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  • How do I implement Hibernate Pagination using a cursor (so the results stay consistent, despite new

    - by hunterae
    Hey all, Is there any way to maintain a database cursor using Hibernate between web requests? Basically, I'm trying to implement pagination, but the data that is being paged is consistently changing (i.e. new records are added into the database). We are trying to set it up such that when you do your initial search (returning a maximum of 5000 results), and you page through the results, those same records always appear on the same page (i.e. we're not continuously running the query each time next and previous page buttons are clicked). The way we're currently implementing this is by merely selecting 5000 (at most) primary keys from the table we're paging, storing those keys in memory, and then just using 20 primary keys at a time to fetch their details from the database. However, we want to get away from having to store these keys in memory and would much prefer a database cursor that we just keep going back to and moving backwards and forwards over the cursor to generate pages. I tried doing this with Hibernate's ScrollableResults but found that I could not call methods like next() and previous() would cause an exception if you within a different web request / Hibernate session (no surprise there). Is there any way to reattach a ScrollableResults object to a Session, much the same way you would reattach a detached database object to make it persistent? Are there any other approaches to implement this data paging with consistent paging results without caching the primary keys?

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  • Connection Pool Strategy: Good, Bad or Ugly?

    - by Drew
    I'm in charge of developing and maintaining a group of Web Applications that are centered around similar data. The architecture I decided on at the time was that each application would have their own database and web-root application. Each application maintains a connection pool to its own database and a central database for shared data (logins, etc.) A co-worker has been positing that this strategy will not scale because having so many different connection pools will not be scalable and that we should refactor the database so that all of the different applications use a single central database and that any modifications that may be unique to a system will need to be reflected from that one database and then use a single pool powered by Tomcat. He has posited that there is a lot of "meta data" that goes back and forth across the network to maintain a connection pool. My understanding is that with proper tuning to use only as many connections as necessary across the different pools (low volume apps getting less connections, high volume apps getting more, etc.) that the number of pools doesn't matter compared to the number of connections or more formally that the difference in overhead required to maintain 3 pools of 10 connections is negligible compared to 1 pool of 30 connections. The reasoning behind initially breaking the systems into a one-app-one-database design was that there are likely going to be differences between the apps and that each system could make modifications on the schema as needed. Similarly, it eliminated the possibility of system data bleeding through to other apps. Unfortunately there is not strong leadership in the company to make a hard decision. Although my co-worker is backing up his worries only with vagueness, I want to make sure I understand the ramifications of multiple small databases/connections versus one large database/connection pool.

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  • How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

    - by Bill_BsB
    I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with ScriptManager when trying to email rendered contents of ASP.NET page

    - by pandojc
    I recently added a Telerik control to an ascx that is included in an aspx page. This page has a "Send email" button, which when clicked will email the user the rendered output of the page. The Telerik control I added requires a ScriptManager, so I added that to the ascx. However, now the email button won't work. I get the following error: The control with ID 'myIdHere' requires a ScriptManager on the page. The ScriptManager must appear before any controls that need it. I know the script manager exists because the page works fine when I go that url, it is only failing when it tries to email the rendered output. Here's a code snippet, any ideas as to whether there is a problem with scriptmanager when doing this sort of thing? Page EmailPage = new EmailBasePage(); System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm EmailForm = new System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm(); EmailPage.Controls.Add(EmailForm); EmailForm.Controls.Add(contentTable); //this is the container with all the controls I want to email StringBuilder SB = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter html = new StringWriter(SB); HtmlTextWriter mhtmlWriter = new HtmlTextWriter(html); EmailPage.DesignerInitialize(); EmailPage.RenderControl(mhtmlWriter); mhtmlWriter.Close();

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  • Urgent Help not showing the grid on the page..

    - by kumar
    hello Friends, I have two user controlers 1) name.ascx 2) friends.ascx in both controlers Code is same just changing the Grid name and columns but URL pointing is differnt.. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<JQGridMVCExamples.Models.OrdersJqGridModel>" %> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<JQGridMVCExamples.Models.OrdersJqGridModel2>" %> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid2, "JQGrid2") %> </div> But what hapeening is for second gri JQGrid2 is not showing up.. but First Grid is showing.. when i do first time second grid execution is not shoiwng up but when I do after first grid.. I am getting the result but Frist grid columns I am getting not the second grid columns.. can any body have sujjestion on this? thanks

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  • How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

    - by John Canady
    I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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  • Asynchronous URL connection objective C

