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• Reliable way of generating unique hardware ID

  - by mr.b

  Question: what's the best way to accomplish following. I have to come up with unique ID for each networked client, such that: it (ID) should persist once client software is installed on target computer, and should continue to persist if software is re-installed on same computer and same OS installment, it should not change if hardware configuration is modified in most ways (except changing the motherboard) When hard drive with client software installed is cloned to another computer with identical hardware configuration (or, as similar as possible), client software should be aware of that change. A little bit of explanation and some back-story: This question is basically age old question that also touches topic of software copy-protection, as some of mechanisms used in that area are mentioned here. I should be clear at this point that I'm not looking for a copy-protection scheme. Please, read on. :) I'm working on a client-server software that is supposed to work in local network. One of problems I have to solve is to identify each unique client in network (not so much of a problem), so that I can apply certain attributes to every specific client, retain and enforce those attributes during deployment lifetime of a specific client. While I was looking for a solution, I was aware of following: Windows activation system uses some kind of heavy fingerprinting mechanism, that is extremely sensitive to hardware modifications, Disk imaging software copies along all Volume IDs (tied to each partition when formatted), and custom, uniquely generated IDs during installation process, during first run, or in any other way, that is strictly software in its nature, and stored in registry or on hard drive, so it's very easy to confuse two Obvious choice for this kind of problem would be to find out BIOS identifiers (not 100% sure if this is unique through identical motherboard models, though), as that's the only thing I can rely on, that isn't duplicated, transferred by cloning, and that can't be changed (at least not by using some user-space program). Everything else fails as either being not reliable (MAC cloning, anyone?), or too demanding (in terms that it's too sensitive to configuration changes). Am I missing something obvious here? Sub-question that I'd like to ask is, am I doing it correctly, architecture-wise? Perhaps there is a better tool for task that I have to accomplish... Another approach I had in mind is something similar to handshake mechanism, where server maintains internal lookup table of connected client IDs (which can be even completely software-based and non-unique at any given moment), and tells client to come up with different ID during handshake, if duplicate ID is provided upon connection. That approach, unfortunately, doesn't play nicely with one of requirements to tie attributes to specific client during lifetime.

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• Tactics for using PHP in a high-load site

  - by Ross

  Before you answer this I have never developed anything popular enough to attain high server loads. Treat me as (sigh) an alien that has just landed on the planet, albeit one that knows PHP and a few optimisation techniques. I'm developing a tool in PHP that could attain quite a lot of users, if it works out right. However while I'm fully capable of developing the program I'm pretty much clueless when it comes to making something that can deal with huge traffic. So here's a few questions on it (feel free to turn this question into a resource thread as well). Databases At the moment I plan to use the MySQLi features in PHP5. However how should I setup the databases in relation to users and content? Do I actually need multiple databases? At the moment everything's jumbled into one database - although I've been considering spreading user data to one, actual content to another and finally core site content (template masters etc.) to another. My reasoning behind this is that sending queries to different databases will ease up the load on them as one database = 3 load sources. Also would this still be effective if they were all on the same server? Caching I have a template system that is used to build the pages and swap out variables. Master templates are stored in the database and each time a template is called it's cached copy (a html document) is called. At the moment I have two types of variable in these templates - a static var and a dynamic var. Static vars are usually things like page names, the name of the site - things that don't change often; dynamic vars are things that change on each page load. My question on this: Say I have comments on different articles. Which is a better solution: store the simple comment template and render comments (from a DB call) each time the page is loaded or store a cached copy of the comments page as a html page - each time a comment is added/edited/deleted the page is recached. Finally Does anyone have any tips/pointers for running a high load site on PHP. I'm pretty sure it's a workable language to use - Facebook and Yahoo! give it great precedence - but are there any experiences I should watch out for? Thanks, Ross

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• Why Won't the WebSocket.onmessage Event Fire?

  - by SumWon

  Hey guys, After toying around with this for hours, I simply cannot find a solution. I'm working on a WebSocket server using "node.js" for a canvas based online game I'm developing. My game can connect to the server just fine, it accepts the handshake and can even send messages to the server. However, when the server responds to the client, the client doesn't get the message. No errors, nothing, it just sits there peacefully. I've ripped apart my code, trying everything I could think of to fix this, but alas, nothing. Here's a stripped copy of my server code. As I said before, the handshake works fine, the server receives data fine, but sending data back to the client does not. var sys = require('sys'), net = require('net'); var server = net.createServer(function (stream) { stream.setEncoding('utf8'); var shaken = 0; stream.addListener('connect', function () { sys.puts("New connection from: "+stream.remoteAddress); }); stream.addListener('data', function (data) { if (!shaken) { sys.puts("Handshaking..."); //Send handshake: stream.write( "HTTP/1.1 101 Web Socket Protocol Handshake\r\n"+ "Upgrade: WebSocket\r\n"+ "Connection: Upgrade\r\n"+ "WebSocket-Origin: http://192.168.1.113\r\n"+ "WebSocket-Location: ws://192.168.1.71:7070/\r\n\r\n"); shaken=1; sys.puts("Handshaking complete."); } else { //Message received, respond with 'testMessage' var d = "testMessage"; var m = '\u0000' + d + '\uffff'; sys.puts("Sending '"+m+"' to client"); var result = stream.write(m, "utf8"); sys.puts(result); /* Result comes as true, meaning that it pushed the data out. Why isn't the client seeing it?!? */ } }); stream.addListener('end', function () { sys.puts("Connection closed!"); stream.end(); }); }); server.listen(7070); sys.puts("Server Started!");

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• C# file Decryption - Bad Data

