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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • User input being limited to the alphabet in python

    - by Danger Cat
    I am SUPER new to programming and have my first assignment coming up in python. I am writing a hangman type game, where users are required to guess the word inputted from the other user. I have written most of the code, but the only problem I am having is when users have to input the word, making sure it is only limited to the alphabet. The code I have so far is : word = str.lower(raw_input("Type in your secret word! Shhhh... ")) answer = True while answer == True: for i in range(len(word)): if word[i] not in ("abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz"): word = raw_input("Sorry, words only contain letters. Please enter a word ") break else: answer = False This works while I input a few tries, but eventually will either exit the loop or displays an error. Is there any easier way to use this? We've really only covered topics up to loops in class, and break and continue are also very new to me. Thank you! (Pardon if the code is sloppy, but as I said I am very new to this....)

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  • Does operator precedence in C++ differ for pointers and iterators?

    - by oraz
    The code below demonstrates this difference: #include <iostream> #include <string> int main() { char s[] = "ABCD"; std::string str(s); char *p = s; while(*p) { *p++ = tolower(*p); // <-- incr after assignment } std::cout << s << std::endl; std::string::iterator it = str.begin(), end = str.end(); while(it != end) { *it++ = tolower(*it); // <-- incr before assignment ? } std::cout << str << std::endl; return 0; } the code above outputs: abcd bcd if we separate assignment operation and increment operator: while(it != end) { *it = tolower(*it); // <-- incr before assignment ? it++; } the output will be as expected. What's wrong with the original code? $ g++ --version g++ (GCC) 3.4.4 (cygming special, gdc 0.12, using dmd 0.125) Copyright (C) 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc.

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  • Java Equivalent of C++ .dll?

    - by Matt D
    So, I've been programming for a while now, but since I haven't worked on many larger, modular projects, I haven't come across this issue before. I know what a .dll is in C++, and how they are used. But every time I've seen similar things in Java, they've always been packaged with source code. For instance, what would I do if I wanted to give a Java library to someone else, but not expose the source code? Instead of the source, I would just give a library as well as a Javadoc, or something along those lines, with the public methods/functions, to another programmer who could then implement them in their own Java code. For instance, if I wanted to create a SAX parser that could be "borrowed" by another programmer, but (for some reason--can't think of one in this specific example lol) I don't want to expose my source. Maybe there's a login involved that I don't want exploited--I don't know. But what would be the Java way of doing this? With C++, .dll files make it much easier, but I have never run into a Java equivalent so far. (I'm pretty new to Java, and a pretty new "real-world" programmer, in general as well)

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  • WCF - Return object without serializing?

    - by Mayo
    One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

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  • Is there a Java data structure that is effectively an ArrayList with double indicies and built-in in

    - by Bob Cross
    I am looking for a pre-built Java data structure with the following characteristics: It should look something like an ArrayList but should allow indexing via double-precision rather than integers. Note that this means that it's likely that you'll see indicies that don't line up with the original data points (i.e., asking for the value that corresponds to key "1.5"). As a consequence, the value returned will likely be interpolated. For example, if the key is 1.5, the value returned could be the average of the value at key 1.0 and the value at key 2.0. The keys will be sorted but the values are not ensured to be monotonically increasing. In fact, there's no assurance that the first derivative of the values will be continuous (making it a poor fit for certain types of splines). Freely available code only, please. For clarity, I know how to write such a thing. In fact, we already have an implementation of this and some related data structures in legacy code that I want to replace due to some performance and coding issues. What I'm trying to avoid is spending a lot of time rolling my own solution when there might already be such a thing in the JDK, Apache Commons or another standard library. Frankly, that's exactly the approach that got this legacy code into the situation that it's in right now.... Is there such a thing out there in a freely available library?