    - by tweety
    I created an asynchronous URL connection to call a web service using HTTP POST method. after I am pinging the web i set an NSTimerInterval in the completion handler. my problem is when I'm trying to display the time on the view controller it is not doing promptly. I know block is stored in the heap and gets executed later on anytime and probably that's why i'm not getting prompt answer. I was wondering is there any other way to do this? Thanks in advance. my code: __block NSDate *start= [NSDate date]; __block NSDate *end; __block double miliseconds; __block NSTimeInterval time; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:queue completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error) { if([data length]==0 && error==nil){ end=[NSDate date]; time=[end timeIntervalSinceDate:start]; NSLog(@"Successfully Pinged"); miliseconds = time; // calling a method to display ping time [self label:miliseconds]; } -(void) label:(double) mili{ double miliseconds=mili*1000; self.timeDisplay.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Time: %.3f ms", miliseconds];

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  • Android: sending xml as document object, POST method

    - by juro
    i am new at programming and i need some help with that please =/ web service is already written but not by me. so all i have to do is send xml as document object by post method through web service. my code: public class send extends application { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://app.local/test/"); try { DocumentBuilderFactory documentBuilderFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder documentBuilder = documentBuilderFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document document = documentBuilder.newDocument(); Element rootElement = document.createElement("packet"); rootElement.setAttribute("version", "1.2"); document.appendChild(rootElement); Element em = document.createElement("imei"); em.appendChild(document.createTextNode("000000000000000")); rootElement.appendChild(em); em = document.createElement("username"); em.appendChild(document.createTextNode("5555")); rootElement.appendChild(em); HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("XML Pasing Excpetion = " + e); } } }

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  • Business Tier | client state in desktop application- way around Stateful Session Beans?

    - by arthur
    I read positive inputs on the following posts concerning client state management: Stateful EJBs in web application?, here, and here. I want to know how implement such client state management for desktop applications (Swing, AWT, SWT, and other). let's assume there are n desktop clients supposed to use some (remote) services provided on an Application Server. How to maintain a separate and permanent data state for each client , distinct from the other without have to use using stateful session Beans (SFSB) ? is that even possible on this application type ? With Webapp(Servlets / JsSF and JSP) some can avoid using SFSB by HttpSession object and/or coupling it with stateless session beans (SLSB). HttpSession object would keep information for each (Web)client separate and the SLSB would play the business logic music. But HttpSession objects aren't present on desktop application and I go stuck with only SFSB and SLSB. Knowing the problems(Concurrency, Error Handling, usw ) of SFSB, I would have not wanted to use it. What would be the other options? is there only SFSB available? Thanks in advances

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  • Silverlight 4, Google Chrome, and HttpWebRequest problem

    - by synergetic
    My Silvrlight 4 application hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 working fine when used through Internet Explorer 8, both in development server and remote web server (IIS 6.0). However when I try to browse through Google Chrome (version 5.0.375.70) it throws "remote server returned not found" error. The code causing the problem is the following: public class MyWebClient { private HttpWebRequest _request; private Uri _uri; private AsyncOperation _asyncOp; public MyWebClient(Uri uri) { _uri = uri; } public void Start(XElement data) { _asyncOp = AsyncOperationManager.CreateOperation(null); _data = data; _request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(_uri); _request.Method = "POST"; _request.BeginGetRequestStream(new AsyncCallback(BeginRequest), null); } private void BeginRequest(IAsyncResult result) { Stream stream = _request.EndGetRequestStream(result); using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(stream)) { writer.Write(((XElement)_data).ToString()); } stream.Close(); _request.BeginGetResponse(new AsyncCallback(BeginResponse), null); } private void BeginResponse(IAsyncResult result) { HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)_request.EndGetResponse(result); if (response != null) { //process returned data ... } } ... } In short, the above code sends some XML data to web server (to ASP.NET MVC controller) and gets back a processed data. It works when I use Internet Explorer 8. Can someone please explain what is the problem with Google Chrome?

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  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

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  • jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

    - by rpj
    I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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  • Silverlight - WCF Enable Binary Encoding

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is returning a lot of data. I want to compress that information so I thought that using BinaryEncoding would be appropriate. Currently, I have a binding setup in my web.config as follows: <binding name="myCustomBinding" closeTimeout="00:05:00" openTimeout="00:05:00" receiveTimeout="00:05:00" sendTimeout="00:05:00"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="8388608" maxBufferSize="8388608"> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </httpTransport> </binding> In my ServiceReferences.clientconfig file, I have the following binding settings: <binding name="CustomBinding_MyService"> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647"> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </httpTransport> </binding> Oddly, this configuration will not work. As soon as I remove the <binaryMessageEncoding /> line from the web.config, everything works fine. My question is, how do I use binary message encoding? Is there something I need to configure in my ServiceReferences.clientconfig? Thank you

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  • How can I add SOAP Headers to a WSDL generated Borland C++ Builder 6 application.

