur is a totally blank cursor file. This code works perfectly well in all browsers when I host the web files on my local server but when I upload to a Windows CE webserver (our production unit) the cursor represents itself as a black box. Odd. After some testing it seems that chrome only has a problem with totally blank cursor files when served from WinCE web server, so I created a blank cursor with one pixel as white, specifically for chrome. How do I then target this CSS rule to chrome specifically? i.e. *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } <!--[if CHROME]> *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blankChrome.cur'), pointer; } <![endif]-->

    Read the article

  • asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

    - by user1566209
    I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

    Read the article

  • Batch File to Delete Folders

    - by Homebrew
    I found some code to delete folders, in this case deleting all but 'n' # of folders. I created 10 test folders, plus 1 that was already there. I want to delete all but 4. The code works, it leaves 4 of my test folders, except that it also leaves the other folder. Is there some attribute of the other folder that's getting checked in the batch file that's stopping it from getting deleted ? It was created through a job a couple of weeks ago. Here's the code I stole (but don't really understand the details): rem DOS - Delete Folders if # folders > n @Echo Off :: User Variables :: Set this to the number of folders you want to keep Set _NumtoKeep=4 :: Set this to the folder that contains the folders to check and delete Set _Path=C:\MyFolder_Temp\FolderTest If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Del "%temp%\tf}1{" PushD %_Path% Set _s=%_NumtoKeep% If %_NumtoKeep%==1 set _s=single For /F "tokens=* skip=%_NumtoKeep%" %%I In ('dir "%_Path%" /AD /B /O-D /TW') Do ( If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" ( Echo %%I:%%~fI >>"%temp%\tf}1{" ) Else ( Echo.>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo Do you wish to delete the following folders?>>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo Date Name>>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo %%I:%%~fI >>"%temp%\tf}1{" )) PopD If Not Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Echo No Folders Found to delete & Goto _Done Type "%temp%\tf}1{" | More Set _rdflag= /q Goto _Removeold Set _rdflag= :_Removeold For /F "tokens=1* skip=3 Delims=:" %%I In ('type "%temp%\tf}1{"') Do ( If "%_rdflag%"=="" Echo Deleting rd /s%_rdflag% "%%J") :_Done If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Del "%temp%\tf}1{"

    Read the article

  • Is there any other way of using signed applets

    - by 640KB
    Hi There, If I want to deploy high privileged applets they need to be signed. For that a certificate is created and then a jar file is signed with a jarsigner. After that in the HTML code one has to specify code,codebase AND archive (jar) which we signed before. However I wrote a servlet which acts as two things: it sits at the URL pointed by the codebase and serves class bytecode to the applet. The same servlet also uses serialization to communicate with the applet whereby whenever the applet gets a class it does not know it goes to the codebase which ends up back at the servlet. Almost like a mini RMI setup but simpler. I hope you can see the power in this. Unfortunately for signed applets one needs the archive. Now the servlet is also able to load a Certificate object and can send it to the applet too. So here is the setup: At one point the applet receives class bytecode and it also has the Certificate. It would be nice if the applet could instantiate all received classes using that certificate (otherwise code from jar is signed and outside is not which prompts nasty messages to the user). So my question to you fine Java aficionados: Would there by any way for me to use the bytecode data and the Certificate to instantiate the class as a signed object so that the plugin pops the Security dialog, accepts teh certificate and elevates the object's privileges. What I could find is that the there is a class CodeSource that accepts codebase URL and certificate and is essential to the signing process. What I am not sure is how one could intercept the class loading inside applets to install additional certificates not obtained through a JAR file via archive. What do you say? Thanks a bunch.

