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  • HTTP caching confusion

    - by Keith
    I'm not sure whether this is a server issue, or whether I'm failing to understand how HTTP caching really works. I have an ASP MVC application running on IIS7. There's a lot of static content as part of the site including lots of CSS, Javascript and image files. For these files I want the browser to cache them for at least a day - our .css, .js, .gif and .png files rarely change. My web.config goes like this: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="UseMaxAge" cacheControlMaxAge="1.00:00:00" /> </staticContent> </system.webServer> The problem I'm getting is that the browser (tested Chrome, IE8 and FX) doesn't seem to be caching the files as I'd expect. I've got the default settings (check for newer pages automatically in IE). On first visit the content downloads as expected HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Content-Type: image/gif Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:29:16 GMT Content-Length: 918 <content> I think that the Cache-Control: max-age=86400 should tell the browser not to request the page again for a day. Ok, so now the page is reloaded and the browser requests the image again. This time it gets an empty response with these headers: HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:30:32 GMT So it looks like the browser has sent the ETag back (as a unique id for the resource), and the server's come back with a 304 Not Modified - telling the browser that it can use the previously downloaded file. It seems to me that would be correct for many caching situations, but here I don't want the extra round trip. I don't care if the image gets out of date when the file on the server changes. There are a lot of these files (even with sprite-maps and the like) and many of our clients have very slow networks. Each round trip to ping for that 304 status is taking about a 10th to a 5th of a second. Many also have IE6 which only has 2 HTTP connections at a time. The net result is that our application appears to be very slow for these clients with every page taking an extra couple of seconds to check that the static content hasn't changed. What response header am I missing that would cause the browser to aggressively cache the files? How would I set this in a .Net web.config for IIS7? Am I misunderstanding how HTTP caching works in the first place?

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  • NSLinguisticTagger on the contents of an NSTextStorage- crashing bug

    - by Remy Porter
    I'm trying to use an NSLinguisticTagger to monitor the contents of an NSTextStorage and provide some contextual information based on what the user types. To that end, I have an OverlayManager object, which wires up this relationship: -(void) setView:(NSTextView*) view { _view = view; _layout = view.layoutManager; _storage = view.layoutManager.textStorage; //get the TextStorage from the view [_tagger setString:_storage.string]; //pull the string out, this grabs the mutable version [self registerForNotificationsOn:self->_storage]; //subscribe to the willProcessEditing notification } When an edit occurs, I make sure to trap it and notify the tagger (and yes, I know I'm being annoyingly inconsistent with member access, I'm rusty on Obj-C, I'll fix it later): - (void) textStorageWillProcessEditing:(NSNotification*) notification{ if ([self->_storage editedMask] & NSTextStorageEditedCharacters) { NSRange editedRange = [self->_storage editedRange]; NSUInteger delta = [self->_storage changeInLength]; [_tagger stringEditedInRange:editedRange changeInLength:delta]; //should notify the tagger of the changes [self highlightEdits:self]; } } The highlightEdits message delegates the job out to a pool of "Overlay" objects. Each contains a block of code similar to this: [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:range scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { if (tag == PartOfSpeech) { [self applyHighlightToRange:tokenRange onStorage:storage]; } }]; And that's where the problem is- the enumerateTagsInRange method crashes out with a message: 2014-06-04 10:07:19.692 WritersEditor[40191:303] NSMutableRLEArray replaceObjectsInRange:withObject:length:: Out of bounds This problem doesn't occur if I don't link to the mutable copy of the underlying string and instead do a [[_storage string] copy], but obviously I don't want to copy the entire backing store every time I want to do tagging. This all should be happening in the main run loop, so I don't think this is a threading issue. The NSRange I'm enumerating tags on exists both in the NSTextStorage and in the NSLinguisticTagger's view of the string. It's not even the fact that the applyHighlightToRange call adds attributes to the string, because it crashes before even reaching that line. I attempted to build a test case around the problem, but can't replicate it in those situations: - (void) testEdit { NSAttributedString* str = [[NSMutableAttributedString alloc] initWithString:@"Quickly, this is a test."]; text = [[NSTextStorage alloc] initWithAttributedString:str]; NSArray* schemes = [NSLinguisticTagger availableTagSchemesForLanguage:@"en"]; tagger = [[NSLinguisticTagger alloc] initWithTagSchemes:schemes options:0]; [tagger setString:[text string]]; [text beginEditing]; [[text mutableString] appendString:@"T"]; NSRange edited = [text editedRange]; NSUInteger length = [text changeInLength]; [text endEditing]; [tagger stringEditedInRange:edited changeInLength:length]; [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:edited scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { //doesn't matter, this should crash }]; } That code doesn't crash.

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  • The Math of a Jump in a 2D game.

