Search Results

Search found 2798 results on 112 pages for 'pull'.

Page 93/112 | < Previous Page | 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible, in a django template, to check if an object is contained in a list

    - by AlexH
    I'm very new to django, about a week into it. I'm making a site where users enter stuff, then other users can vote on whether they like the stuff or not. I know it's not so novel, but it's a good project to learn a bunch of tools. I have a many-to-many table for storing who likes or dislikes what. Before I render the page, I pull out all the likes and dislikes for the current user, along with the stuff I'm going to show on the page. When I render the page, I go through the list of stuff I'm going to show and print them out one at a time. I want to show the user which stuff they liked, and which they didn't. So in my django template, I have an object called entry. I also have two lists of objects called likes and dislikes. Is there any way to determine if entry is a member of either list, inside my django template. I think what I'm looking for is a filter where I can say something like {% if entry|in:likes %} or {% if likes|contains:entry %} I know I could add a method to my model and check for each entry individually, but that seems like it would be database intensive. Is there a better way to think about this problem?

    Read the article

  • Getting Response From Jquery JSON

    - by Howdy_McGee
    I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

    Read the article

  • What files does JDIC need to run?

    - by Domchi
    I'm trying to call JDIC from my application, but I can't get it to run. What files do I need and where? From what I've been able to gather from their site, I basically need to put jdic.jar in classpath... however there is also a lib folder with jdic.jar with a bit different size, and jdic_native_applet.jar, jdic_stub_unix.jar, jdic_stub_windows.jar and several folders with what I gather are platform specific files. I get this exception when instantiating AssociationService: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.internal.AppAssociationReaderFactory_windows at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.AssociationService.<init>(Unknown Source) at QuickTest.main(QuickTest.java:101) I've tried last "official" release and last alpha release. I'm running Java 6 and Win7 64bit. Does JDIC even work under Win7 (or 64bit, although I use 32bit Java)? I see no release after 2006, and no activity in the project after about 2008... while Win7 came in 2009. I know that parts of JDIC, like Desktop, were included in Java 6, however that doesn't seem to be the case with file associations. And if it doesn't, are there any (hopefully cross-platform) alternatives for managing file associations? There are some things for Windows only that I tried, but that requires running native commands with administrator privileges which I don't know how to pull, apart from asking user to run my app as administrator and then use Runtime.exec()... If there are no alternatives to JDIC, I'm interested if anyone has managed to handle file associations well with cross-platform installers?

    Read the article

  • Can I use encrypt web.config with a custom protection provider who's assembly is not in the GAC?

    - by James
    I have written a custom protected configuration provider for my web.config. When I try to encrypt my web.config with it I get the following error from aspnet_iisreg aspnet_regiis.exe -pef appSettings . -prov CustomProvider (This is running in my MSBuild) Could not load file or assembly 'MyCustomProviderNamespace' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. After checking with the Fusion log, I confirm it is checking both the GAC, and 'C:/WINNT/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/' (the location of aspnet_iisreg). But it cannot find the provider. I do not want to move my component into the GAC, I want to leave the custom assembly in my ApplicationBase to copy around to various servers without having to pull/push from the GAC. Here is my provider configuration in the web.config. <configProtectedData> <providers> <add name="CustomProvider" type="MyCustomProviderNamespace.MyCustomProviderClass, MyCustomProviderNamespace" /> </providers> </configProtectedData> Has anyone got any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Evenly distribute data into columns with JavaScript

    - by marius.cdm
    I'm looking for a way to evenly distribute my JSON data into HTML columns. Using javascript to pull the data $.ajax({ url: "url", dataType: 'json', data: "e="+escape(divID), cache: true, success: function(data) { var items = data; // ??? $('.result').html(list); } }); Input data: ["A", "B", "C", "D", "E", "F", "G", "H", "I", "J", "K"] Expected result: <ul> <li>A</li> <li>B</li> <li>C</li> <li>D</li> </ul> <ul> <li>E</li> <li>F</li> <li>G</li> <li>H</li> </ul> <ul> <li>I</li> <li>J</li> <li>K</li> </ul> I found a partial result here, but the output data is in console. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using list() to extract a data.table inside of a function