    - by MJG
    Using a WSDL that requires a SOAP HEADER for Authentication (fragment below) code that gets generated when creating a web service client via the "WSDL Importer" has no concept of the Authentication Headers and there are no examples in BCB6 C++ Examples/WebServices directories that show how, and nothing on Web that I can find. Anyone with BCB6 C++ (not Delphi) have an example of adding SOAP Headers to a TRemotable subclass? <s:element name="AuthenticationHeader" type="tns:AuthenticationHeader"/> <s:complexType name="AuthenticationHeader"> <s:complexContent mixed="false"> <s:extension base="tns:UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Function" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="TimeOutMilliSec" type="s:int"/> </s:sequence> </s:extension> </s:complexContent> </s:complexType> <s:complexType name="UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Username" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Password" type="s:string"/> </s:sequence> <s:anyAttribute/> </s:complexType>

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  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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  • How do I post back information from a webpage that has post-generated content?

    - by meanbunny
    Ok so I am very new to html and the web. Right now I am trying to generate list items on the fly and then have them post back to the web server so I know what the person is trying to obtain. Here is the code for generating the list items: foreach (var item in dataList) { MyDataList.InnerHtml += "<li><a runat='server' onclick='li_Click' id='" + item.Name + "-button'></a></li>"; } Further down I have my click event. protected void li_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //How do I determine here which item was actually clicked? } My question is how do I determine which list item was clicked? Btw, the code running behind is C#. EDIT 1 LinkButton link = new LinkButton(); link.ID = "all-button"; link.Text = "All"; link.Click += new EventHandler(link_Click); MyDataList.Controls.Add(link); Then below I have my link_Click event that never seems to hit a breakpoint. void link_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (sender != null) { if (sender.GetType() == typeof(LinkButton)) { LinkButton button = (LinkButton)sender; if (button.ID == "all-button") { } } } } I know this has to be possible I just cant figure out what I am missing. Edit 2 Ok ok I think I know what the problem is. I was trying to add a second list inside of another list. This was causing the whole thing to have problems. It is working now.

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  • File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

    - by Nikkelmann
    These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

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  • How can I make hundreds of simultaneously running processes communicate with a database through one

    - by Olfan
    Long speech short: How can I make hundreds of simultaneously running processes communicate with a database through one or few permanent sessions? The whole story: I once built a number crunching engine that handles vast amounts of large data files by forking off one child after another giving each a small number of files to work on. File locking, progress monitoring and result propagation happen in an Oracle database which all (sub-)processes access at various times using an application-specific module which encapsulates DBI. This worked well at first, but now with higher volumes of input data, the number of database sessions (one per child, and they can be very short-lived) constantly being opened and closed is becoming an issue. I now want to centralise database access so that there are only one or few fixed database sessions which handle all database access for all the (sub-)processes. The presence of the database abstraction module should make the changes easy because the function calls in the worker instances can stay the same. My problem is that I cannot think of a suitable way to enhance said module in order to establish communication between all the processes and the database connector(s). I thought of message queueing, but couldn't come up with a way of connecting a large herd of requestors with one or few database connectors in a way so that bidirectional communication is possible (for collecting the query result). An asynchronous approach could help here in that all requests are written to the same queue and the database connector servicing the request will "call back" to submit the result. But my mind fails me in generating an image clear enough so that I can paint into code. Threading instead of forking might have given me an easier start, but this would now require massive changes to the code base that I'm not prepared to do to a live system. The more I think of it, the more the base idea looks like a pre-forked web server to me only that it doesn't serve web pages but database queries. Any ideas on what to dig into, and where? Sample (pseudo) code to inspire me, links to possibly related articles, ready solutions on CPAN maybe?

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  • What could trigger a change of http status to 500 on the client's end?

    - by VexedPanda
    We have a PHP web application that posts data to itself, and either displays an updated page based on that data, or redirects to another page. An example of this is a script with a paged list on it, where clicking on the Next link causes a post to the same page, which then returns an updated version of the page showing the new set of list items. One client is reporting that IE is displaying friendly error messages when the page updates itself instead of the correct behavior of displaying the updated page. Turning friendly error messages off "corrects" this problem, and displays the updated page normally, indicating no actual server error occurred. When testing from any location other than this client's our web app does not produce any http error statuses, and in this specific situation only produces 200 statuses. (According to Fiddler.) What could be interfering with the HTTP POST and changing the response's http status code to 500 (or another code that would trigger friendly errors in IE)? Are there certain proxies or other network tools that could be misconfigured or buggy in this manner? Is there any way we can alter our application (apart from avoiding posts to the same script, which is not feasible) to get around this misbehavior?