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  • PHP download page: file_exists() returns true, but browser returns 'page not found'

    - by Chris
    I'm using PHP for a file download page. Here's a snippet of the problem code: if (file_exists($attachment_location)) { header($_SERVER["SERVER_PROTOCOL"] . " 200 OK"); header("Cache-Control: public"); // needed for i.e. header("Content-Type: application/zip"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: Binary"); header("Content-Length:".filesize($attachment_location)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=file.zip"); readfile($attachment_location); die("Hooray"); } else { die("Error: File not found."); } This code works absolutely fine when testing locally, but after deploying to the live server the browser returns a 'Page not found' error. I thought it might be an .htaccess issue, but all .htaccess files on the live server are identical to their local counterparts. My next guess would be the live server's PHP configuration, but I have no idea what PHP setting might cause this behaviour. The file_exists() function always returns true - I've checked this on the live server and it's always correctly picking up the file, its size etc., so it does have a handle on the file. It just won't perform the download! The main site is a Wordpress site, but this code isn't part of a Wordpress page - it's in a standalone directory within the site root. UPDATE: is_file() and is_readable() are both returning true for the file, so that's not the problem. The specific line that is causing the problem is: readfile($attachment_location) Everything up until that point is super happy.

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  • Why is my view controllers view not quadratic?

    - by mystify
    I created an UIViewController subclass, and figured out that the default implementation of -loadView in UIViewController will ignore my frame size settings in a strange way. To simplify it and to make sure it's really not the fault of my code, I did a clean test with a plain instance of UIViewController directly, rather than making a subclass. The result is the same. I try to make an exactly quadratic view of 320 x 320, but the view appears like 320 x 200. iPhone OS 3.0, please check this out: UIViewController *ts = [[UIViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; ts.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f); ts.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self.view addSubview:ts.view]; like you can see, I do this: 1) Create a UIViewController instance 2) Set the frame of the view to a quadratic dimension of 320 x 320 3) Give it a color, so I can see it 4) Added it as a subview. Now the part, that's even more strange: When I make my own implementation of -loadView, i.e. if I put this code in there like this: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f)]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; self.view = v; [v release]; } then it looks right. Now lets think about that: In the first example, I do pretty much exactly the same, just that I let UIViewController create the view on it's own, and then take it over in order to change it's frame. Right? So why do I get this strange error? Right now I see no other way of messing around like that to correct this wrong behavior. I did not activate anything like clipsToBounds and there's no other code touching this.

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  • Why does the onclick function run on onclick, but not when I call it manually?

    - by Codemonkey
    This is my code // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); } And this is the html <a onclick="alert('hello!');" href="http://www.google.com?acme=link&foo=bar">To google!</a> When I click the link, the alert pops up. But when I override the onclick with my JS code, the alert does not pop up. Any ideas? Edit: I just want to add, I have debugged and confirmed that old_onclick() is run, but no alert message shows up. Edit: Here is the full code from the loop start. I don't see how it's relevant, but it was requested: for(var i = 0; i < document.links.length; i++) { var link = document.links[i]; var eventlink = link.href.split("acme="); if(eventlink.length > 1) { var param = eventlink[1].split("&")[0]; var newlink = link.href; // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); }

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  • Adobe Air, packaged install fails with my trace routine... how come?

    - by artie scie
    I cobbled together some code from here and there for a trace I like... it generates an error to get a stack trace and picks out the traced routine name, I like that detail in the trace log. Problem: it fails in an installed AIR file. I wonder why? I don't expect it to do anything as is... just, I'd prefer it not cause the program to fail! tx artie enter code here static public function XTRACE( ... traceArgs ):void { try { throw new Error(); // make a stack } catch (e:Error) { var stack:String = e.getStackTrace(); var frames:Array = stack.split("\n"); var myFrame:String = String(frames[2]); myFrame = myFrame.replace("\t", ""); // "at " can be followed by some part of the package // you don't want to see. E.g., if your code is all in // com.foo.bar, you can put "at com.foo.bar." so as not // to crowd the display myFrame = myFrame.substr("at ".length); myFrame = myFrame.substring(0, myFrame.indexOf("[")); var now:Date = new Date(); trace(new Date().toLocaleTimeString() + ":" + myFrame + ": " + traceArgs.join(" ")); } }

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  • Learning Java and logic using debugger. Did I cheat?

