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  • How can I change jtable height at runtime

    - by wniroshan
    I hava a JFrame with multiple JPanels of similar width aligned one below other. I use one of these JPanels to display a JTable which is the last JPanel of the lot. This JPanel has a JScrollpane as a child component. This is where I try to add my table dynamically. Initial height of this JScrollpane is set to 40. I designed above template using Netbeans 6.8 Now I'm trying to add the table to the JPanel. When a button is pressed below code snippet is called. The class which includes this code extends javax.swing.JFrame class. I am expecting below code would adjust table height according to the row count and display the table. SearchTable = new JTable(RowData, DisplayNames) { @Override public boolean isCellEditable(int rowIndex, int vColIndex) { return false; } }; // if row count is less than 10 then display all the rows without a scroll bar if (SearchTable.getRowCount() < 10) { pnl_tblpanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (SearchTable.getRowCount() + 4))); scr_tblholder.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (SearchTable.getRowCount() + 4))); } else {// if row count is more than 10 display first 10 rows and add a scroll bar pnl_tblpanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (10 + 2))); scr_tblholder.setAutoscrolls(true); } //pnl_tblpanel.add(scr_tblholder); scr_tblholder.setViewportView(SearchTable); //pnl_tblpanel.repaint(); pnl_tblpanel.validate(); this.validate(); //this.repaint(); pnl_tblpanel.setVisible(true); this.pack(); The table displays, but the table height is not changed according to the row count. It stays its default value. I have been trying many combinations of validate and repaint but nothing worked. (More in desperation) Can anyone shed some light on this Thank you

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  • Programming logic best practice - redundant checks

    - by eldblz
    I'm creating a large PHP project and I've a trivial doubt about how to proceed. Assume we got a class books, in this class I've the method ReturnInfo: function ReturnInfo($id) { if( is_numeric($id) ) { $query = "SELECT * FROM books WHERE id='" . $id . "' LIMIT 1;"; if( $row = $this->DBDrive->ExecuteQuery($query, $FetchResults=TRUE) ) { return $row; } else { return FALSE; } } else { throw new Exception('Books - ReturnInfo - id not valid.'); } } Then i have another method PrintInfo function PrintInfo($id) { print_r( $this->ReturnInfo($id) ); } Obviously the code sample are just for example and not actual production code. In the second method should I check (again) if id is numeric ? Or can I skip it because is already taken care in the first method and if it's not an exception will be thrown? Till now I always wrote code with redundant checks (no matter if already checked elsewhere i'll check it also here) Is there a best practice? Is just common sense? Thank you in advance for your kind replies.

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  • ASP .NET Button event handlers do not fire on the first click, but on the second click after a PostB

    - by John
    Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers were triggered. On the second click, they fired. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition (within GetAdministrationInterface) public override Control GetAdministrationInterface() { // more code... Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me!"; btn.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); // more code... } Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something } Page_Load Method that calls GetAdministrationInterface protected void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsAsync) { List<AdministrationInterface> interfaces = <DATABASE CALL>; foreach(AdministrationInteface ai in interfaces) { placeholderDiv.Controls.Add(ai.GetAdministrationInterface()); } } }

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  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

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  • HTML input not working correctly with AJAX update panels used else where on page

    - by Sean P
    I have some update panels on my page that do some asyncpostbacks to keep some dropdownlists correctly populated. My problem is that on my page i have an HTML input that is handling some file uploads. With the AJAX on the page with asyncpostbacks, and while i step through my code behind, the files arent being uploaded. Using a postbacktrigger (non-async) is not possible because of my layout. Here is my code: <div id="divFileInputs" runat="server"> <input id="file1" name="fileInput" type="file" runat="server" size="50" style="width: 50em" onfocus="AddFileInput()" class="textbox" /></div> <select id="selectFileList" name="ListBox1" size="5" style="width: 50em; text-align: left;" class="textbox" /> <input id="RemoveAttachmentButton" type="button" value="Remove" onclick="RemoveFileInput()" class="removebutton " /> </div> Here is my code behind: Protected Sub CopyAttachments(ByVal issueId As String) Dim files As HttpFileCollection = Request.Files Dim myStream As System.IO.Stream Dim service As New SubmitService.Service For i As Integer = 0 To files.Count - 1 Dim postedFile As HttpPostedFile = files(i) Dim fileNameWithoutPath As String = System.IO.Path.GetFileName(postedFile.FileName) If fileNameWithoutPath.Length > 0 And issueId.Length > 0 Then Dim fileLength As Integer = postedFile.ContentLength Dim fileContents(fileLength) As Byte ' Read the file into the byte array. Send it to the web service. myStream = postedFile.InputStream myStream.Read(fileContents, 0, fileLength) service.ClearQuestAttachToIssue(issueId, fileNameWithoutPath, fileContents) End If Next service = Nothing End Sub When I put a breakpoint in at the declaration of service and then check the value of "files", the count is 0. I am expecting it to be 2 when i have one file uploaded. Anyone know how to fix this?