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  • Looking for MSSQL Table Design Sanity Check for Profile Tables with Dynamic Columns.

    - by Code Sherpa
    I just want a general sanity check regarding database design. We are building a web system that has both Teachers and Students. Both have accounts in the system. Both have profiles in the system. My question is about the table design of those Profile tables. The Teacher profile is pretty static regarding the metadata associated with it. Each teacher has a set number of fields that exposes information about that individual (schools, degrees, etc). The students, however, are a different case. We are using a windows service to pull varying data about the students from an endless stream of excel spreadsheets. The data gets moved into our database and then the fields appear in association with the student's profile. Accordingly, each and every student may have very different fields in their profile. I originally started with the concept of three tables: Accounts ---------- AccountID TeacherProfiles ---------- TeacherProfileID AccountID SecondarySchool University YearsTeaching Etc... StudentProfiles ---------- StudentProfileID AccountID Header Value The StudentProfiles table would hold the name of the column headers from the excel spreadsheets and the associated values. I have since evolved the design a little to treat Profiles more generically per the attached ERD image. The Teacher and Student "Headers" are stored in a table called "ProfileAttributeTypes" and responses (either from the excel document or via input fields on the web form) are put in a ProfileAttributes table. This way both Student and Teacher profiles can be associated with a dynamic flow of profile fields. The "Permissions" table tells us whether we are dealing with a Student or a Teacher. Since this system is likely to grow quickly, I want to make sure the foundation is solid. Can you please provide feedback about this design and let me know if it seems sound or if you could see problems it might create and, if so, what might be a better approach? Thanks in advance.

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  • Is there a mechanism to distribute an app with its own JRE?

    - by user179997
    Hello all, These fine folks are my users: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=o4MwTvtyrUQ If you don't want to enjoy the video here is the gist: my users can't tell between a file and a folder, between a browser and a web site. I need to create a Java web app (Tomcat or Jetty) and deploy it in as many of their computers, Windows and Mac. The question is: Is there a mechanism to distribute an app with its own JRE? (in the Tcl world there are starpacks and starkits, in the Python world there's py2exe and others, that's the idea). And also, is it legal? I know the VM is open source but I'm not clear about the libraries, and I know about GNU Classpath but I don't know if all the packages are there. I don't want to depend on the installed JRE or on the user having enough privileges to install one. On the Mac I don't want to depend on Apple (I had to switch from Tiger to Snow Leopard just to have Java 1.6, I can't put my users in that position) Any info greatly appreciated. Thanks! jb

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  • Servlet that starts a thread only once for every visitor

    - by user858749
    Hey I want to implement a Java Servlet that starts a thread only once for every single user. Even on refresh it should not start again. My last approach brought me some trouble so no code^^. Any Suggestions for the layout of the servlet? public class LoaderServlet extends HttpServlet { // The thread to load the needed information private LoaderThread loader; // The last.fm account private String lfmaccount; public LoaderServlet() { super(); lfmaccount = ""; } @Override protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if (loader != null) { response.setContentType("text/plain"); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.write(loader.getStatus()); out.flush(); out.close(); } else { loader = new LoaderThread(lfmaccount); loader.start(); request.getRequestDispatcher("WEB-INF/pages/loader.jsp").forward( request, response); } } @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if (lfmaccount.isEmpty()) { lfmaccount = request.getSession().getAttribute("lfmUser") .toString(); } request.getRequestDispatcher("WEB-INF/pages/loader.jsp").forward( request, response); } } The jsp uses ajax to regularly post to the servlet and get the status. The thread just runs like 3 minutes, crawling some last.fm data.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • CSS of iFramed page not being applied properly

    - by Mike E.
    My company has purchased a third-party package with a built-in customer facing web portal, and I'm being tasked with integrating it into our site. Unfortunately, the web portal does not look great, and we have absolutely no control over how it looks (other than asking the vendor for changes - $$). In order to make it look somewhat like the rest of our site, I've stuck it in an iFrame (I'm not thrilled about this either) to put our logo and top navigation on it. Please note, I am not attempting to manipulate the iframed page in any way. Firefox handles this just fine, but in IE7 and IE8, not all of the CSS is being applied properly when the application's pages are displayed in the iFrame. Specifically, it should be applying a font-family of Arial to all TDs, but some text inside TDs are not being displayed as Arial. Any ideas as to what is going on? This only happens when the pages are viewed inside the iFrame. Outside the iFrame, the CSS is applied as it should be. I'm guessing we're going to have to get our vendor to make some changes, but I'd love to know why the iFrame is impacting the page like this. Thanks!

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