  - by Jon

  Hi all, I am in the process of rewriting an old application. The old app stored data in a scoreboard file that was encrypted with the following code: private const String SSecretKey = @"?B?n?Mj?"; public DataTable GetScoreboardFromFile() { FileInfo f = new FileInfo(scoreBoardLocation); if (!f.Exists) { return setupNewScoreBoard(); } DESCryptoServiceProvider DES = new DESCryptoServiceProvider(); //A 64 bit key and IV is required for this provider. //Set secret key For DES algorithm. DES.Key = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(SSecretKey); //Set initialization vector. DES.IV = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(SSecretKey); //Create a file stream to read the encrypted file back. FileStream fsread = new FileStream(scoreBoardLocation, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); //Create a DES decryptor from the DES instance. ICryptoTransform desdecrypt = DES.CreateDecryptor(); //Create crypto stream set to read and do a //DES decryption transform on incoming bytes. CryptoStream cryptostreamDecr = new CryptoStream(fsread, desdecrypt, CryptoStreamMode.Read); DataTable dTable = new DataTable("scoreboard"); dTable.ReadXml(new StreamReader(cryptostreamDecr)); cryptostreamDecr.Close(); fsread.Close(); return dTable; } This works fine. I have copied the code into my new app so that I can create a legacy loader and convert the data into the new format. The problem is I get a "Bad Data" error: System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException was unhandled Message="Bad Data.\r\n" Source="mscorlib" The error fires at this line: dTable.ReadXml(new StreamReader(cryptostreamDecr)); The encrypted file was created today on the same machine with the old code. I guess that maybe the encryption / decryption process uses the application name / file or something and therefore means I can not open it. Does anyone have an idea as to: A) Be able explain why this isn't working? B) Offer a solution that would allow me to be able to open files that were created with the legacy application and be able to convert them please? Thank you

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• How do I merge a transient entity with a session using Castle ActiveRecordMediator?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have a Store and a Product entity: public class Store { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public ISet<Product> Products { get; set; } } public class Product { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public Store ParentStore { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } In other words, I have a Store that can contain multiple Products in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. I'm sending data back and forth between a web browser and a web service. The following steps emulates the communication between the two, using session-per-request. I first save a new instance of a Store: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var store = new Store { Id = Guid.Empty }; ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Then I grab the store out of the DB, add a new product to it, and then save it: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Name = "Apples" }); var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Up to this point, everything works well. Now I want to update the Product I just saved: using (new SessionScope()) { // data from browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Version = 1, Name = "Grapes" }; var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); // throws exception on this call ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } When I try to update the product, I get the following exception: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000, of entity:Product" As I understand it, the problem is that when I get the Store out of the database, it also gets the Product that's associated with it. Both entities are persistent. Then I tried to save a transient Product (the one that has the updated info from the browser) that has the same ID as the one that's already associated with the session, and an exception is thrown. However, I don't know how to get around this problem. If I could get access to a NHibernate.ISession, I could call ISession.Merge() on it, but it doesn't look like ActiveRecordMediator has anything similar (SaveCopy threw the same exception). Does anyone know the solution? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Is MVVM pointless?

  - by joebeazelman

  Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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• C++ How to deep copy a struct with unknown datatype?

  - by Ewald Peters

  hi, i have a "data provider" which stores its output in a struct of a certain type, for instance struct DATA_TYPE1{ std::string data_string; }; then this struct has to be casted into a general datatype, i thought about void * or char *, because the "intermediate" object that copies and stores it in its binary tree should be able to store many different types of such struct data. struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ void * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; this void * is then later taken by another object that casts the void * back into the (struct DATA_TYPE1 *) to get the original data. so the sender and the receiver know about the datatype DATA_TYPE1 but not the copying object inbetween. but how can the intermidiate object deep copy the contents of the different structs, when it doesn't know the datatype, only void * and it has no method to copy the real contents; dynamic_cast doesn't work for void *; the "intermediate" object should do something like: void store_data(void * CASTED_DATA_STRUCT){ void * DATA_COPY = create_a_deepcopy_of(CASTED_DATA_STRUCT); push_into_bintree(DATA_COPY); } a simple solution would be that the sending object doesn't delete the sent data struct, til the receiving object got it, but the sending objects are dynamically created and deleted, before the receiver got the data from the intermediate object, for asynchronous communication, therefore i want to copy it. instead of converting it to void * i also tried converting to a superclass pointer of which the intermediate copying object knows about, and which is inherited by all the different datatypes of the structs: struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT{ public: DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} DATA_BASE_OBJECT(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * old_ptr){ std::cout << "this should be automatically overridden!" << std::endl; } virtual ~DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} }; struct DATA_TYPE1 : public DATA_BASE_OBJECT { public: string str; DATA_TYPE1(){} ~DATA_TYPE1(){} DATA_TYPE1(DATA_TYPE1 * old_ptr){ str = old_ptr->str; } }; and the corresponding binary tree entry would then be: struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; and to then copy the unknown datatype, i tried in the class that just gets the unknown datatype as a struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * (before it was the void *): void * copy_data(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct){ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * copy_sub = new DATA_BASE_OBJECT(data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct); push_into_bintree(copy_sub); } i then added a copy constructor to the DATA_BASE_OBJECT, but if the struct DATA_TYPE1 is first casted to a DATA_BASE_OBJECT and then copied, the included sub object DATA_TYPE1 is not also copied. i then thought what about finding out the size of the actual object to copy and then just memcopy it, but the bytes are not stored in one row and how do i find out the real size in memory of the struct DATA_TYPE1 which holds a std::string? Which other c++ methods are available to deepcopy an unknown datatype (and to maybe get the datatype information somehow else during runtime) thanks Ewald

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• WCF Timeout issue - should there even be a socket connection?