    - by centr0
    After a break from coding in general, my way of thinking logically faded (as if it was there to begin with...). I'm no master programmer. Intermediate at best. I decided to see if i can write an algorithm to print out the fibonacci sequence in Java. I got really frustrated because it was something so simple, and used the debugger to see what was going on with my variables. solved it in less than a minute with the help of the debugger. Is this cheating? When I read code either from a book or someone else's, I now find that it takes me a little more time to understand. If the alghorithm is complex (to me) i end up writing notes as to whats going on in the loop. A primitive debugger if you will. When you other programmers read code, do you also need to write things down as to whats the code doing? Or are you a genius and and just retain it?

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  • C++, overloading std::swap, compiler error, VS 2010

    - by Ian
    I would like to overload std::swap in my template class. In the following code (simplified) #ifndef Point2D_H #define Point2D_H template <class T> class Point2D { protected: T x; T y; public: Point2D () : x ( 0 ), y ( 0 ) {} Point2D( const T &x_, const T &y_ ) : x ( x_ ), y ( y_ ) {} .... public: void swap ( Point2D <T> &p ); }; template <class T> inline void swap ( Point2D <T> &p1, Point2D <T> &p2 ) { p1.swap ( p2 ); } namespace std { template <class T> inline void swap ( Point2D <T> &p1, Point2D <T> &p2 ) { p1.swap ( p2 ); } } template <class T> void Point2D <T>::swap ( Point2D <T> &p ) { using (std::swap); swap ( x, p.x ); swap ( y, p.y ); } #endif there is a compiler error (only in VS 2010): error C2668: 'std::swap' : ambiguous call to overloaded I do not know why, std::swap should be overoaded... Using g ++ code works perfectly. Without templates (i.e. Point2D is not a template class) this code also works.. Thanks for your help.

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  • Use jquery ':contains' to find specific javascript within a span

    - by Rob
    This is my first time here, I hope that this is clear. So i will have code similar to this this. <span class="mediaSource ui-draggable" id="purchsePlay7915504"> <a href="" onclick="return popup_window(this, 'MediaView', 850, 680)" class="control" enter code hereid="GenericLink"></a> <img id="Any_71" alt="Media Source" src="images/9672web.gif" class="mediaStationIcons mediaWin"/> <img class="player" alt="Media Source" src="images/playmedia.gif" style="display: none;"/> </span> The href portion is generated on the backend, and I have no access to it. I need to modify some existing jquery code to do something based on what the 'onclick' function is(there are different ones e.g. popup_window1,popup_window2 etc.) . I tried something like this: $('.segmentLeft span.mediaSource').click(function(){ if ($('span:contains("popup_window")').length > 0) { do something } }); but it does not seem to work.

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  • JSONP not firing on IPad

    - by Gemtag
    After trying everything possible I've come to the conclusion this is an issue with IPad Safari. This works in FF, IE, Chrome, and Safari on MacBook. Below is my dumbed-down code. I have 2 separate JSONP calls, This first one works in all browsers including IPad. This simply calls a function based on a blur event $('#gender').blur(function() { reTarget(); }); function reTarget() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } Below is where things break. On the same page as the above code is the following, which calls a function based on a submit button click. $(':submit').bind('click', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); $('form').bind('submit', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); function checkThis() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm.aspx?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } This code will not fire. I've put alerts right before it and they fire. I look at the web logs and there is no entry for this json call. I would take any suggestions on this. At this point I fear it's a problem with firing jsonp from a submit event.

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  • Where to turn upon realizing I can't program my way out of a paper bag?

    - by luminarious
    I have no job and just enough money to get by until April or so. While looking for work, I figured I might as well go through with a pet project, a browser based card game. Make it nice and free, collect donations and maybe earn enough for a movie ticket to escape reality for a while. I have dabbled in web development a bit. I can make simple stuff happen with JS/PHP if I follow tutorials. I designed my own art blog's template - http://luminarious.tumblr.com. I can visualise the game working in my head, flowcharts and everything. But then I tried to go deeper with Javascript and almost had an aneurysm before understanding what a closure is. Wether I suck at learning, have ADD or fail epically at productivity, I have not got much done. Coming up with ideas, screen mock-ups and so forth was very enjoyable, but actual implementation.. not so much. In fact, I cry a bit every time I think about the time someone competent could have finished this in. I'd like to excuse myself with my ENTP personality type, but that hardly solves anything. Rather, I'd like to know to get from A (bunch of ideas with little semblance to a web app) to B (something to proudly show others) while being unable to pay anyone? Are there any secret techniques for learning? Is there any way to get mentoring or code review? Is there anyone with too much free time willing to code for me? How to trust someone to not steal my code when I ask for assistance? Is there anything I should have asked instead of any of those?

