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  • pure/const functions in C++

    - by Albert
    Hi, I'm thinking of using pure/const functions more heavily in my C++ code. (pure/const attribute in GCC) However, I am curious how strict I should be about it and what could possibly break. The most obvious case are debug outputs (in whatever form, could be on cout, in some file or in some custom debug class). I probably will have a lot of functions, which don't have any side effects despite this sort of debug output. No matter if the debug output is made or not, this will absolutely have no effect on the rest of my application. Or another case I'm thinking of is the use of my own SmartPointer class. In debug mode, my SmartPointer class has some global register where it does some extra checks. If I use such an object in a pure/const function, it does have some slight side effects (in the sense that some memory probably will be different) which should not have any real side effects though (in the sense that the behaviour is in any way different). Similar also for mutexes and other stuff. I can think of many complex cases where it has some side effects (in the sense of that some memory will be different, maybe even some threads are created, some filesystem manipulation is made, etc) but has no computational difference (all those side effects could very well be left out and I would even prefer that). How does it work out in practice? If I mark such functions as pure/const, could it break anything (considering that the code is all correct)?

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  • Why is partial specialziation of a nested class template allowed, while complete isn't?

    - by drhirsch
    template<int x> struct A { template<int y> struct B {};. template<int y, int unused> struct C {}; }; template<int x> template<> struct A<x>::B<x> {}; // error: enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized template<int x> template<int unused> struct A<x>::C<x, unused> {}; // ok So why is the explicit specialization of a inner, nested class (or function) not allowed, if the outer class isn't specialiced too? Strange enough, I can work around this behaviour if I only partially specialize the inner class with simply adding a dummy template parameter. Makes things uglier and more complex, but it works. Note: I need this feature for recursive templates of the inner class for a set of the outer class. To make things even more complicate, in reality I only need a template function instead of the inner class. But partial specialization of functions is generally disallowed somewhere else in the standard ^^

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  • Strange(?) Opera Floating

    - by SkaveRat
    I have some strange floating behaviour on opera (IE f's up completely different, but that's for later). I'm floating the i-icons to the right. It works nicely on Fx and WebKit, but opera shifts the icons down a bit. Anyone got an idea how this happenes? CSS: .dataRow { margin: 5px 0; clear:right; } .dataRow label{ display: block; float:left; width: 160px; vertical-align: middle; font-size: 80%; } .dataGroup a img { border:0;float:right; position:relative; right:0; } .dataGroup a:hover { background:#EBEDC7; text-decoration:none; } .dataGroup a.tooltip span { display:none; padding:2px 3px; margin-top:20px; width:100px; font-size: 80%; } .dataGroup a.tooltip:hover span { display:inline; position:absolute; border:1px solid #632D11; background:#C2BD6C; color:#fff; } HTML: <fieldset class="dataGroup"> <div class="dataRow"><label>Foobar:</label> <input name="foobar" size="10" value="somedata" /> <a href="#" class="tooltip"><img src="/img/admin/information.png"/><span>Tooltip Info</span></a></div> </fieldset>

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  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

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  • Excess errors on model from somewhere

    - by gmile
    I have a User model, and use an acts_as_authentic (from authlogic) on it. My User model have 3 validations on username and looks as following: User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic validates_presence_of :username validates_length_of :username, :within => 4..40 validates_uniqueness_of :username end I'm writing a test to see my validations in action. Somehow, I get 2 errors instead of one when validating a uniqueness of a name. To see excess error, I do the following test: describe User do before(:each) do @user = Factory.build(:user) end it "should have a username longer then 3 symbols" do @user2 = Factory(:user) @user.username = @user2.username @user.save puts @user.errors.inspect end end I got 2 errors on username: @errors={"username"=>["has already been taken", "has already been taken"]}. Somehow the validation passes two times. I think authlogic causes that, but I don't have a clue on how to avoid that. Another case of problem is when I set username to nil. Somehow I get four validation errors instead of three: @errors={"username"=>["is too short (minimum is 3 characters)", "should use only letters, numbers, spaces, and .-_@ please.", "can't be blank", "is too short (minimum is 4 characters)"]} I think authlogic is one that causes this strange behaviour. But I can't even imagine on how to solve that. Any ideas?

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  • Multiple dispatching issue

    - by user1440263
    I try to be synthetic: I'm dispatching an event from a MovieClip (customized symbol in library) this way: public function _onMouseDown(e:MouseEvent){ var obj = {targetClips:["tondo"],functionString:"testFF"}; dispatchEvent(new BridgeEvent(BridgeEvent.BRIDGE_DATA,obj)); } The BridgeEvent class is the following: package events { import flash.events.EventDispatcher; import flash.events.Event; public class BridgeEvent extends Event { public static const BRIDGE_DATA:String = "BridgeData"; public var data:*; public function BridgeEvent(type:String, data:*) { this.data = data; super(type, true); } } } The document class listens to the event this way: addEventListener(BridgeEvent.BRIDGE_DATA,eventSwitcher); In eventSwitcher method I have a simple trace("received"). What happens: when I click the MovieClip the trace action gets duplicated and the output window writes many "received" (even if the click is only one). What happens? How do I prevent this behaviour? What is causing this? Any help is appreciated. [SOLVED] I'm sorry, you will not believe this. A colleague, to make me a joke, converted the MOUSE_DOWN handler to MOUSE_OVER.