  - by stiank81

  I have a .Net application which is split into a client and server side. The communication between them is handled using WCF. I'm not using the automagic service references, but instead I've built the connection manually like described in the Screencast by Miguel Castro. Summarized this means that I create a console application on the server side that holds ServiceHost objects for the different services: var myServiceHost = new System.ServiceModel.ServiceHost(typeof(MyService), new Uri("net.tcp://localhost:8002")); myServiceHost.Open(); And on the client side I have service proxies creating channels using the ChannelFactory: IMyService proxy = new ChannelFactory<IMyService>("MyServiceEndpoint").CreateChannel(); The client and server side share the service contract defined in the interface IMyService. And another advantage is that I get minimal App.config files - without all the autogenerated stuff created through the Service References. Example from client side: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:8002/MyEndpoint" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="IMyService" name="MyServiceEndpoint"/> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> So - to my problem. I create the proxy once, and it holds a channel all the way through the application. However, if I leave the application without use for a few minutes the channel has timed out, and I get the following exception: The socket connection was aborted. This could be caused by an error processing your message or a receive timeout being exceeded by the remote host, or an underlying network resource issue. Local socket timeout was '00:00:59.9979998'. How do I prevent this? I'm assuming I need to specify a higher timeout in my configuration? But I don't want it to ever time out. But on the other hand - I don't want a socket connection! Do I need one? Thought I could go connection less with WCF... What's the permanent solution and best practice on solving this? Set timeout to "never".. Create a new channel for each request? I'm assuming there is some overhead creating the channel?.. Increase the timeout to e.g. 5minutes and create new channel if the connection did timeout? Make it connection less somehow? (Without the overhead of creating channels..) Something else...

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• How to show / hide all tags with the same class with Java Script?

  - by Roger

  I need a javascrit function that shows/hides all span tags with a specific class (t1, t2 or t3) in a HTML document. Example: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function sh(t){//show_hide(text number class) //??? } //--> </script> <div id='C'> <p> <span class="P"> Normal allways visible text. <span class="t1">Text 1</span> <span class="t2">Text 2</span> <span class="t3">Text 3</span> Normal allways visible text. <span> </p> <p> <span class="P"> Normal allways visible text. <span class="t1">Text 1</span> <span class="t2">Text 2</span> <span class="t3">Text 3</span> Normal (allways visible text. <span> </p> <p><span>Normal allways visible text.</span></p> </div> The function sh (show hide) could be trigerred like this: <p>Show: <a href="#" onclick="sh('t1');">text 1</a> | <a href="#" onclick="sh(t2);">text 2</a> | <a href="#" onclick="sh(t3);">text 3</a></p> An important detail is that when the span class t1 is visible, all other span class t2 and t3 are hidden. The default is to have all span class t1 visible at the first load. Till now, the only solution I found was this one (a bit too complicated though). Thanks a lot. The folks are using these links to help visualize the effect of the code: http://jsfiddle.net/v3vWM/ http://jsfiddle.net/tEUYC/ http://jsfiddle.net/RpVUN/

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• UITableView having one Cell with multiple UITextFields (some of them in one row) scrolling crazy

  - by Allisone

  I have a UITableView (grouped). In that tableview I have several UITableViewCells, some custom with nib, some default. One Cell (custom) with nib has several UITextfields for address information, thus also one row has zip-code and city in one row. When I get the keyboard the tableview size seems to be adjusted automatically (vs. another viewController in the app with just a scrollview where I had to code this functionality on my own) so that i can scroll to the bottom of my tableview (and see it) even though the keyboard is up. That's good. BUT when I click on a textfield the tableview gets either scrolled up, or down, I can't figure out the logic. It seems to be rather random up/down scrolling / contentOffset setting. So I have bound the Editing Did Begin events of the textfields to a function that has this code. - (IBAction)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { CGPoint pt; CGRect rc = [textField bounds]; rc = [textField convertRect:rc toView:self.tableView]; pt = rc.origin; pt.x = 0; [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; ... } This, well, it seems to work most of the time, BUT it doesn't work if I click the first textfield (the view jumps so that the second row gets to the top and the first row is out of the current visible view frame) AND it also doesn't work if I first select the zip textfield and next the city textfield (both in one row) or vice versa. If I do so, the tableview seems to jump to the (grouped tableview) top of my viewForHeaderInSection(this section with this mentioned cell with all my textfields) What is is going on ? Why is this happening ? How to fix this ? Edit This on the other hand behaves as expected (for the two Textviews wit same origin.y) if (self.tableView.contentOffset.y == pt.y) { pt.y = pt.y + 1; [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; }else { [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; } But this is a stupid solution. I wouldn't like to keep it that way. And this also doesn't fix the wrong jumping, when clicking the first textfield at first.

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• CruiseControl.Net Publisher email failing to send e-mail