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  • using same ids for many tags?

    - by gaurav rathor
    here is the example code that i was testing and i got confused that every one says that we can use or we should use only one time per id but i have testes using using it multiple times but its giving me the correct output. so what should i do. it is kinda working same like class for me in this example code: <html> <head> <style> #exampleID1 { background-color: blue; } #exampleID2 { text-transform: uppercase; } </style> </head> <body> <p id="exampleID1">This paragraph has an ID name of "exampleID1" and has a blue CSS defined background.</p> <p id="exampleID2">This paragraph has an ID name of "exampleID2" and has had its text transformed to uppercase letters.</p> <address id="exampleID1"> Written by W3Schools.com<br /> <a href="mailto:[email protected]">Email us</a><br /> Address: Box 564, Disneyland<br /> Phone: +12 34 56 78 </address> <blockquote id="exampleID1"> Here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation here is a long quotation. </blockquote> </body> </html> please see the above code and answer me that why we should not use id selector two times in a page while its working fine.

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  • How can I remove all users in an Active Directory group?

    - by Beavis
    I'm trying to remove all users from an AD group with the following code: private void RemoveStudents() { foreach (DirectoryEntry childDir in rootRefreshDir.Children) { DirectoryEntry groupDE = new DirectoryEntry(childDir.Path); for (int counter = 0; counter < groupDE.Properties["member"].Count; counter++) { groupDE.Properties["member"].Remove(groupDE.Properties["member"][counter]); groupDE.CommitChanges(); groupDE.Close(); } } } The rootRefreshDir is the directory that contains all the AD groups (childDir). What I'm finding here is that this code does not behave correctly. It removes users, but it doesn't do it after the first run. It does "some". Then I run it again, and again, and again - depending on how many users need to be deleted in a group. I'm not sure why it's functioning this way. Can someone help fix this code or provide an alternative method to delete all users in a group? Thanks!

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  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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  • "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

    - by dbarbosa
    Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

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  • SQL Server Connection Timeout C#

    - by Termin8tor
    First off I'd like to let everyone know I have searched my particular problem and can't seem to find what's causing my problem. I have an SQL Server 2008 instance running on a network machine and a client I have written connecting to it. To connect I have a small segment of code that establishes a connection to an sql server 2008 instance and returns a DataTable populated with the results of whatever query I run against the server, all pretty standard stuff really. Anyway the issue is, whenever I open my program and call this method, upon the first call to my method, regardless as to what I've set my Connection Timeout value as in the connection string, it takes about 15 seconds and then times out. Bizarrely though the second or third call I make to the method will work without a problem. I have opened up the ports for SQL Server on the server machine as outlined in this article: How to Open firewall ports for SQL Server and verified that it is correctly configured. Can anyone see a particular problem in my code? string _connectionString = "Server=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlServer + "; Initial Catalog=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlInitialCatalog + ";User Id=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlUsername + ";Password=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlPassword + "; Connection Timeout=1"; private DataTable ExecuteSqlStatement(string command) { using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { try { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataAdapter adaptor = new SqlDataAdapter(command, conn)) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); adaptor.Fill(table); return table; } } catch (SqlException e) { throw e; } } } The SqlException that is caught at my catch is : "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." This occurs at the conn.Open(); line in the code snippet I have included. If anyone has any ideas that'd be great!

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  • Persisting object changes from child form to parent form based on button press.