    - by Nathan VanHoudnos
    I must admit that the data.table J syntax confuses me. I am attempting to use list() to extract a subset of a data.table as a data.table object as described in Section 1.4 of the data.table FAQ, but I can't get this behavior to work inside of a function. An example: require(data.table) ## Setup some test data set.seed(1) test.data <- data.table( X = rnorm(10), Y = rnorm(10), Z = rnorm(10) ) setkey(test.data, X) ## Notice that I can subset the data table easily with literal names test.data[, list(X,Y)] ## X Y ## 1: -0.8356286 -0.62124058 ## 2: -0.8204684 -0.04493361 ## 3: -0.6264538 1.51178117 ## 4: -0.3053884 0.59390132 ## 5: 0.1836433 0.38984324 ## 6: 0.3295078 1.12493092 ## 7: 0.4874291 -0.01619026 ## 8: 0.5757814 0.82122120 ## 9: 0.7383247 0.94383621 ## 10: 1.5952808 -2.21469989 I can even write a function that will return a column of the data.table as a vector when passed the name of a column as a character vector: get.a.vector <- function( my.dt, my.column ) { ## Step 1: Convert my.column to an expression column.exp <- parse(text=my.column) ## Step 2: Return the vector return( my.dt[, eval(column.exp)] ) } get.a.vector( test.data, 'X') ## [1] -0.8356286 -0.8204684 -0.6264538 -0.3053884 0.1836433 0.3295078 ## [7] 0.4874291 0.5757814 0.7383247 1.5952808 But I cannot pull a similar trick for list(). The inline comments are the output from the interactive browser() session. get.a.dt <- function( my.dt, my.column ) { ## Step 1: Convert my.column to an expression column.exp <- parse(text=my.column) ## Step 2: Enter the browser to play around browser() ## Step 3: Verity that a literal X works: my.dt[, list(X)] ## << not shown >> ## Step 4: Attempt to evaluate the parsed experssion my.dt[, list( eval(column.exp)] ## Error in `rownames<-`(`*tmp*`, value = paste(format(rn, right = TRUE), (from data.table.example.R@1032mCJ#7) : ## length of 'dimnames' [1] not equal to array extent return( my.dt[, list(eval(column.exp))] ) } get.a.dt( test.data, "X" ) What am I missing? Update: Due to some confusion as to why I would want to do this I wanted to clarify. My use case is when I need to access a data.table column when when I generate the name. Something like this: set.seed(2) test.data[, X.1 := rnorm(10)] which.column <- 'X' new.column <- paste(which.column, '.1', sep="") get.a.dt( test.data, new.column ) Hopefully that helps.

    Read the article

  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Git repositories on shared hosting with ssh access - multiple users / one ssh account

    - by acp
    I'm part of a small team trying to start coding on a project. I've decided it's time to give git a chance (no more svn) and was trying to see if we could use our shared web hosting to deploy a "public" repository there so that we can easily push/pull to/from it and keep up-to-date with each others changes. The problem I'm having now is that we only have a single ssh account for that hosting. Having used svn in the past, I could enforce a svn username on a given pair of ssh keys, however I don't seem to be able to do something similar with git (in other words tie the ssh keypair to a specific dev). I don't mind everybody having read/write permissions everywhere, since anything that is private should stay on each others machine. Finally, solutions such as gitosis can not be used. I guess my question to you is how is accountability to git pushes given? Is it tied to the ssh account being used, or the email address given in git config? Can I create different ssh keys for every developer (for the same ssh account though), and just send them to the devs?

    Read the article

  • Can I make an identity field span multiple tables in SQL Server?

    - by johnnycakes
    Can I have an "identity" (unique, non-repeating) column span multiple tables? For example, let's say I have two tables: Books and Authors. Authors AuthorID AuthorName Books BookID BookTitle The BookID column and the AuthorID column are identity columns. I want the identity part to span both columns. So, if there is an AuthorID with a value of 123, then there cannot be a BookID with a value of 123. And vice versa. I hope that makes sense. Is this possible? Thanks. Why do I want to do this? I am writing an APS.NET MVC app. I am creating a comment section. Authors can have comments. Books can have comments. I want to be able to pass an entity ID (a book ID or an author ID) to an action and have the action pull up all the corresponding comments. The action won't care if it's a book or an author or whatever. Sound reasonable?