  - by CrimsonX

  So here's my problem: I cannot seem to be able to configure CruiseControl.NET to send out an e-mail to me when a build occurs. I copied the example from the documentation and filled it in with my own values. http://confluence.public.thoughtworks.org/display/CCNET/Email+Publisher Here's the relevant section of ccnet.config below <publishers> <merge> <files> <file>C:\Build\Temp\*.xml</file> </files> </merge> <xmllogger logDir="buildlogs" /> <statistics> <statisticList> <statistic /> </statisticList> </statistics> <email includeDetails="TRUE" mailhostUsername="user" mailhostPassword="password" useSSL="TRUE"> <from>[email protected]</from> <mailhost>mail.mycompanysmtpserver.com</mailhost> <users> <user name="MyName Lastname" group="buildmaster" address="[email protected]" /> </users> <groups> <group name="buildmaster"> <notifications> <notificationType>Always</notificationType> </notifications> </group> </groups> <modifierNotificationTypes> <NotificationType>Failed</NotificationType> <NotificationType>Fixed</NotificationType> </modifierNotificationTypes> <subjectSettings> <subject buildResult="StillBroken" value="Build is still broken for {CCNetProject}" /> </subjectSettings> </email> </publishers> I have had a successful CruiseControl.NET server configured for some time, and it successfully updates people through CCTray, but I need to add e-mail support as well. I've already looked at the relevant StackOverflow articles like this one and many more and tried my hand at googling the solution but I dont know what I could be doing wrong. The only other thing that I'd like to validate is that I can send/receive e-mails using my username/password with the SMTP server I received from IT (my mail works properly) but I just followed the steps on testing an SMTP server here and everything looks fine http://support.microsoft.com/kb/153119 Anyone have any ideas as to why I'm getting this problem, or how to troubleshoot it further?

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• Nhibernate: One-To-Many mapping problem - Cannot cascade delete without inverse. Set NULL error

  - by KnaveT

  Hi, I have the current scenario whereby an Article has only 1 Outcome each. Each Article may or may not have an Outcome. In theory, this is a one-to-one mapping, but since NHibernate does not really support one-to-one, I used a One-To-Many to substitute. My Primary Key on the child table is actually the ArticleID (FK). So I have the following setup: Classes public class Article { public virtual Int32 ID { get;set;} private ICollection<ArticleOutcome> _Outcomes {get;set;} public virtual ArticleOutcome Outcome { get { if( this._Outcomes !=null && this._Outcomes.Count > 0 ) return this._Outcomes.First(); return null; } set { if( value == null ) { if( this._Outcomes !=null && this._Outcomes.Count > 0 ) this._Outcomes.Clear(); } else { if( this._Outcomes == null ) this._Outcomes = new HashSet<ArticleOutcome>(); else if ( this._Outcomes.Count >= 1 ) this._Outcomes.Clear(); this._Outcomes.Add( value ); } } } } public class ArticleOutcome { public virtual Int32 ID { get;set; } public virtual Article ParentArticle { get;set;} } Mappings public class ArticleMap : ClassMap<Article> { public ArticleMap() { this.Id( x=> x.ID ).GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.HasMany<ArticleOutcome>( Reveal.Property<Article>("_Outcomes") ) .AsSet().KeyColumn("ArticleID") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() //Cascade.All() doesn't work too. .LazyLoad() .Fetch.Select(); } } public class ArticleOutcomeMap : ClassMap<ArticleOutcome> { public ArticleOutcomeMap(){ this.Id( x=> x.ID, "ArticleID").GeneratedBy.Foreign("ParentArticle"); this.HasOne( x=> x.ParentArticle ).Constrained (); //This do not work also. //this.References( x=> x.ParentArticle, "ArticleID" ).Not.Nullable(); } } Now my problem is this: It works when I do an insert/update of the Outcome. e.g. var article = new Article(); article.Outcome = new ArticleOutcome { xxx = "something" }; session.Save( article ); However, I encounter SQL errors when attempting to delete via the Article itself. var article = session.Get( 123 ); session.Delete( article ); //throws SQL error. The error is something to the like of Cannot insert NULL into ArticleID in ArticleOutcome table. The deletion works if I place Inverse() to the Article's HasMany() mapping, but insertion will fail. Does anyone have a solution for this? Or do I really have to add a surrogate key to the ArticleOutcome table?

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• Streaming Video with Blackberry Simulator

  - by Jenny

  So, I wrote a quick little app for the iphone that takes in an http URL, and plays the .mp4 video located at that URL (it does more than that, of course, but that's the meat of it). Naturally, I wanted to have it on more than just a single mobile platform, so I decided to target Blackberry next. However, I'm running into a lot of problems with the Blackberry Environment. First of all, I learn that I can only download 256k files! I learn how to set that variable in my MDS simulator (and learn that this is NOT a production solution, because any end users will have to have their BES or MDS admin change the setting there). Then, I find a video less than 2 MB I can practice with. Going to the browser prompts me to save the video (rather than it playing in the browser like I expected). After saving the video, it refuses to play, saying it's the wrong format. So. I can't find a reference to IF Blackberry can stream with HTTP (i"ve heard it CAN use RTSP, though, and heard some rumors that it can't use HTTP, which would really suck). I also can't find a reference to what format blackberry uses (although I can find a million programs that will convert one file to the 'blackberry' format). Surely SOMEONE must have tried to stream video with the blackberry before. How did they go about doing so? Is it just a hopeless pipedream? Will I have to go with RTSP? Sorry for the lack of a concrete question...I'm just really lost, and I hate how so many tutorials or forum posts seem to assume I know the capabilities of the Blackberry... Edit: I finally found out that the .3gp (which I'd never heard of ) format is what Blackberry uses. Still have no idea how to stream videos off the web, though. I found a tutorial: http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 That seemed to be useful, but the code doesn't work if you give it a URL (even though it claims it does).