    Read the article

  • need help with Java solution /newbie

    - by Racket
    Hi, I'm new to programming in general so i'm trying to be as specific as possible in this question. There's this book that i'm doing some exercises on. I managed to do more than half of what they say, but it's just one input that I have been struggling to find out. I'll write the question and thereafter my code, "Write an application that creates and prints a random phone number of the form XXX-XXX-XXXX. Include the dashes in the output. Do not let the first three digits contain an 8 or 9 (but don't be more restrictive than that), and make sure that the second set of three digits is not greater than 742. Hint: Think through the easiest way to construct the phone number. Each diigit does not have to be determined separately." OK, the highlighted sentence is what i'm looking at. Here's my code: import java.util.Random; public class PP33 { public static void main (String[] args) { Random rand = new Random(); int num1, num2, num3; num1 = rand.nextInt(900) + 100; num2 = rand.nextInt(643) + 100; num3 = rand.nextInt(9000) + 1000; System.out.println(num1+"-"+num2+"-"+num3); } } How am I suppose to do this? I'm on chapter 3 so we have not yet discussed if statements etcetera, but Aliases, String class, Packages, Import declaration, Random Class, Math Class, Formatting output (decimal- & numberFormat), Printf, Enumeration & Wrapper classes + autoboxing. So consider answer the question based only on these assumptions, please. The code doesn't have any errors. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Why does GetWindowThreadProcessId return 0 when called from a service

    - by Marve
    When using the following class in a console application, and having at least one instance of Notepad running, GetWindowThreadProcessId correctly returns a non-zero thread id. However, if the same code is included in a Windows Service, GetWindowThreadProcessId always returns 0 and no exceptions are thrown. Changing the user the service launches under to be the same as the one running the console application didn't alter the result. What causes GetWindowThreadProcessId to return 0 even if it is provided with a valid hwnd? And why does it function differently in the console application and the service? Note: I am running Windows 7 32-bit and targeting .NET 3.5. public class TestClass { [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr ProcessId); public void AttachToNotepad() { var processesToAttachTo = Process.GetProcessesByName("Notepad") foreach (var process in processesToAttachTo) { var threadID = GetWindowThreadProcessId(process.MainWindowHandle, IntPtr.Zero); .... } } } Console Code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var testClass = new TestClass(); testClass.AttachToNotepad(); } } Service Code: public class TestService : ServiceBase { private TestClass testClass = new TestClass(); static void Main() { ServiceBase.Run(new TestService()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { testClass.AttachToNotepad(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { ... } }

    Read the article

  • Java ternary operator and boxing Integer/int?

    - by Markus
    I tripped across a really strange NullPointerException the other day caused by an unexpected type-cast in the ternary operator. Given this (useless exemplary) function: Integer getNumber() { return null; } I was expecting the following two code segments to be exactly identical after compilation: Integer number; if (condition) { number = getNumber(); } else { number = 0; } vs. Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; . Turns out, if condition is true, the if-statement works fine, while the ternary opration in the second code segment throws a NullPointerException. It seems as though the ternary operation has decided to type-cast both choices to int before auto-boxing the result back into an Integer!?! In fact, if I explicitly cast the 0 to Integer, the exception goes away. In other words: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; is not the same as: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : (Integer) 0; . So, it seems that there is a byte-code difference between the ternary operator and an equivalent if-else-statement (something I didn't expect). Which raises three questions: Why is there a difference? Is this a bug in the ternary implementation or is there a reason for the type cast? Given there is a difference, is the ternary operation more or less performant than an equivalent if-statement (I know, the difference can't be huge, but still)?

    Read the article

  • clicking browser back button is opening a link in the previous page.

    - by Jebli
    I am using the below code protected void lnk_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { string strlink = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["link"].ToString().Trim(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("<script type = 'text/javascript'>"); sb.Append("window.open('"); sb.Append(strlink); sb.Append("');"); sb.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "script", sb.ToString()); } } In the page there are two links. When i click the first link it opens a window in a new page. I do this by using the above code. I am clicking the second link in the page and navigating to another page. Now i am clicking the browser back button. Supprisingly its opening the first link. How clicking back button is opening the link in the page. I am using c# .net 2005. Please help. Thanks. Regards,enter code here Radha A

    Read the article

  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Jquery to hightlight elements in a list