    Read the article

  • What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

    - by qbxk
    For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

    Read the article

  • jQuery and Ajax

    - by Banderdash
    Can anyone help with a jQuery snippet that would use Ajax to pull an XML file in on page load? Have really clunky way of doing it without jQuery here: <script type="text/javascript"> function loadXMLDoc() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; var txt=""; x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("title"); for (i=0;i<x.length;i++) { txt=txt + x[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue + "<br />"; } document.getElementById("checkedIn").innerHTML=txt; } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajax-response-data.xml",true); xmlhttp.send(); } </script> Ideally rather the having a click generate the list it would do so on page load, showing the fields from the XML (title, author, and whether it is checked in or not i.e. <book id="#" checked-in="0">) Would hug you for a solution.

    Read the article

  • Aligning decimal points in HTML

    - by ijw
    I have a table containing decimal numbers in one column. I'm looking to align them in a manner similar to a word processor's "decimal tab" feature, so that all the points sit on a vertical line. I have two possible solutions at the moment but I'm hoping for something better... Solution 1: Split the numbers within the HTML, e.g. <td><div>1234</div><div class='dp'>.5</div></td> with .dp { width: 3em; } (Yes, this solution doesn't quite work as-is. The concept is, however, valid.) Solution 2: I found mention of <COL ALIGN="CHAR" CHAR="."> This is part of HTML4 according to the reference page, but it doesn't work in FF3.5, Safari 4 or IE7, which are the browsers I have to hand. It also has the problem that you can't pull out the numeric formatting to CSS (although, since it's affecting a whole column, I suppose that's not too surprising). Thus, anyone have a better idea?

    Read the article

  • PHP Pass Dynamic Array name to function

    - by Brad
    How do I pass an array key to a function to pull up the right key's data? // The array <?php $var['TEST1'] = Array ( 'Description' => 'This is a Description', 'Version' => '1.11', 'fields' => Array( 'ID' => array( 'type' => 'int', 'length' =>'11', 'misc' =>'auto_increment' ), 'DATA' => array( 'type' => 'varchar', ' length' => '255' ) ); $var['TEST2'] = Array ( 'Description' =? 'This is the 2nd Description', 'Version' => '2.1', 'fields' => Array( 'ID' => array( 'type' => 'int', 'length' =>'11', 'misc' =>'auto_increment' ), 'DATA' => array( 'type' => 'varchar', ' length' => '255' ) ) // The function <?php $obj = 'TEST1'; print_r($schema[$obj]); // <-- Fives me output. But calling the function doesn't. echo buildStructure($obj); /** * @TODO to add auto_inc support */ function buildStructure($obj) { $output = ''; $primaryKey = $schema["{$obj}"]['primary key']; foreach ($schema["{$obj}"]['fields'] as $name => $tag) // #### ERROR #### Invalid argument supplied for foreach() { $type = $tag['type']; $length = $tag['length']; $default = $tag['default']; $description = $tag['description']; $length = (isset($length)) ? "({$length})" : ''; $default = ($default == NULL ) ? "NULL" : $default; $output .= "`{$name}` {$type}{$length} DEFAULT {$default} COMMENT `{$DESCRIPTION}`, "; } return $output; }

    Read the article

  • Overriding check box in JavaScript with jQuery

    - by Gutzofter
    Help with unit testing checkbox behavior. I have this page: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('<div><input type="checkbox" name="makeHidden" id="makeHidden" checked="checked" />Make Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('<div id="displayer" style="display:none;">Was Hidden</div>').appendTo('body'); $('#makeHidden').click(function() { var isChecked = $(this).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { $('#displayer').hide(); } else { $('#displayer').show(); } return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This doesn't work it is because of the return false; in the click handler. If I remove it it works great. The problem is if I pull the click function out into it's own function and unit test it with qunit it will not work without the return false;

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

    - by AutomatedTester
    I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

    Read the article

  • Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

    - by Scott B
    I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

    Read the article

  • How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

    - by hornairs
    I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Could someone explain gtk2hs drag and drop to me, the listDND.hs demo just isn't doing it for me?

