Search Results

Search found 2886 results on 116 pages for 'behaviour'.

Page 96/116 | < Previous Page | 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103  | Next Page >

  • How to use IsKeyboardFocusWithin and IsSelected together?

    - by jpsstavares
    I have a style defined for my ListBoxItems with a trigger to set a background color when IsSelected is True: <Style x:Key="StepItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="SnapsToDevicePixels" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Border Name="Border" Padding="0" SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <ContentPresenter /> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Background" Value="#40a0f5ff"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> This style maintains the selected item even when the ListBox and ListBoxItem loses focus, which in my case is an absolute must. The problem is that I also want the ListBoxItem to be selected when one of its TextBox's child gets focused. To achieve this I add a trigger that sets IsSelected to true when IsKeyboardFocusWithin is true: <Trigger Property="IsKeyboardFocusWithin" Value="True"> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="True" /> </Trigger> When I add this trigger the Item is selected when the focus is on a child TextBox, but the first behaviour disappears. Now when I click outside the ListBox, the item is de-selected. How can I keep both behaviours?

    Read the article

  • confusing fork system call

    - by benjamin button
    Hi, i was just checking the behaviour of fork system call and i found it very confusing. i saw in a website that Unix will make an exact copy of the parent's address space and give it to the child. Therefore, the parent and child processes have separate address spaces #include <stdio.h> #include <sys/types.h> int main(void) { pid_t pid; char y='Y'; char *ptr; ptr=&y; pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { y='Z'; printf(" *** Child process ***\n"); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); sleep(5); } else { sleep(5); printf("\n ***parent process ***\n",&y); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); } } the output of the above program is : *** Child process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Z ***parent process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Y so from the above mentioned statement it seems that child and parent have separet address spaces.this is the reason why char value is printed separately and why am i seeing the address of the variable as same in both child and parent processes.? Please help me understand this!

    Read the article

  • [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

    - by Gazillion
    Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

    Read the article

  • Default Button after dispose and setVisible

    - by DaDaDom
    Hi, given the following code: public class DialogTest implements ActionListener { public static void main(String[] args) {DialogTest g = new DialogTest();} public DialogTest() { JButton b1 = new JButton("Button A"); b1.addActionListener(this); JDialog d = new JDialog(); d.setDefaultCloseOperation(JDialog.DISPOSE_ON_CLOSE); JPanel p = new JPanel(); p.add(b1); d.add(p); d.getRootPane().setDefaultButton(b1); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); d.dispose(); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); } public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) {System.out.println("hello");} } Shouldn't pressing the Enter key write something to the console? According to the docs (http://java.sun.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/awt/Window.html#dispose()): The Window and its subcomponents can be made displayable again by rebuilding the native resources with a subsequent call to pack or show. The states of the recreated Window and its subcomponents will be identical to the states of these objects at the point where the Window was disposed Is this intended behaviour?

    Read the article

  • c multithreading

    - by coubeatczech
    hi, there's a weird behaviour in my threads: void * foo(void * nic){ printf("foo"); } void * threadF(void * ukazatel){ printf("1\n"); pthread_t threadT; pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_JOINABLE); pthread_create(&threadT,NULL,&foo,(void*)NULL); printf("2\n"); while (!feof(stdin)){ int id, in, out; fscanf(stdin,"%d:%d:%d",&id,&in,&out); } } int main(){ pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_JOINABLE); pthread_t threadT; pthread_create(&vlaknoVstupu,&attr,&threadF,(void*)&data); pthread_join(threadT,NULL); pthread_attr_destroy (&attr); } // I skipped irelevant parts of code... the thing is, that sometimes, the output is 12foo, but usually just 12. Then the function waits for input. I would expect it to be always 12foo. Do anybody know why are my expectations wrong?

    Read the article

  • Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

    - by Akusete
    Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

    Read the article

  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

    Read the article

  • TextArea being used as an itemEditor misbehaves when the enter key is pressed

    - by ChrisInCambo
    Hi, I have a TextArea inside an itemEditor component, the problem is that when typing in the TextArea if the enter key is pressed the itemEditor resets itself rather moving the caret to the next line as expected: <mx:List width="100%" editable="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:ArrayCollection> <mx:Array> <mx:Object title="Stairway to Heaven" /> </mx:Array> </mx:ArrayCollection> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Text height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> <mx:itemEditor> <mx:Component> <mx:TextArea height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemEditor> </mx:List> </mx:Application> Could anyone advise how I can get around this strange behaviour and make the enter key behave as expected? Thanks, Chris

    Read the article

  • ExecutorService memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

    Read the article

  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

    Read the article

  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

    Read the article

  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

    Read the article

  • Prevent default on a click within a JQuery tabs in Google Chrome.