    - by John
    Hi I have a ol list: <ol> <li class="group1">item 1</li> <li class="group1">item 2</li> <li class="group2"> item 3</li> <li class="group3">item 4</li> <li class="group1">item 5</li> <li class="group3"> item 6</li> <ol> and a set of checkboxes which correspond to the class names <input type="checkbox" value="group1" />group 1 <input type="checkbox" value="group2" />group 2 <input type="checkbox" value="group3" />group 3 What I want to happen is that when a user clicks on a checkbox to 'tick' it, any li rows which are not checked are fadedOut (change opacity) and then any rows which have the class which matches the value of the checkbox are highlighter (background colour changed to yellow). So for example if group 3 was clicked, item 4 and item 6 would be highlighted. Then if group 2 was clicked item 3 would be highlighted (item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted). If group 2 was un-ticked, item 3 would become faded out although item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted. The code I have at the moment is: $('input').click(function(){ input = $(this); classVal = "." + input.val(); elements = $(classVal ); if (input.is(':checked')) { elements.css("background-color", "#FFFF00"); } else { elements.css("background-color", ""); } }); This handles the highlighting but does not do the fading of the unchecked elements. I know I can change the opacity using css("opacity", 0.33) or fadeTo("slow", 0.33) but not sure how to handle this in the code and where to put it. If any of my other code can be tidied up also please let me know Thanks

    Read the article

  • calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

    - by Eyla
    I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

    Read the article

  • response.redirect to classic asp failing

    - by jeff
    I have the following code pasted below. For some reason, the response.redirect seems to be failing and it is maxing out the cpu on my server and just doesn't do anything. The .net code uploads the file fine, but does not redirect to the asp page to do the processing. I know this is absolute rubbish why would you have .net code redirecting to classic asp, it is a legacy app. I have tried putting false or true etc. at the end of the redirect as I have read other people have had issues with this. Please help as it's driving me insane! It's so strange, it runs locally on my machine but won't run on my server! public void btnUploadTheFile_Click(object Source, EventArgs evArgs) { //need to check that the uploaded file is an xls file. string strFileNameOnServer = "PJI3.txt"; string strBaseLocation = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["str_file_location"]; if ("" == strFileNameOnServer) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error - a file name must be specified."; return; } if (null != uplTheFile.PostedFile) { try { uplTheFile.PostedFile.SaveAs(strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer); txtOutput.InnerHtml = "File <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b> uploaded successfully"; Response.Redirect ("/COBRA/pages/sap_import_pji3_prc.asp"); } catch (Exception e) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error saving <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b><br>"+ e.ToString(); } } }

    Read the article

  • How to encapsulate a third party complex object structure?

    - by tangens
    Motivation Currently I'm using the java parser japa to create an abstract syntax tree (AST) of a java file. With this AST I'm doing some code generation (e.g.: if there's an annotation on a method, create some other source files, ...) Problem When my code generation becomes more complex, I've to dive deeper into the structure of the AST (e.g. I have to use visitors to extract some type information of method parameters). But I'm not sure if I want to stay with japa or if I will change the parser library later. Because my code generator uses freemarker (which isn't good at automatic refactoring) I want the interface that it uses to access the AST information to be stable, even if I decide to change the java parser. Question What's the best way to encapsulate complex datastructures of third party libraries? I could create my own datatypes and copy the parts of the AST that I need into these. I could create lots of specialized access methods that work with the AST and create exactly the infos I need (e.g. the fully qualified return type of a method as one string, or the first template parameter of a class). I could create wrapper classes for the japa datastructures I currently need and embed the japa types inside, so that I can delegate requests to the japa types and transform the resulting japa types to my wrapper classes again. Which solution should I take? Are there other (better) solutions to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Linq - How to collect Anonymous Type as Result for a Function