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• Jason/ajax web service call get redirected (302 Object moved) and then 500 unknow webservice name

  - by user646499

  I have been struggling with this for some times.. I searched around but didnt get a solution yet. This is only an issue on production server. In my development environment, everything works just fine. I am using JQuery/Ajax to update product information based on product's Color attribute. for example, a product has A and B color, the price for color A is different from color B. When user choose different color, the price information is updated as well. What I did is to first add a javascript function: function updateProductVariant() { var myval = jQuery("#<%=colorDropDownList.ClientID%").val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById", data: "{variantId:'" + myval + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var obj = jQuery.parseJSON(response.d); jQuery("#<%=lblStockAvailablity.ClientID%>").text(obj.StockMessage); jQuery(".price .productPrice").text(obj.CurrentPrice); jQuery(".price .oldProductPrice").text(obj.OldPrice); } }); } Then I can register the dropdown list's 'onclick' event point to function 'updateProductVariant' GetVariantInfoById is a WebGet method in the codebehind, its also very straightforward: [WebMethod] public static string GetVariantInfoById(string variantId) { int id = Convert.ToInt32(variantId); ProductVariant productVariant = IoC.Resolve().GetProductVariantById(id); string stockMessage = productVariant.FormatStockMessage(); StringBuilder oBuilder = new StringBuilder(); oBuilder.Append("{"); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "StockMessage", stockMessage); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "OldPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.OldPrice)); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}""", "CurrentPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.Price)); oBuilder.Append("}"); return oBuilder.ToString(); } All these works fine on my local box, but if i upload to the production server, catching the traffic using fiddler, /Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById becomes a Get call instead of a POST On my local box, HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: ASP.NET Development Server/10.0.0.0 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 09:00:08 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 4.0.30319 Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 117 Connection: Close But when deployed on the host, it becomes HTTP/1.1 302 Found Proxy-Connection: Keep-Alive Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Length: 186 Via: 1.1 ADV-TMG-01 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 08:59:12 GMT Location: http://www.pocomaru.com/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET then of course, then it returns 500 error titleUnknown web method GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx.Parameter name: methodName Can someone please take a look? I think its some configuration in the production server which automatially redirects my webservice call to some other URL, but since the product server is out of my control, i am seeking a local fix for this. Thanks for the help!

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• Using Linq to filter a ComboBox.DataSource ?

  - by Pesche Helfer

  Hi board, in another topic, I've stumbled over this very elegant solution by Darin Dimitrov to filter the DataSource of one ComboBox with the selection of another ComboBox: how to filter combobox in combobox using c# combo2.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<string>)c.DataSource) .Where(x => x == (string)combo1.SelectedValue); I would like to do a similar thing, but intead of filtering by a second combobox, I would like to filter by the text of a TextBox. (Basically, instead of choosing from a second ComboBox, the user simply enters his filter in to a TextBox). However, it turned out to be not as straight forward as I had hoped it would be. I tried stuff as the following, but failed miserably: cbWohndresse.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<DataSet>)ds) .Where(x => x.Tables["Adresse"].Select("AdrLabel LIKE '%TEST%'")); cbWohndresse.DisplayMember = "Adresse.AdrLabel"; cbWohndresse.ValueMember = "Adresse.adress_id"; ds is the DataSet which I would like to use as filtered DataSource. "Adresse" is one DataTable in this DataSet. It contains a DataColumn "AdrLabel". Now I would like to display only those "AdrLabel", which contain the string from the user input. (Currently, %TEST% replaces the textbox.text.) The above code fails because the lambda expression does not return Bool. But I am sure, there are also other problems (which type should I use for IEnumerable? Now it's DataSet, but Darin used String. But how could I convert a DataSet to a string? Yes, I am as much newbyish as it gets, my experience is "void", and publicly so. So please forgive me my rather stupid questions. Your help is greatly appreciated, because I can't solve this on my own (tried hard already). Thank you very much! Pesche P.S. I am only using Linq to achieve an uncomplicated filter for the ComboBox (avoiding a View). The rest is not based on Linq, but on oldstyle Ado.NET (ds is filled by an SqlDataAdapter), if that's of any importance.

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• Jruby Gems-in-a-jar issue

  - by antonio

  Hi all, I am trying to write some code in ruby (using jruby) to be compiled to java bytecode with jrubyc and deployed to a remote machine where it will be run on the JVM (no ruby available there). Everything works fine as long as I am happy to stick with the standard jruby library. As explained on the jruby website, I simply copy the jruby-complete.jar library to the remote machine and include it in the classpath at runtime. I fire my compiled script and it works: cool! The problems start when I need some other libraries (typically rubygems) to run my script. I am aware of cool stuff like rawr, -which I successfully tested- to put together all you need in a single package. However that is not the solution I am looking for: I will have many small scripts to run independently and I don't want each of them to grow to at least 10 MB just because I insanely include the jruby-complete.jar in each of them. What I would like is to compile a .jar for each of the libraries that I will need to use, put all of them in a common folder on the remote machine and include them at runtime in the classpath when I run my compiled jruby scripts on the JVM. This said, I tried to follow the instructions here: http://blog.nicksieger.com/articles/2009/01/10/jruby-1-1-6-gems-in-a-jar I tried exactly the example shown there, with the "chronic" gem. Going step by step: Install the gem locally: java -jar jruby-complete-1.1.6.jar -S gem install -i ./chronic chronic --no-rdoc --no-ri Package it into a jar: jar cf chronic.jar -C chronic . Write a two lines test script, saving it as testt.rb: require 'chronic' Chronic.parse('tomorrow') Compile with: jrubyc testt.rb Run the resulting java class testt.class with the following (having both jruby-complete.jar and chronic.jar in the same folder as the java class): java -cp .:/jruby-complete.jar:./chronic.jar testt I get the following error: Exception in thread "main" file:/Users/ave2/NetBeansProjects/jrubywatir/lib/jruby-complete.jar!/METAINF/jruby.home/lib/ruby/site_ruby/shared/builtin/core_ext/symbol.rb:1:in `const_missing': uninitialized constant Chronic (NameError) from testt.rb:2 ...internal jruby stack elided... from Module.const_missing(testt.rb:2) from (unknown).(unknown)(:1) I really don't understand what I am doing wrong, and I am totally stuck on this. I am a noob in Ruby, much more used to Python: don't miss a chance to convert an infidel! :-) Thanks.