    - by Sydney
    I would like to prevent the default behaviour of a click on a link. I tried the return false; also javascript:void(0); in the href attribute but it doesn’t seem to work. It works fine in Firefox, but not in Chrome and IE. I have a single tab that loads via AJAX the content which is a simple link. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#tabs").tabs({ ajaxOptions: { error: function(xhr, status, index, anchor) { $(anchor.hash).html("Couldn't load this tab. We'll try to fix this as soon as possible. If this wouldn't be a demo."); }, success: function() { alert('hello'); $('#lk').click(function() { alert('Click Me'); return false; }); } }, load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); }); </script> <body> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="linkChild.htm">Link</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> The content of linkChild.htm is <a href="javascript:void(0)" id="lk">Click Me</a> So basically when the tab content is loaded with success, a click event is attached to the link “lk”. When I click on the link, the alert is displayed but then link disappears. I check the HTML and the element is actually removed from the DOM.

    Read the article

  • Is it right that Strophe.addHandler reads only first node from response?

    - by markcial
    I'm starting to learn strophe library usage and when i use addHandler to parse response it seems to read only first node of xml response so when i receive a xml like that : <body xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/httpbind'> <presence xmlns='jabber:client' from='test2@localhost' to='test2@localhost' type='avaliable' id='5593:sendIQ'> <status/> </presence> <presence xmlns='jabber:client' from='test@localhost' to='test2@localhost' xml:lang='en'> <status /> </presence> <iq xmlns='jabber:client' from='test2@localhost' to='test2@localhost' type='result'> <query xmlns='jabber:iq:roster'> <item subscription='both' name='test' jid='test@localhost'> <group>test group</group> </item> </query> </iq> </body> With the handler testHandler used like that : connection.addHandler(testHandler,null,"presence"); function testHandler(stanza){ console.log(stanza); } It only logs : <presence xmlns='jabber:client' from='test2@localhost' to='test2@localhost' type='avaliable' id='5593:sendIQ'> <status/> </presence> What i am missing? is it a right behaviour? Should i add more handlers to get the other stanzas? Thanks for advance

    Read the article

  • How to link jQuery UI datepicker functionality with a select list

    - by take2
    I'm trying to connect jQuery UI's datepicker with a select list. I have found one explanation on jQuery's Forum ( forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-ui-datepicker-with-select-lists), but I can't get it working. There are input and select list both declared: <select id="selectMonth"><option value="01">Jan</option><option value="02">Feb</option> <option value="03">Mar</option><option value="04">Apr</option>...</select> <select id="selectDay"><option value="01">1</option><option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option><option value="04">4</option>...</select> <select id="selectYear"><option value="2012">2012</option><option value="2013">2013</option> <option value="2014">2014</option>...</select> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="selectedDatepicker" /></p> This is the script: $(function() { $('#selectedDatepicker').datepicker({ beforeShow: readSelected, onSelect: updateSelected, minDate: new Date(2012, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2014, 12 - 1, 31), showOn: 'both', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'img/calendar.gif'}); // Prepare to show a date picker linked to three select controls function readSelected() { $('#selectedDatepicker').val($('#selectMonth').val() + '/' + $('#selectDay').val() + '/' + $('#selectYear').val()); return {}; } // Update three select controls to match a date picker selection function updateSelected(date) { $('#selectMonth').val(date.substring(0, 2)); $('#selectDay').val(date.substring(3, 5)); $('#selectYear').val(date.substring(6, 10)); } }); And here is the fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/xKXZm/ They are not connected properly, the only "connected behaviour" is that when you click on the input button, it picks up the value of the select list. On the other hand, the select list never picks up the value of the input nor will the input pick up the value of the select list until you click on it.

    Read the article

  • How to export Oracle statistics

    - by A_M
    Hi, I am writing some new SQL queries and want to check the query plans that the Oracle query optimiser would come up with in production. My development database doesn't have anything like the data volumes of the production database. How can I export database statistics from a production database and re-import them into a development database? I don't have access to the production database, so I can't simply generate explain plans on production without going through a third party hosting organisation. This is painful. So I want a local database which is in some way representative of production on which I can try out different things. Also, this is for a legacy application. I'd like to "improve" the schema, by adding appropriate indexes. constraints, etc. I need to do this in my development database first, before rolling out to test and production. If I add an index and re-generate statistics in development, then the statistics will be generated around the development data volumes, which makes it difficult to assess the impact my changes on production. Does anyone have any tips on how to deal with this? Or is it just a case of fixing unexpected behaviour once we've discovered it on production? I do have a staging database with production volumes, but again I have to go through a third party to run queries against this, which is painful. So I'm looking for ways to cut out the middle man as much as possible. All this is using Oracle 9i. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I get contentWindow for an Object element in IE7