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  • Google Chrome is doing things wrong again

    - by Stefan Liebenberg
    Chrome is wrongly reporting width and height values for images during, or just after, load time. Jquery is used in this code example: <img id='image01' alt='picture that is 145x134' src='/images/picture.jpg' /> <script> var img = $( 'img#image01' ) img.width() // would return 145 in Firefox and 0 in Chrome. img.height() // would return 134 in Firefox and 0 in Chrome. </script> If you put the script in a onload function, the result is the same. but if you run the code a few seconds after the page has loaded, chrome returns the correct result. <script> function example () { var img = $( 'img#image01' ); img.width() // returns 145 in both Firefox and Chrome. img.height() // returns 134 in both Firefox and Chrome. } window.setTimeout( example, 1000 ) </script> Also if you specify the width and height values in the img tag, the script seems to work as expected in both Firefox and Chrome. <img id='image01' src='/images/picture.jpg' width=145 height=134 /> But as you cannot always control the html input, this is not an ideal workaround. Can jQuery be patched with a better workaround for this problem? or will I need to specify the width and height for every image in my code?

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  • Item in multiple lists

    - by Evan Teran
    So I have some legacy code which I would love to use more modern techniques. But I fear that given the way that things are designed, it is a non-option. The core issue is that often a node is in more than one list at a time. Something like this: struct T { T *next_1; T *prev_1; T *next_2; T *prev_2; int value; }; this allows the core have a single object of type T be allocated and inserted into 2 doubly linked lists, nice and efficient. Obviously I could just have 2 std::list<T*>'s and just insert the object into both...but there is one thing which would be way less efficient...removal. Often the code needs to "destroy" an object of type T and this includes removing the element from all lists. This is nice because given a T* the code can remove that object from all lists it exists in. With something like a std::list I would need to search for the object to get an iterator, then remove that (I can't just pass around an iterator because it is in several lists). Is there a nice c++-ish solution to this, or is the manually rolled way the best way? I have a feeling the manually rolled way is the answer, but I figured I'd ask.

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  • Rails partial gets double escaped when using link_to_function

    - by dombesz
    Hi, I have the following code. def add_resume_link(name, form) link_to_function name do |page| html = form.fields_for :resumes, @general_resume.resumes.build, :child_index => 'NEW_RECORD' do |form_parent| render :partial => 'resume_form', :locals=>{:form=>form_parent} end page << "$('resumes').insert({ bottom: '#{escape_javascript(html)}'.replace(/NEW_RECORD/g, id) });" end end And on the resume_form i have somewhere: =add_skill_link("Add Skill", form, "resume_#{id}_skills") and the function looks like: def add_skill_link(name, form, id) link_to_function name do |page| html = form.fields_for :skill_items, @general_resume.skill_items.build, :child_index => 'NEW_RECORD' do |form_parent| render :partial=>'skill_form', :locals=>{:form=>form_parent, :parent=>id} end page << "$('#{id}').insert({ bottom: '#{escape_javascript(html)}'.replace(/NEW_RECORD/g, new Date().getTime()) });" end end So basically i have a javascript code which dinamically adds a piece of html (add_resume) and contains another javascript code which dinamically adds a select box to the page. My problem is that the add_skill_link works fine if i use from the server side, i mean rendering from server side. And gets double escaped when using within the upper described way. I tried to remove the escape_javascript from the add_skill_link bit still not good. Any ideas?