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  • How to get a template tag to auto-check a checkbox in Django

    - by Daniel Quinn
    I'm using a ModelForm class to generate a bunch of checkboxes for a ManyToManyField but I've run into one problem: while the default behaviour automatically checks the appropriate boxes (when I'm editing an object), I can't figure out how to get that information in my own custom templatetag. Here's what I've got in my model: ... from django.forms import CheckboxSelectMultiple, ModelMultipleChoiceField interests = ModelMultipleChoiceField(widget=CheckboxSelectMultiple(), queryset=Interest.objects.all(), required=False) ... And here's my templatetag: @register.filter def alignboxes(boxes, cls): """ Details on how this works can be found here: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.1/howto/custom-template-tags/ """ r = "" i = 0 for box in boxes.field.choices.queryset: r += "<label for=\"id_%s_%d\" class=\"%s\"><input type=\"checkbox\" name=\"%s\" value=\"%s\" id=\"id_%s_%d\" /> %s</label>\n" % ( boxes.name, i, cls, boxes.name, box.id, boxes.name, i, box.name ) i = i + 1 return mark_safe(r) The thing is, I'm only doing this so I can wrap some simpler markup around these boxes, so if someone knows how to make that happen in an easier way, I'm all ears. I'd be happy with knowing a way to access whether or not a box should be checked though.

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  • Cross-domain data access in JavaScript

    - by vit
    We have an ASP.Net application hosted on our network and exposed to a specific client. This client wants to be able to import data from their own server into our application. The data is retrieved with an HTTP request and is CSV formatted. The problem is that they do not want to expose their server to our network and are requesting the import to be done on the client side (all clients are from the same network as their server). So, what needs to be done is: They request an import page from our server The client script on the page issues a request to their server to get CSV formatted data The data is sent back to our application This is not a challenge when both servers are on the same domain: a simple hidden iframe or something similar will do the trick, but here what I'm getting is a cross-domain "access denied" error. They also refuse to change the data format to return JSON or XML formatted data. What I tried and learned so far is: Hidden iframe -- "access denied" XMLHttpRequest -- behaviour depends on the browser security settings: may work, may work while nagging a user with security warnings, or may not work at all Dynamic script tags -- would have worked if they could have returned data in JSON format IE client data binding -- the same "access denied" error Is there anything else I can try before giving up and saying that it will not be possible without exposing their server to our application, changing their data format or changing their browser security settings? (DNS trick is not an option, by the way).

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • How to link jQuery UI datepicker functionality with a select list

    - by take2
    I'm trying to connect jQuery UI's datepicker with a select list. I have found one explanation on jQuery's Forum ( forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-ui-datepicker-with-select-lists), but I can't get it working. There are input and select list both declared: <select id="selectMonth"><option value="01">Jan</option><option value="02">Feb</option> <option value="03">Mar</option><option value="04">Apr</option>...</select> <select id="selectDay"><option value="01">1</option><option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option><option value="04">4</option>...</select> <select id="selectYear"><option value="2012">2012</option><option value="2013">2013</option> <option value="2014">2014</option>...</select> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="selectedDatepicker" /></p> This is the script: $(function() { $('#selectedDatepicker').datepicker({ beforeShow: readSelected, onSelect: updateSelected, minDate: new Date(2012, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2014, 12 - 1, 31), showOn: 'both', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'img/calendar.gif'}); // Prepare to show a date picker linked to three select controls function readSelected() { $('#selectedDatepicker').val($('#selectMonth').val() + '/' + $('#selectDay').val() + '/' + $('#selectYear').val()); return {}; } // Update three select controls to match a date picker selection function updateSelected(date) { $('#selectMonth').val(date.substring(0, 2)); $('#selectDay').val(date.substring(3, 5)); $('#selectYear').val(date.substring(6, 10)); } }); And here is the fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/xKXZm/ They are not connected properly, the only "connected behaviour" is that when you click on the input button, it picks up the value of the select list. On the other hand, the select list never picks up the value of the input nor will the input pick up the value of the select list until you click on it.

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  • Is it safe to silently catch ClassCastException when searching for a specific value?