    - by Tom Carstens
    As the title says, I just don't get DND (or rather I understand the concept and I understand the order of callbacks, I just don't understand how to setup DND for actual usage.) I'd like to say that I've done DND stuff before in C, but considering I never really got that working... So I'm trying (and mostly succeeding, save DND) to write a text editor (using gtksourceview, because it has built in code highlighting.) Reasons are below if you want them. Anyways, there's not really a good DND demo or tutorial available for gtk2hs (listDND.hs just doesn't translate well in my head.) So what I'm asking is for code that demonstrates simple DND on a window widget (for example.) Ideally, it should accept drops from other windows (such as Thunar) and print out the information in string form. I think I can take it from there... Reasons: I'm running a fairly light weight setup, dwm and a few gtk+2 programs. I really don't want to have to pull in gtk+3 to get the current gedit from the repos (Arch Linux.) Currently, I'm using geany for all of my text editing needs, however, geany is a bit heavy for editing config files. Further, geany doesn't care for my terminal of choice (st;) so I don't even get the benefit of using it as an IDE. Meaning I'd like a lightweight text editor with syntax highlighting. I could configure emacs or vim or something, but that seems to me to be more of a hack then a proper solution. Thus my project was born. It's mostly working (aside from DND, all that's left is proper multi-tab support.) Admittedly, I could probably work this out if I wrote it in C, but there isn't that much state in a text editor so Haskell's been working fine with almost no need for mutable variables.

    Read the article

  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • #include - brackets vs quotes in XCode?

    - by Chris Becke
    In MSVC++ #include files are searched for differently depending on whether the file is enclosed in "" or <. The quoted form searches first in the local folder, then in /I specified locations, The angle bracket form avoids the local folder. This means, in MSVC++, its possible to have header files with the same name as runtime and SDK headers. So, for example, I need to wrap up the windows sdk windows.h file to undefine some macro's that cause trouble. With MSVS I can just add a (optional) windows.h file to my project as long as I include it using the quoted form :- // some .cpp file #include "windows.h" // will include my local windows.h file And in my windows.h, I can pull in the real one using the angle bracket form: // my windows.h #include <windows.h> // will load the real one #undef ConflictingSymbol Trying this trick with GCC in XCode didn't work. angle bracket #includes in system header files in fact are finding my header files with similar names in my local folder structure. The MSVC system means its quite safe to have a "String.h" header file in my own folder structre. On XCode this seems to be a major no no. Is there some way to control this search path behaviour in XCode to be more like MSVC's? Or do I just have to avoid naming any of my headers anything that might possibly conflict with a system header. Writing cross platform code and using lots of frameworks means the possibility of incidental conflicts seems large.

    Read the article

  • How to check a bool setting in my iphone app

    - by dusk
    I have a setting in Root.plist with Key = 'latestNews' of type PSToggleSwitchSpecifier and DefaultValue as a boolean that is checked. If I understand that correctly, it should = YES when I pull it in to my code. I'm trying to check that value and set an int var to pass it to my php script. What is happening is that my boolean is either nil or NO and then my int var = 0. What am I doing wrong? int latestFlag; NSUserDefaults *prefs = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL latestNews = [prefs boolForKey:@"latestNews"]; if (latestNews) latestFlag = 1; else latestFlag = 0; NSString *urlstr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://www.mysite.com/folder/iphone-test.php?latest=%d", latestFlag]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlstr]; //these are auto-released NSString *ans = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSArray *listItems = [ans componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; self.listData = listItems; [urlstr release]; [url release];

    Read the article

  • How to do an additional search on archive in rails if record not found, by extending model?