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  • Effective communication in a component-based system

    - by Tesserex
    Yes, this is another question about my game engine, which is coming along very nicely, with much thanks to you guys. So, if you watched the video (or didn't), the objects in the game are composed of various components for things like position, sprites, movement, collision, sounds, health, etc. I have several message types defined for "tell" type communication between entities and components, but this only goes so far. There are plenty of times when I just need to ask for something, for example an entity's position. There are dozens of lines in my code that look like this: SomeComponent comp = (SomeComponent)entity.GetComponent(typeof(SomeComponent)); if (comp != null) comp.GetSomething(); I know this is very ugly, and I know that casting smells of improper OO design. But as complex as things are, there doesn't seem to be a better way. I could of course "hard-code" my component types and just have SomeComponent comp = entity.GetSomeComponent(); but that seems like a cop-out, and a bad one. I literally JUST REALIZED, while writing this, after having my code this way for months with no solution, that a generic will help me. SomeComponent comp = entity.GetComponent<SomeComponent>(); Amazing how that works. Anyway, this is still only a semantic improvement. My questions remain. Is this actually that bad? What's a better alternative?

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  • WPF Event Handler in Another Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have built a series of event handlers for some custom WPF controls. The event handles format the text displayed when the user enters or leaves a textbox based on the type of data contained (Phone number, zip code, monetary value, etc.) Right now I have all of the events locally in the C# code directly attached to the xaml. Because I have developed a could controls, this means that the logic is repeated a lot, and if I want to change the program-wide functionality I would have to make changes everywhere the event code is located. I am sure there is a way to put all of my event handlers in a single class. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction? I saw this article: Event Handler located in different class than MainWindow But I'm not sure if it directly relates to what I'm doing. I would rather make small changes to the existing logic that I have, as it works, then rewrite everything into commands. I would essentially like to something like this if possible: LostFocus="ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBox_LostFocus" It is easy enough to do something like this: private void TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(sender, e); } private void TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(sender, e); } But that is less elegant.

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  • Android: Having trouble getting html from webpage

    - by Kyle
    Hi, I'm writing an android application that is supposed to get the html from a php page and use the parsed data from thepage. I've searched for this issue on here, and ended up using some code from an example another poster put up. Here is my code so far: HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(url); try { Log.d("first","first"); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); String html = ""; Log.d("second","second"); InputStream in = response.getEntity().getContent(); Log.d("third","third"); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); Log.d("fourth","fourth"); StringBuilder str = new StringBuilder(); String line = null; Log.d("fifth","fifth"); while((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { Log.d("request line",line); } in.close(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.d("error", "error"); } Log.d("end","end"); } Like I said before, the url is a php page. Whenever I run this code, it prints out the first first message, but then prints out the error error message and then finally the end end message. I've tried modifying the headers, but I've had no luck with it. Any help would be greatly appreciated as I don't know what I'm doing wrong. Thanks!

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  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

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  • how to execute any function in jquery after few seconds on the click of any link

    - by james Bond
    I have struts2 jquery grid where on click of a row I am calling a jQuery function for performating a struts2 action. My code is running fine. I want to perform my jQuery function after delay of a few seconds. How can I do this? <script type="text/javascript"> //assume this code is working fine on rowselect from my jquery grid, New Updation in it is "i want to execute or load the url after few seconds" $(function(){ $.subscribe('rowselect', function(event,data) { var param = (event.originalEvent.id); $("#myAdvanceDivBoxx").load('<s:url action='InsertbooksToSession' namespace='/admin/setups/secure/jspHomepage/bookstransaction'/>'+"?bid="+event.originalEvent.id); }); }); </script> What i tried is the below code but am unable to get the output which i am looking for: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $.subscribe('rowselect', function(event,data) { var param = (event.originalEvent.id); $("#myAdvanceDivBoxx").load('<s:url action='InsertbooksToSession' namespace='/admin/setups/secure/jspHomepage/bookstransaction'/>'+"?bid="+event.originalEvent.id); }).delay(9000); }); </script>

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  • Void* array casting to float, int32, int16, etc.