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• IronPython and Nodebox in C#

  - by proxylittle

  My plan: I'm trying to setup my C# project to communicate with Nodebox to call a certain function which populates a graph and draws it in a new window. Current situation: [fixed... see Update2] I have already included all python-modules needed, but im still getting a Library 'GL' not found it seems that the pyglet module needs a reference to GL/gl.h, but can't find it due to IronPython behaviour. Requirement: The project needs to stay as small as possible without installing new packages. Thats why i have copied all my modules into the project-folder and would like to keep it that or a similar way. My question: Is there a certain workaround for my problem or a fix for the library-folder missmatch. Have read some articles about Tao-Opengl and OpenTK but can't find a good solution. Update1: Updated my sourcecode with a small pyglet window-rendering example. Problem is in pyglet and referenced c-Objects. How do i include them in my c# project to be called? No idea so far... experimenting alittle now. Keeping you updated. SampleCode C#: ScriptRuntimeSetup setup = Python.CreateRuntimeSetup(null); ScriptRuntime runtime = new ScriptRuntime(setup); ScriptEngine engine = Python.GetEngine(runtime); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("test.py"); ScriptScope scope = engine.CreateScope(); source.Execute(scope); SampleCode Python (test.py): from nodebox.graphics import * from nodebox.graphics.physics import Vector, Boid, Flock, Obstacle flock = Flock(50, x=-50, y=-50, width=700, height=400) flock.sight(80) def draw(canvas): canvas.clear() flock.update(separation=0.4, cohesion=0.6, alignment=0.1, teleport=True) for boid in flock: push() translate(boid.x, boid.y) scale(0.5 + boid.depth) rotate(boid.heading) arrow(0, 0, 15) pop() canvas.size = 600, 300 def main(canvas): canvas.run(draw) Update2: Line 139 [pyglet/lib.py] sys.platform is not win32... there was the error. Fixed it by just using the line: from pyglet.gl.lib_wgl import link_GL, link_GLU, link_WGL Now the following Error: 'module' object has no attribute '_getframe' Kind of a pain to fix it. Updating with results... Update3: Fixed by adding following line right after first line in C#-Code: setup.Options["Frames"] = true; Current Problem: No module named unicodedata, but in Python26/DLLs is only a *.pyd file`. So.. how do i implement it now?!

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• Setting up NCover for NUnit in FinalBuilder

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I am attempting to set up NCover for usage in my FinalBuilder project, for a .NET 4.0 C# project, but my final coverage output file contains no coverage data. I am using: NCover 3.3.2 NUnit 2.5.4 FinalBuilder 6.3.0.2004 All tools are the latest official as of today. I've finally managed to coax FB into running my unit tests under NCover for the .NET 4.0 project, so I get Tests run: 184, ..., which is correct. However, the final Coverage.xml file output from NCover is almost empty, and looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- saved from NCover 3.0 Export url='http://www.ncover.com/' --> <coverage profilerVersion="3.3.2.6211" driverVersion="3.3.2" exportversion="3" viewdisplayname="" startTime="2010-04-22T08:55:33.7471316Z" measureTime="2010-04-22T08:55:35.3462915Z" projectName="" buildid="27c78ffa-c636-4002-a901-3211a0850b99" coveragenodeid="0" failed="false" satisfactorybranchthreshold="95" satisfactorycoveragethreshold="95" satisfactorycyclomaticcomplexitythreshold="20" satisfactoryfunctionthreshold="80" satisfactoryunvisitedsequencepoints="10" uiviewtype="TreeView" viewguid="C:\Dev\VS.NET\LVK.IoC\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\Coverage.xml" viewfilterstyle="None" viewreportstyle="SequencePointCoveragePercentage" viewsortstyle="Name"> <rebasedpaths /> <filters /> <documents> <doc id="0" excluded="false" url="None" cs="" csa="00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000" om="0" nid="0" /> </documents> </coverage> The output in FB log is: ... ***************** End Program Output ***************** Execution Time: 1,5992 s Coverage Xml: C:\Dev\VS.NET\LVK.IoC\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\Coverage.xml NCover Success My configuration of the FB step for NCover: NCover what?: NUnit test coverage Command: C:\Program Files (x86)\NUnit 2.5.4\bin\net-2.0\nunit-console.exe Command arguments: LVK.IoC.Tests.dll /noshadow /framework:4.0.30319 /process=single /nothread Note: I've tried with and without the /process and /nothread options Working directory: %FBPROJECTDIR%\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug List of assemblies to profile: %FBPROJECTDIR%\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\LVK.IoC.dll Note: I've tried just listing the name of the assembly, both with and without the extension. The documentation for the FB step doesn't help, as it only lists minor sentences for each property, and fails to give examples or troubleshooting hints. Since I want to pull the coverage results into NDepend to run build-time analysis, I want that file to contain the information I need. I am also using TestDriven, and if I right-click the solution file and select "Test with NCover", NCover-explorer opens up with coverage data, and if I ask it to show me the folder with coverage files, in there is an .xml file with the same structure as the one above, just with all the data that should be there, so the tools I have is certainly capable of producing it. Has anyone an idea of what I've configured wrong here?