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello, I was wondering if somebody knows an elegant solution to the following: Suppose I have a table that holds orders, with a bunch of data. So I'm at 1M records, and searches begin to take time. So I want to speed it up by archiving some data that is more than 3 years old - saving it into a table called orders-archive, and then purging them from the orders table. So if we need to research something or customer wants to pull older information - they still can, but 99% of the lookups are done on the orders no older than a year and a half - so there is no reason to keep looking through older data all the time. These move & purge operations can be then croned to be done on a weekly basis. I already did some tests and I know that I will slash my search times by about 4 times. So far so good, right? However I was thinking about how to implement older archival lookups and the only reasonable thing I can think of is some sort of if-else If not found in orders, do a search in orders-archive. However - I have about 20 tables that I want to archive and god knows how many searches / finds are done through out the code, that I don't want to modify. So I was wondering if there is an elegant rails-way solution to this problem, by extending a model somehow? Has anyone dealt with similar case before? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Refining Search Results [PHP/MySQL]

    - by Dae
    I'm creating a set of search panes that allow users to tweak their results set after submitting a query. We pull commonly occurring values in certain fields from the results and display them in order of their popularity - you've all seen this sort of thing on eBay. So, if a lot of rows in our results were created in 2009, we'll be able to click "2009" and see only rows created in that year. What in your opinion is the most efficient way of applying these filters? My working solution was to discard entries from the results that didn't match the extra arguments, like: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { foreach($_GET as $key => $val) { if($val !== $row[$key]) { continue 2; } } // Output... } This method should hopefully only query the database once in effect, as adding filters doesn't change the query - MySQL can cache and reuse one data set. On the downside it makes pagination a bit of a headache. The obvious alternative would be to build any additional criteria into the initial query, something like: $sql = "SELECT * FROM tbl MATCH (title, description) AGAINST ('$search_term')"; foreach($_GET as $key => $var) { $sql .= " AND ".$key." = ".$var; } Are there good reasons to do this instead? Or are there better options altogether? Maybe a temporary table? Any thoughts much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • PHP - Drilling down Data and Looping with Loops

    - by stogdilla
    I'm currently having difficulty finding a way of making my loops work. I have a table of data with 15 minute values. I need the data to pull up in a few different increments $filters=Array('Yrs','Qtr','Day','60','30','15'); I think I have a way of finding out what I need to be able to drill down to but the issue I'm having is after the first loop to cycle through all the Outter most values (ex: the user says they want to display by Hours, each hour should be able to have a "+" that will then add a new div to display the half hour data, then each half hour data have a "+" to display the 15 minute data upon request. Now I can just program the number of outputs for each value (6 different outputs) just in-case... but isn't there a way I can make it do the drill down for each one in a loop? so I only have to code one output once and have it just check if there are any more intervals after it and check for those? I'm sure I'm just overlooking some very simple way of doing this but my brain isn't being clever today. Sorry in advance if this is a simple solution. I guess the best way I could think of it as a reply on a form. How you would check to see if it's a reply of a reply, and then if that reply has any replys...etc for output. Can anyone help or at least point me in the right direction? Or am I stuck coding each possible check? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • TCP/IP RST being sent differently in different browsers.

    - by Brian
    On Mac OS X (10.6), if I start a YouTube video download and pull the Ethernet cable for 5 or so seconds, then plug it back in, I get varying results depending on the browser. With Opera and Chrome, after I plug the cable back in the video continues to load. But with Safari and Firefox, it never does. Using Wireshark to look at the traffic, I found that Opera and Chrome simply ACK the first packet from YouTube after the cable has been plugged back in, but Safari and Firefox set the RST flag (0x4) in the TCP header and no more traffic follows. I can put a HUB in between the machine and the internet connection, the problem goes away and all four browsers continue loading the video when the cable is plugged back into the HUB. Again, looking at the Wireshark logs, it's evident that the machine doesn't see the Mulitcast connection close and there is simply a delay in the packets flowing through. So it seems that if Safari and Firefox sees a Multicast connection close, and then later see data on that same connection, they will send a RST. My question is why? What is the correct course of action, and why are 2/4 browsers doing it one way, while the other 2/4 are doing it another way? Is there somewhere in the code that I can see where this is happening in Firefox, for instance? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100  | Next Page >