    - by Griffin
    Hey guys, I've got an array of PCM data, it could be 16 bit, 24 bit packed, 32 bit, etc.. It could be signed, or unsigned, and it could be 32 or 64 bit floating point. It is currently stored as a "void**" matrix, indexed by channel, then by frame. The goal is to allow my library to take in any PCM format and buffer it, without requiring manipulation of the data to fit a designated structure. If the A/D converter spits out 24 bit packed arrays of interleaved PCM, I need to accept it gracefully. I also need to support 16 bit non interleaved, as well as any permutation of the above formats. I know the bit depth and other information at runtime, and I'm trying to code efficiently while not duplicating code. What I need is an effective way to cast the matrix, put PCM data into the matrix, and then pull it out later. I can cast the matrix to int32_t, or int16_t for the 32 and 16 bit signed PCM respectively, I'll probably have to store the 24 bit PCM in an int32_t for 32 bit, 8 bit byte systems as well. Can anyone recommend a good way to put data into this array, and pull it out later? I'd like to avoid large sections of code which look like: switch( mFormat ) { case 1: // unsigned 8 bit for( int i = 0; i < mChannels; i++ ) framesArray = (uint8_t*)pcm[i]; break; case 2: // signed 8 bit for( int i = 0; i < mChannels; i++ ) framesArray = (int8_t*)pcm[i]; break; case 3: // unsigned 16 bit ... Limitations: I'm working in C/C++, no templates, no RTTI, no STL. Think embedded. Things get trickier when I have to port this to a DSP with 16 bit bytes. Does anybody have any useful macros they might be willing to share? Thanks, -Griff

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  • SSE (SIMD extensions) support in gcc

    - by goldenmean
    Hi, I see a code as below: include "stdio.h" #define VECTOR_SIZE 4 typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); // vector of four single floats typedef union f4vector { v4sf v; float f[VECTOR_SIZE]; } f4vector; void print_vector (f4vector *v) { printf("%f,%f,%f,%f\n", v->f[0], v->f[1], v->f[2], v->f[3]); } int main() { union f4vector a, b, c; a.v = (v4sf){1.2, 2.3, 3.4, 4.5}; b.v = (v4sf){5., 6., 7., 8.}; c.v = a.v + b.v; print_vector(&a); print_vector(&b); print_vector(&c); } This code builds fine and works expectedly using gcc (it's inbuild SSE / MMX extensions and vector data types. this code is doing a SIMD vector addition using 4 single floats. I want to understand in detail what does each keyword/function call on this typedef line means and does: typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); What is the vector_size() function return; What is the __attribute__ keyword for Here is the float data type being type defined to vfsf type? I understand the rest part. thanks, -AD

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  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

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  • Asp.Net Cookie sharing

    - by SH
    This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

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  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

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  • Chache problem running two consecutive HTTP GET requests from an APP1 to an APP2

    - by user502052
    I use Ruby on Rails 3 and I have 2 applications (APP1 and APP2) working on two subdomains: app1.domain.local app2.domain.local and I am tryng to run two consecutive HTTP GET requests from APP1 to APP2 like this: Code in APP1 (request): response1 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local?test=first&id=1") ) response2 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local/test=second&id=1") ) Code in APP2 (response): respond_to do |format| if <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "first" <model_name>.find(params[:id]).update_attribute ( <field_name>, <field_value> ) format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } elsif <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "second" format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } end end After the first request I get the correct XML (response1 is what I expect), but on the second it isn't (response2 isn't what I expect). Doing some tests I found that the second time that <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> run (for the elsif statements) it returns always a blank value so that the code in the elseif statement is never run. Is it possible that the problem is related on caching <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name>? P.S.: I read about eTag and Conditional GET, but I am not sure that I must use that approach. I would like to keep all simple.