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• How to Connect Crystal Reports to MySQL directly by C# code without DSN or a DataSet

  - by Yanko Hernández Alvarez

  How can I connect a Crystal Report (VS 2008 basic) to a MySQL DB without using a DSN or a preload DataSet using C#? I need install the program on several places, so I must change the connection parameters. I don't want to create a DSN on every place, nor do I want to preload a DataSet and pass it to the report engine. I use nhibernate to access the database, so to create and fill the additional DS would take twice the work and additional maintenance later. I think the best option would be to let the crystal reports engine to connect to MySQL server by itself using ODBC. I managed to create the connection in the report designer (VS2008) using the Database Expert, creating an ODBC(RDO) connection and entering this connection string "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=myserver.mydomain" and in the "Next" page filling the "User ID", "Password" and "Database" parameters. I didn't fill the "Server" parameter. It worked. As a matter of fact, if you use the former connection string, it doesn't matter what you put on the "Server" parameter, it seems the parameter is unused. On the other hand, if you use "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver}" as a connection string and later fill the "Server" parameter with the FQDN of the server, the connection doesn't work. How can I do that by code? All the examples I've seen till now, use a DSN or the DataSet method. I saw the same question posted but for PostgreSQL and tried to adapt it to mysql, but so far, no success. The first method: Rp.Load(); Rp.DataSourceConnections[0].SetConnection("DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};SERVER=myserver.mydomain", "database", "user", "pass"); Rp.ExportToDisk(ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat, "report.pdf"); raise an CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.LogOnException during ExportToDisk Message="Logon failed.\nDetails: IM002:[Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified.\rError in File temporal file path.rpt:\nUnable to connect: incorrect log on parameters. the InnerException is an System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException with the same message and no InnerException The "no default driver specified" makes me wonder if the server parameter is unused here too (see above). In that case: How can I specify the connection string? I haven't tried the second method because it doesn't apply. Does anybody know the solution?

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• Getting XText to work

  - by Calmarius

  I know you don't like helping others in their homework but I have to make an XText grammar, write a sample code that matches this grammar and compile it to a html file. The lecturer showed us the steps and everything worked for him... He said "It's so simple it will be a 10 minute work for you". And I believed that. However at home almost nothing works as expected. And of course no more lectures to go only the exam avaits me where I have to show what I done to pass. Moreover the e-mail I sent him bounced back by the mailer-demon... I got Xtext along with Eclipse IDE from the xtext website and I unpacked it and I followed the steps in the official tuturial to get the default project template to work. The tutorial is found here: http://wiki.eclipse.org/Xtext/GettingStarted Now I'm at the step "Model". It says open the "MyModel.mydsl" I do that but the editor does not opened. It said: "Could not open the editor: The editor class could not be instantiated. This usually indicates a missing no-arg constructor or that the editor's class name was mistyped in plugin.xml." Since everything is generated, the error message does not helped me... There was an option to look at the stack trace (it was mile long) and on the top of it there was an exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The bundle has not yet been activated. Make sure the Manifest.MF contains 'Bundle-ActivationPolicy: lazy'. I opened Manifast.MF and Bundle-ActivationPolicy: lazy was set... I googled for the solution but no avail. It drove me nuts and I gave up. I have no experience with Eclipse and Java and XText, I just want to do my homework and forget everything until I will need it again... Anyone have experience with XText? Any help appreciated. ps: I will be on it too and I might resolve the problem in several hours. But now I am at a loss.

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• Enable real fixed positioning on Samsung Android browsers

  - by Mr. Shiny and New ??

  The Android browser, since 2.2, supports fixed positioning, at least under certain circumstances such as when scaling is turned off. I have a simple HTML file with no JS, but the fixed positioning on three Samsung phones I've tried is simply wrong. Instead of true fixed positioning, the header scrolls out of view then pops back into place after the scrolling is done. This doesn't happen on the Android SDK emulator for any configuration I've tested (2.2, 2.3, 2.3 x86, 4.0.4). It also doesn't happen when using the WebView in an app on the Samsung phones: in those cases the positioning works as expected. Is there a way to make the Samsung Android "stock" browser use real fixed positioning? I've tested: 1. Samsung Galaxy 551, Android 2.2 2. Samsung Galaxy S, Android 2.3 3. Samsung Galaxy S II, Android 2.3 Sample code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no,width=device-width,height=device-height"> <style> h1 { position: fixed; top: 0; left: 0; height: 32px; background-color: #CDCDCD; color: black; font-size: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding: 2px; width: 100%; margin: 0;} p { margin-top: 36px; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>Header</h1> <p>Long text goes here</p> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is that the grey header fills the top of the screen and stays put no matter how much you scroll. On Samsung Android browsers it seems to scroll out of view then pop back into place once the scrolling is done, as if the fixed-positioning is being simulated using Javascript, which it isn't. Edit Judging by the comments and "answers" it seems that maybe I wasn't clear on what I need. I am looking for a meta tag or css rule/hack or javascript toggle which turns off Samsung's broken fixed-positioning and turns on the Android browser's working fixed-positioning. I am not looking for a Javascript solution that adds broken fixed-positioning to a browser that has no support whatsoever; the Samsung fixed-positioning does that already, it just looks stupid.

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• how to pass parameter to a webservice using ksoap2?