    - by GibboK
    I use c# 4 asp.net and EF 4. I'm precompiling a query, the result should be a collection of Anonymous Type. At the moment I use this code. public static readonly Func<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, dynamic> queryContentsList = CompiledQuery.Compile<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, dynamic> ( (ctx, TypeContent) => ctx.CmsContents.Where(c => c.TypeContent == TypeContent & c.IsPublished == true & c.IsDeleted == false) .Select(cnt => new { cnt.Title, cnt.TitleUrl, cnt.ContentId, cnt.TypeContent, cnt.Summary } ) .OrderByDescending(c => c.ContentId)); I suspect the RETURN for the FUNCTION Dynamic does not work properly and I get this error Sequence contains more than one element enter code here. I suppose I need to return for my function a Collection of Anonymous Types... Do you have any idea how to do it? What I'm doing wrong? Please post a sample of code thanks! Update: public class ConcTypeContents { public string Title { get; set; } public string TitleUrl { get; set; } public int ContentId { get; set; } public string TypeContent { get; set; } public string Summary { get; set; } } public static readonly Func<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, ConcTypeContents> queryContentsList = CompiledQuery.Compile<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, ConcTypeContents>( (ctx, TypeContent) => ctx.CmsContents.Where(c => c.TypeContent == TypeContent & c.IsPublished == true & c.IsDeleted == false) .Select(cnt => new ConcTypeContents { cnt.Title, cnt.TitleUrl, cnt.ContentId, cnt.TypeContent, cnt.Summary }).OrderByDescending(c => c.ContentId));

    Read the article

  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Java: How to make this main thread wait for the new thread to terminate

    - by Jeff Bullard
    I have a java class that creates a process, called child, using ProcessBuilder. The child process generates a lot of output that I am draining on a separate thread to keep the main thread from getting blocked. However, a little later on I need to wait for the output thread to complete/terminate before going on, and I'm not sure how to do that. I think that join() is the usual way to do this but I'm not sure how to do that in this case. Here is the relevant part of the java code. // Capture output from process called child on a separate thread final StringBuffer outtext = new StringBuffer(""); new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { InputStream in = null; in = child.getInputStream(); try { if (in != null) { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String line = reader.readLine(); while ((line != null)) { outtext.append(line).append("\n"); ServerFile.appendUserOpTextFile(userName, opname, outfile, line+"\n"); line = reader.readLine(); } } } catch (IOException iox) { throw new RuntimeException(iox); } } }).start(); // Write input to for the child process on this main thread // String intext = ServerFile.readUserOpTextFile(userName, opname, infile); OutputStream out = child.getOutputStream(); try { out.write(intext.getBytes()); out.close(); } catch (IOException iox) { throw new RuntimeException(iox); } // ***HERE IS WHERE I NEED TO WAIT FOR THE THREAD TO FINISH *** // Other code goes here that needs to wait for outtext to get all // of the output from the process // Then, finally, when all the remaining code is finished, I return // the contents of outtext return outtext.toString();

    Read the article

  • How to check what goes wrong in $view->render with Zend Framework?

    - by koko
    Hi, I'm working on a CMS with Widgets. On my localhost the followong code works perfect, but I have no idea what I'm doing wrong ... The neede files exist, I think and I get no error message. As far as I can see, the error occurs in the one before last line of code and I get no error message. $view = new Zend_View(); $view->setScriptPath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../public/websites/' . My_Cookie::get('alpha_key') . '/views'); $view->headScript()->appendFile($vervang['conf']['jqueryJS']); $view->headLink()->appendStylesheet($vervang['conf']['jqueryCSS']); $view->class = $pluginExtraFinal; $view->vervang = $vervang['data']; $view->moduleName = $moduleName; $parsed = $view->render($vervang['conf']['viewFile']); $inhoud = str_replace($plugin, $parsed, $inhoud); Is there a way to troubleshoot this code? How can I get an error message? What can be wrong? Any suggestions please?

    Read the article

  • Doing without partial commits the "Mercurial way"

    - by David Moles
    Subversion shop considering switching to Mercurial, trying to figure out in advance what all the complaints from developers are going to be. There's one fairly common use case here that I can't see how to handle. I'm working on some largish feature, and I have a significant part of the code -- or possibly several significant parts of the code -- in pieces all over the garage floor, totally unsuitable for checkin, maybe not even compiling. An urgent bugfix request comes in. The fix is nice and local and doesn't touch any of the code I've been working on. I make the fix in my working copy. Now what? I've looked at "Mercurial cherry picking changes for commit" and "best practices in mercurial: branch vs. clone, and partial merges?" and all the suggestions seem to be extensions of varying complexity, from Record and Shelve to Queues. The fact that there apparently isn't any core functionality for this makes me suspect that in some sense this working style is Doing It Wrong. What would a Mercurial-like solution to this use case look like?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 921 922 923 924 925 926 927 928 929 930 931 932  | Next Page >