    - by Shyran
    I have created a form that is used for both adding and editing a custom object. Which mode the form takes is provided by an enum value passed from the calling code. I also pass in an object of the custom type. All of my controls at data bound to the specific properties of the custom object. When the form is in Add mode, this works great as when the controls are updated with data, the underlying object is as well. However, in Edit mode, I keep two variables of the custom object supplied by the calling code, the original, and a temporary one made through deep copying. The controls are then bound to the temporary copy, this makes it easy to discard the changes if the user clicks the Cancel button. What I want to know is how to persist those changes back to the original object if the user clicks the OK button, since there is now a disconnect because of the deep copying. I am trying to avoid implementing a internal property on the Add/Edit form if I can. Below is an example of my code: public AddEditCustomerDialog(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { InitializeComponent(); InitializeCustomer(customer, mode); } private void InitializeCustomer(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { this.customer = customer; if (mode == DialogMode.Edit) { this.Text = "Edit Customer"; this.tempCustomer = ObjectCopyHelper.DeepCopy(this.customer); this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer.PhoneList; } else { this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer.PhoneList; } }

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  • Controlling race condition at startup.

    - by Will Hartung
    I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

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  • Displaying a message after adding duplicate records in database

    - by user1770370
    I wrote program in C# winforms and SQL server and LINQ to SQL. I use user control instead of form. In my user control, I put 3 textbox, txtStartNumber, txtEndNumber, txtQuantity. user define value of textboxes, when clicked button, it will insert some records according to the value of txtQuantity. I want to when duplicate number is created, it won't add to database and display message. how do i do? I must write code in code behind or server side? i must set this in store procedure or trigger? private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { long from = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_f.Text); long to = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_t.Text); long quantity = Convert.ToInt64(to - from); int card_Type_ID=Convert.ToInt32(cmb_BracodeType .SelectedValue); long[] arrCardNum = new long[(to - from)]; arrCardNum[0]=from; for (long i = from; i < to; i++) { for(int j=0; j<(to-from) ;j++) { arrCardNum[j]=from+j; string r = arrCardNum[j].ToString(); sp.SaveCards(r, 2, card_Type_ID, SaveDate, 2); } } } Stored Procedure code. ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.SaveCards @Barcode_Num int ,@Card_Status_ID int ,@Card_Type_ID int ,@SaveDate varchar(10) ,@Save_User_ID int AS BEGIN INSERT INTO [Parking].[dbo].[TBL_Cards] ([Barcode_Num] ,[Card_Status_ID] ,[Card_Type_ID] ,[Save_User_ID]) VALUES (@Barcode_Num ,@Card_Status_ID ,@Card_Type_ID ,@Save_User_ID) END

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  • Vista seems to prevent .net from reading/updating file attributes.

    - by CFP
    Hello everyone! The following function copies a file from Source & Path to Dest & Path, normally setting file attributes to normal before copying. Yet, a user of my app has reported it to fail when copying readonly files, returning a permissions-related error. The user is however running the code as administrator, and the error happens - quite strangely - on the SetLastWriteTimeUtc line. Although the code reports that the file attributes are set to normal, windows explorer shows that they are set to read only. Sub CopyFile(ByVal Path As String, ByVal Source As String, ByVal Dest As String) If IO.File.Exists(Dest & Path) Then IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.FileAttributes.Normal) IO.File.Copy(Source & Path, Dest & Path, True) If Handler.GetSetting(ConfigOptions.TimeOffset, "0") <> "0" Then IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.FileAttributes.Normal) IO.File.SetLastWriteTimeUtc(Dest & Path, IO.File.GetLastWriteTimeUtc(Dest & Path).AddHours(Handler.GetSetting(ConfigOptions.TimeOffset, "0"))) End If IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.File.GetAttributes(Source & Path)) End Sub I just fail to see the problem in this code, so after long hours of searching for the solution, I thought one of SO VB.Net Gurus might help :) Thanks a lot. Edit: The actual error is Access to the path '(..)' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.File.OpenFile(String path, FileAccess access, SafeFileHandle& handle) at System.IO.File.SetLastWriteTimeUtc(String path, DateTime lastWriteTimeUtc)

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  • copy rows with special condition

    - by pooria_googooli
    I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

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