    - by finnw
    Suppose I am implementing a sorted collection (simple example - a Set based on a sorted array.) Consider this (incomplete) implementation: import java.util.*; public class SortedArraySet<E> extends AbstractSet<E> { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public SortedArraySet(Collection<E> source, Comparator<E> comparator) { this.comparator = (Comparator<Object>) comparator; this.array = source.toArray(); Collections.sort(Arrays.asList(array), this.comparator); } @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } private final Object[] array; private final Comparator<Object> comparator; } Now let's create a set of integers Set<Integer> s = new SortedArraySet<Integer>(Arrays.asList(1, 2, 3), null); And test whether it contains some specific values: System.out.println(s.contains(2)); System.out.println(s.contains(42)); System.out.println(s.contains("42")); The third line above will throw a ClassCastException. Not what I want. I would prefer it to return false (as HashSet does.) I can get this behaviour by catching the exception and returning false: @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { try { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } catch (ClassCastException e) { return false; } } Assuming the source collection is correctly typed, what could go wrong if I do this?

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  • Semantically correct XHTML markup

    - by Dori
    Hello all. Just trying to get the hang of using the semantically correct XHTML markup. Just writing the code for a small navigation item. Where each button has effectivly a title and a descrption. I thought a definition list would therefore be great so i wrote the following <dl> <dt>Import images</dt> <dd>Read in new image names to database</dd> <dt>Exhibition Management</dt> <dd>Create / Delete an exhibition </dd> <dt>Image Management</dt> <dd>Edit name, medium and exhibition data </dd> </dl> But...I want the above to be 3 buttons, each button containing the dt and dd text. How can i do this with the correct code? Normally i would make each button a div and use that for the visual button behaviour (onHover and current page selection stuff). Any advice please Thanks

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  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

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  • Partial template specialization for more than one typename

    - by Matt Joiner
    In the following code, I want to consider functions (Ops) that have void return to instead be considered to return true. The type Retval, and the return value of Op are always matching. I'm not able to discriminate using the type traits shown here, and attempts to create a partial template specialization based on Retval have failed due the presence of the other template variables, Op and Args. How do I specialize only some variables in a template specialization without getting errors? Is there any other way to alter behaviour based on the return type of Op? template <typename Retval, typename Op, typename... Args> Retval single_op_wrapper( Retval const failval, char const *const opname, Op const op, Cpfs &cpfs, Args... args) { try { CallContext callctx(cpfs, opname); Retval retval; if (std::is_same<bool, Retval>::value) { (callctx.*op)(args...); retval = true; } else { retval = (callctx.*op)(args...); } assert(retval != failval); callctx.commit(cpfs); return retval; } catch (CpfsError const &exc) { cpfs_errno_set(exc.fserrno); LOGF(Info, "Failed with %s", cpfs_errno_str(exc.fserrno)); } return failval; }

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  • MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

    - by cbp
    Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • NSTableView with columns bound to different NSArrayControllers

    - by Vyacheslav Karpukhin
    i have NSTableView and two columns in it: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; as you can see, columns bound to different NSArrayControllers. first column shows correct values, but second just shows "(" symbol. but if i swap columns like this: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; then i see values of first column (which was second in the first example) and again "(" in the second column. i don't understand that behaviour. how can i bound two array controllers to one table?

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

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  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

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  • maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

    - by Vikas
    I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • GUI blocked while running silent app VC++

    - by deb
    Hi, I have built a GUI interface in C++ (Windows XP, visual c++ 2008). There you can configure some parameters and when I click on the OK button, a silent application is launched (and uses the values setted). When I do this, the GUI frozes and even dissappears if you switch to other windows(it's still there, but you can only see a white space), when the other application's finished the GUI works again. This is the correct behaviour, I don't want the user to be able to edit the fields... but it's a bit ugly when you can't see the GUI. Does anybody know an easy way of being able to switch to other windows and being able to see the the GUI when you switch back? Thanks in advance Edited: Hi, I tried doing this, but the problem is that to run the apps in background I had a function that uses CreateProcess. So both ways the GUI gets frozen: if I create a Thread that creates the process and if I creathe the process directly. Then I wait for the process to finish: if (!CreateProcess( NULL, Args, NULL, NULL, FALSE, CREATE_NEW_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &StartupInfo, &ProcessInfo)) { return GetLastError(); } WaitForSingleObject(ProcessInfo.hProcess, INFINITE); if(!GetExitCodeProcess(ProcessInfo.hProcess, &rc)) rc = 0; Any idea?

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  • How Session out trigger on browser close?

    - by Hemant Kothiyal
    Hi, Yesterday morning i open gmail account in Internet Exlorer second tab. I checked my mail and closed that tab (not browser). Then at the time of evining i again open second tab of browser and enetr gmail.com, it automatically redirect me at my email account without asking login. I shocked and i thought i should remain browser open for whole night and today open gmail in second tab , it behave similar means without login screen it redirect in my gmail account. Then i closed that tab and open another browser session and enter gmail i again surprised that i redirect me login page. At the same time i open second tab of first browser and it automatically redirect me at mail account page. What i councluded by this behaviour is that might be gmail server keep my browser id at their server so that whenever i eneter gmail.com on second tab of first browser, it automatically redirect me at gmail account. I don't know i am right or not? Please clear me this concept? What happens with my session at gmail server when i closed my browser tab? As per my opinion it should automatically logout me but why this doesn't happened?

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