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  • How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

    - by John Canady
    I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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  • FormsAuthentication authCookie is null only for some users

    - by mbalkema
    I am experiencing a strange problem with asp.net forms authentication. This problem only occurs for 3 users out of 30+ users that have successfully logged in. I am using very basic auth code that I have used many times and have never seen this problem. After the users successfully authenticates and the auth cookie is created, cookie added, and response.redirect to FormsAuthentication.GetRedirect(userid, false) is called. The Application_AuthenticateRequest method in Global.asax is hit. // Extract the forms authentication cookie string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[cookieName]; if (null == authCookie) { // There is no authentication cookie. return; } So immediately after a "good" cookie is saved and the redirect occurs the cookie is null. I have run the code through the debugger and the cookie is only null on these 3 users. But the cookie looks the same as the cookie for the many users that login successfully. Any ideas? This is standard code that should just work.

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  • All Callbacks on GUI Thread - Multithreading issues possible?

    - by miguel
    We have an external data provider which, in its construtor, takes a callback thread for returning data upon. There are some issues in the system which I am suspicious are related to threading, however, in theory they cannot be, due to the fact that the callbacks should all be returned on the same thread. My question is, does code like this require thread synchronisation? class Foo { ExternalDataProvider _provider; public Foo() { // This is the c'tor for the xternal data provider, taking a callback loop as param _provider = new ExternalDataProvider(UILoop); _provider.DataArrived += ExternalProviderCallbackMethod; } public ExternalProviderCallbackMethod(...) { //...(code omitted) var itemArray[] = new String[4] { "item1", "item2", "item3", "item4" }; for (int i = 0; i < itemArray.Length; i++) { string s = itemArray[i]; switch(s) { case "item1": DoItem1Action(); break; case "item2": DoItem2Action(); break; default: DoDefaultAction(); break; } //...(code omitted) } } } The issue is that, very infrequently, DoItem2Action is executingwhen DoItem1Action should be exectuing. Is it at all possible threading is at fault here? In theory, as all callbacks are arriving on the same thread, they should be serialized, right? So there should be no need for thread sync here?

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  • Javascript, IE, Strings, and Performance problems

    - by Infinity
    Hey guys, So we have this product, and it's really slow in IE. We've already applied a lot of the practices advised by the IE guys themselves (like this, and this), and try to sacrifice clean code for performance in the critical parts like DOM manipulation. However, as you can see in this IE profiler screenshot.. Just "String" is the biggest offender. Almost 750ms of exclusive time. Does this mean IE is spending 750ms just instantiating Strings? I also read this stuff on the Opera dev blog: A build script can remove whitespace, comments, replace strings with Array lookups (to avoid MSIE creating a string object for every single instance of a string — even in conditions) But no more info regarding this. Anyone can clarify? It seems like IE has to create a full String instance every time you have " " in your code, which could explain this, but I don't know what the array lookup optimization would look like. BTW- we don't really do much of string concatenation anywhere in the code. The library we use is MooTools 1.2.4 Any suggestions will be appreciated! Thx

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  • Multi Player game using Nodejs and Socket IO

    - by Kishorevarma
    I am trying out multi player racing game using Node and Socket IO ,express . So I have tried simple example to see the latency between node server and the clients. I have a draggable image in client . when I move the image ienter code heren one client ,it has to move in all clients. so basically when I am moving the image I am sending the image position to the node server in a json format , then from there I am broadcasting to all clients. there is a ~approx 300ms latency from the time. following are the results. Client 1 sending data to server at : 286136 (timestamp) Server received at : 286271 Client2 received data at : 286470 Client3 received data at : 286479 Client4 received data at : 286487 Client5 received data at : 286520 the latency between move from client1 to client5 is 384ms. its too hight for a racing game .. here is my server code. var app = require('express').createServer(); var io = require('socket.io'); var http = require('http'); var http_server = http.createServer(); var server = http.createServer(app); server.listen(3000); var socket = io.listen(server,{ log: false }); socket.sockets.on('connection', function (client) { client.on('message', function (data){ console.log("data arrived to server",new Date().getTime()); // Below both statements are giving same latency between the client 1 and client 5 client.broadcast.emit('message',data); //socket.sockets.emit('message',data); }); }); 1) Is there any way to optimize the server code to reduce the latency? 2) is this expected latency using node and websockets ? 3) is socket io can't broadcast the data asynchronously (I mean at a same time) ? Thanks Kishorevarma

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