    - by Scott Leis
    I have a HTML object element like this: <object title="Search results as XML" standby="Loading XML document..." type="text/xml" data="/__CA25761100195585.nsf/WebPrintListingXML?OpenAgent&date1=01/06/2009" width="100%" height="100%" border="0" name="resultIFrame" id="resultIFrame" Error: could not embed search results. </object I also have this javascript function (alert() calls added for debugging): function getFrameByName(fParent,fName) { var fArray=fParent.frames; if (!fName) return; if (fArray) { if (fArray.length) { for (var i=0; i<fArray.length; i++) { alert('loop '+i); if (fArray[i]) { if (fArray[i].name==fName) return fArray[i]; } } } } var tmp=document.getElementsByName(fName); if (tmp[0]) { alert('returning '+tmp[0]); if (!(tmp[0].contentWindow)) alert('contentWindow is null'); return tmp[0].contentWindow; } } And finally, this button is meant to print the content of the Object element: <input type="button" value="Print" name="printBtn" onclick="getFrameByName(window,'resultIFrame').print();" The button works perfectly in Firefox. Opera is good enough, though it prints the main document instead of just the object. IE7 gives the following error details: Line: 57 Char: 1 Error: 'undefined' is null or not an object Line 57 is where the button's "input" tag starts in the HTML source. Thanks to the alert('contentWindow is null') call in the JS function, I know that the object I'm getting in IE has no contentWindow property. I have tried changing the object tag to an iframe tag. This changes the JS behaviour, but causes other issues such as the height attribute being ignored and the content not displaying. Sticking with an object tag, how can I get this Object's window in IE7?

    Read the article

  • What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

    - by durandai
    I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

    Read the article

  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

    Read the article

  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

    Read the article

  • Fill parent container

    - by manix
    After several hours of design battle I come to you for a hand. I am building a website for a night club as you can see. I can't get stretch the centered area (bordered by yellow color) to the bottom of the page where the footer start (the footer is the green top-bordered div). This happends because the content is not enought to fill the rest of heigh. This is my css html, body{ height: 100%; margin: 0 auto; } #container{ height: auto !important; height: 100%; margin: 0 auto -50px; /* as #footer height */ min-height: 100%; text-align: center; border: 5px solid blue; } #centered-container{ width: 950px; margin: 0 auto; text-align: left; border: 5px solid yellow; } #body-container{ border: 5px solid red; } #footer, .footer{ height: 50px; } #footer{ text-align: center; border-top: 5px solid green; } And this is my html markup <body> <div id="container"> <!-- BLUE BORDER --> <div id="centered-container"> <!-- YELLOW BORDER --> <div id="body-container"> <!-- RED BORDER --> </div> </div> <div class="footer"></div> <!-- GREEN BORDER --> </div> <div id="footer"></div> </body> Expected behaviour: Additional facts - The colored borders is just for debugging porpuses

    Read the article

  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

    Read the article

  • Ogre material scripts; how do I give a technique multiple lod_indexes?

    - by BlueNovember
    I have an Ogre material script that defines 4 rendering techniques. 1 using GLSL shaders, then 3 others that just use textures of different resolutions. I want to use the GLSL shader unconditionally if the graphics card supports it, and the other 3 textures depending on camera distance. At the moment my script is; material foo { lod_distances 1600 2000 technique shaders { lod_index 0 lod_index 1 lod_index 2 //various passes here } technique high_res { lod_index 0 //various passes here } technique medium_res { lod_index 1 //various passes here } technique low_res { lod_index 2 //various passes here } Extra information The Ogre manual says; Increasing indexes denote lower levels of detail You can (and often will) assign more than one technique to the same LOD index, what this means is that OGRE will pick the best technique of the ones listed at the same LOD index. OGRE determines which one is 'best' by which one is listed first. Currently, on a machine supporting the GLSL version I am using, the script behaves as follows; Camera 2000 : Shader technique Camera 1600 <= 2000 : Medium Camera <= 1600 : High If I change the lod order in shader technique to { lod_index 2 lod_index 1 lod_index 0 } The behaviour becomes; Camera 2000 : Low Camera 1600 <= 2000 : Medium Camera <= 1600 : Shader implying only the latest lod_index is used. If I change it to lod_index 0 1 2 It shouts at me Compiler error: fewer parameters expected in foo.material(#): lod_index only supports 1 argument So how do I specify a technique to have 3 lod_indexes? Duplication works; technique shaders { lod_index 0 //various passes here } technique shaders1 { lod_index 1 //passes repeated here } technique shaders2 { lod_index 2 //passes repeated here } ...but it's ugly.

    Read the article

  • git rebase without changing commit timestamps

    - by Olivier
    Would it make sense to perform git rebase while preserving the commit timestamps? I believe a consequence would be that the new branch will not necessarily have commit dates chronologically. Is that theoretically possible at all? (e.g. using plumbing commands; just curious here) If it is theoretically possible, then is it possible in practice with rebase, not to change the timestamps? For example, assume I have the following tree: master <jun 2010> | : : : oldbranch <feb 1984> : / oldcommit <jan 1984> Now, if I rebase oldbranch on master, the date of the commit changes from feb 1984 to jun 2010. Is it possible to change that behaviour so that the commit timestamp is not changed? In the end I would thus obtain: oldbranch <feb 1984> / master <jun 2010> | : Would that make sense at all? Is it even allowed in git to have a history where an old commit has a more recent commit as a parent? Edit A crucial question of Von C helped me understand what is going on: when your rebase, the committer's timestamp changes, but not the author's timestamp, which suddenly all makes sense. So my question was actually not precise enough. The answer is that rebase actually doesn't change the author's timestamps (you don't need to do anything for that), which suits me perfectly.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103  | Next Page >