  - by user255681

  hi there, i'm using eclipse to develop over android, i'm trying to connect to a .net webservice... when i'm calling a webmethod with no parameters it works fine... but when i come to pass a parameter to the webmethod things turn upside down... the parameter is passed as null (while debugging the webservice i discovered that) and i get a null from the webmethod in the client side code... i've been searching for a solution for a day now and all that i can interpreter is that people keep talking about encoding styles and such stuff.... i've tried it all but in vain. i'm using ksoap2 version 2.3 with the following code package com.examples.hello; import org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope; import org.ksoap2.serialization.PropertyInfo; import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapObject; import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope; import org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; public class HelloActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://Innovation/HRService/stringBs"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "stringBs"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://Innovation/HRService/"; private static final String URL = "http://196.205.5.170/mdl/hrservice.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.text1); call(); } public void call() { try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); //PropertyInfo PI = new PropertyInfo(); //request.addProperty("a", "myprop"); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.encodingStyle = SoapSerializationEnvelope.XSD; HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); String results = result.toString(); tv.setText( ""+results); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } } }

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• ASP.Net and FaceBook Wall integration

  - by Jit

  Hi, I am new to FaceBook API. I like to send messages when I want from my aspx webpage. I used the different examples and used FaceBook API 3.1. I am getting error as "service temporarily unavailable". I have assigned AppKey, Secret Key and session key. My sample code is below. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Facebook; using Facebook.Web; using Facebook.Rest; using Facebook.Session; using Facebook.Utility; using Facebook.BindingHelper; using Facebook.Schema; using Facebook.Web.FbmlControls; using Facebook.Session.DesktopPopup; namespace FaceBookApp { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { private const string ApplicationKey = "MY_APP_KEY"; private const string SecretKey = "MY_SECRET_KEY"; private Api fbAPI; private ConnectSession _connectSession; // private List<EventUser> _eventUsers; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { _connectSession = new ConnectSession(ApplicationKey, SecretKey); _connectSession.SessionKey = "MY_SESSION_KEY"; if (!_connectSession.IsConnected()) { // Not authenticated, proceed as usual. //lblStatus.Text = "Please sign-in with Facebook."; } else { // Authenticated, create API instance fbAPI = new Api(_connectSession); string response = fbAPI.Stream.Publish("publish steven on facebook."); } } } } The error message is confusing. It must be a very simple solution. I don't know what I am missing. Pls help. Here is the facebook exception. {"Service temporarily unavailable"}

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• Cannot integrate Gallio MBUnit with Team City

  - by Bernard Larouche

  I have been trying to get my MBUnit tests suite to work on Team City for many days now without any success. My solution builds no problem. The program is with my tests. After googling for Gallio integration with Team City I tried many ways to make this thing work and I think I am close but need help. I have included the gallio bin directory to my repository and also on my TC Server. Here is my build runner set up in Team City : Build runner : MSBuild Build file path : Myproject.msbuild Targets : RebuildSolution RunTests Here is Myproject.msbuild file I created and included in the Source control trunk directory : <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <!-- This is needed by MSBuild to locate the Gallio task --> <UsingTask AssemblyFile="C:\Gallio\bin\Gallio.MSBuildTasks.dll" TaskName="Gallio" /> <!-- Specify the tests assemblies --> <ItemGroup> <TestAssemblies Include="C:\_CBL\CBL\CoderForTraders\Source\trunk\UnitTest\DomainModel.Tests\bin\Debug\CBL.CoderForTraders.DomainModel.Tests.dll" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="RunTests"> <Gallio IgnoreFailures="false" Assemblies="@(TestAssemblies)" RunnerExtensions="TeamCityExtension,Gallio.TeamCityIntegration"> <!-- This tells MSBuild to store the output value of the task's ExitCode property into the project's ExitCode property --> <Output TaskParameter="ExitCode" PropertyName="ExitCode"/> </Gallio> <Error Text="Tests execution failed" Condition="'$(ExitCode)' != 0" /> </Target> <Target Name="RebuildSolution"> <Message Text="Starting to Build"/> <MSBuild Projects="CoderForTraders.sln" Properties="Configuration=Debug" Targets="Rebuild" /> </Target> </Project> Here are the errors displayed by Team City : error MSB4064: The "Assemblies" parameter is not supported by the "Gallio" task. Verify the parameter exists on the task, and it is a settable public instance property error MSB4063: The "Gallio" task could not be initialized with its input parameters. Thanks for your help

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• Can't interact with children of an itemRenderer in Flex 4 Gumbo

  - by BlueDude

  I thought this would be pretty easy but I'm running into all sorts of problems with this. I have an ItemRenderer with a an image and two labels. I want to assign separate mouse events to the image and two labels. It seems like the item renderer is treated like a single interactive piece and I haven't found a way to override that. I couldn't even disable the default rollover effect so I had to style the rollOverColor to match my background. Can anyone provide a solution? <s:DataGroup id="browserDataGroup" dataProvider="{model.userBoardList}" verticalCenter="0" left="10" rollOverColor="0x424242" itemRenderer="edu.xxxxx.components.board.BrowserItemRenderer"> <!--itemrenderer code below --> <s:ItemRenderer xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" xmlns:ns="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" buttonMode="true" useHandCursor="true" mouseChildren="true"> <s:states> <s:State name="up"/> <s:State name="over"/> </s:states> <s:layout> <s:VerticalLayout gap="2"/> </s:layout> <s:Group> <ns:Image id="image" source="{data.thumbnail}" addedEffect="Fade" completeEffect="Fade" removedEffect="Fade" width="130" height="89" horizontalCenter="0" verticalCenter="0"/> <s:Rect id="imageRect" width="130" height="89"> <s:stroke> <s:SolidColorStroke color="0xFFFFFF" joints="miter" pixelHinting="true"/> </s:stroke> </s:Rect> </s:Group> <s:Label text="{data.title}" color="0xFFFFFF" fontWeight="bold"/> <s:Group> <s:layout> <s:HorizontalLayout gap="3"/> </s:layout> <s:Label text="Edit" color="0xFFFFFF" click="trace('edit');" textDecoration.up="underline" textDecoration.over="none"/> <s:Label text="|" color="0xFFFFFF"/> <s:Label text="Delete" color="0xFFFFFF" click="trace('delete');" textDecoration.up="underline" textDecoration.over="none"/> </s:Group> </s:ItemRenderer>

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