    - by ONi
    I have been all around with this question and I can't find the correct answer! So, behold, the description of my question: I'm working in J2ME, I have my gameloop that do the following: public void run() { Graphics g = this.getGraphics(); while (running) { long diff = System.currentTimeMillis() - lastLoop; lastLoop = System.currentTimeMillis(); input(); this.level.doLogic(); render(g, diff); try { Thread.sleep(10); } catch (InterruptedException e) { stop(e); } } } so it's just a basic gameloop, the doLogic() function calls for all the logic functions of the characters in the scene and render(g, diff) calls the animateChar function of every character on scene, following this, the animChar function in the Character class sets up everything in the screen as this: protected void animChar(long diff) { this.checkGravity(); this.move((int) ((diff * this.dx) / 1000), (int) ((diff * this.dy) / 1000)); if (this.acumFrame > this.framerate) { this.nextFrame(); this.acumFrame = 0; } else { this.acumFrame += diff; } } This ensures me that everything must to move according to the time that the machine takes to go from cycle to cycle (remember it's a phone, not a gaming rig). I'm sure it's not the most efficient way to achieve this behavior so I'm totally open for criticism of my programming skills in the comments, but here my problem: When I make I character jump, what I do is that I put his dy to a negative value, say -200 and I set the boolean jumping to true, that makes the character go up, and then I have this function called checkGravity() that ensure that everything that goes up has to go down, checkGravity also checks for the character being over platforms so I will strip it down a little for the sake of your time: public void checkGravity() { if (this.jumping) { this.jumpSpeed += 10; if (this.jumpSpeed > 0) { this.jumping = false; this.falling = true; } this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; } if (this.falling) { this.jumpSpeed += 10; if (this.jumpSpeed > 200) this.jumpSpeed = 200; this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; if (this.collidesWithPlatform()) { this.falling = false; this.standing = true; this.jumping = false; this.jumpSpeed = 0; this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; } } } So, the problem is, that this function updates the dy regardless of the diff, making the characters fly like Superman in slow machines, and I have no idea how to implement the diff factor so that when a character is jumping, his speed decrement in a proportional way to the game speed. Can anyone help me fix this issue? or give me pointers on how to make a 2D Jump in J2ME the right way. Thank you very much for your time.

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • Merge Mutliple Excel Workbooks

    - by IRHM
    I wonder whether someone may be able to help me please. I'm trying to use the code below to allow the user to select multiple Excel Workbooks, amalgamating the data into one 'Summary' sheet. Sub Merge() Dim DestWB As Workbook, WB As Workbook, WS As Worksheet, SourceSheet As String Set DestWB = ActiveWorkbook SourceSheet = "Input" startrow = 7 FileNames = Application.GetOpenFilename( _ filefilter:="Excel Files (*.xls*),*.xls*", _ Title:="Select the workbooks to merge.", MultiSelect:=True) If IsArray(FileNames) = False Then If FileNames = False Then Exit Sub End If End If For n = LBound(FileNames) To UBound(FileNames) Set WB = Workbooks.Open(Filename:=FileNames(n), ReadOnly:=True) For Each WS In WB.Worksheets If WS.Name = SourceSheet Then With WS If .UsedRange.Cells.Count > 1 Then dr = DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row + 1 lastrow = .Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row For j = lastrow To startrow Step -1 Select Case .Range("E" & j).Value Case "Manager", "Lead", "Technical", "Analyst" 'do nothing Case Else .Rows(j).EntireRow.Delete End Select Next lastrow = .Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row If lastrow >= startrow Then .Range("B" & startrow & ":AD" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "B").PasteSpecial xlValues .Range("AF" & startrow & ":AQ" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "AF").PasteSpecial xlValues .Range("AS" & startrow & ":AS" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "AS").PasteSpecial xlValues End If End If End With Exit For End If Next WS WB.Close savechanges:=False Next n End Sub The code works fine except for one issue which I've been trying to solve for the last few weeks. The following line of code looks in column E of the Source file, and if any of the entries match the values shown in the code it copies that row of data to paste into the Destination file. If Range("E" & j) <> "Manager" And Range("E" & j) <> "Lead" And Range("E" & j) <> "Technical" And Range("E" & j) <> "Analyst" Then Rows(j).Delete The problem I have is that if none of these values are found in the Source file, I receive the following error: Run time error '1004': Delete method of range class failed and in Debug mode it highlights this part of the line as the source of the error, but I've no idea why. Rows(j).Delete I just wondered whether someone may be able to look at this please and let me know where I'm going wrong, or perhaps even suggest a more efficient process of allowing the user to merge the workbooks. Many thanks and kind regards

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  • Autoconf -- including a static library (newbie)

    - by EB
    I am trying to migrate my application from manual build to autoconf, which is working very nicely so far. But I have one static library that I can't figure out how to integrate. That library will NOT be located in the usual library locations - the location of the binary (.a file) and header (.h file) will be given as a configure argument. (Notably, even if I move the .a file to /usr/lib or anywhere else I can think of, it still won't work.) It is also not named traditionally (it does not start with "lib" or "l"). Manual compilation is working with these (directory is not predictable - this is just an example): gcc ... -I/home/john/mystuff /home/john/mystuff/helper.a (Uh, I actually don't understand why the .a file is referenced directly, not with -L or anything. Yes, I have a half-baked understanding of building C programs.) So, in my configure.ac, I can use the relevant configure argument to successfully find the header (.h file) using AC_CHECK_HEADER. Inside the AC_CHECK_HEADER I then add the location to CPFLAGS and the #include of the header file in the actual C code picks it up nicely. Given a configure argument that has been put into $location and the name of the needed files are helper.h and helper.a (which are both in the same directory), here is what works so far: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"]) Where I run into difficulties is getting the binary (.a file) linked in. No matter what I try, I always get an error about undefined references to the function calls for that library. I'm pretty sure it's a linkage issue, because I can fuss with the C code and make an intentional error in the function calls to that library which produces earlier errors that indicate that the function prototypes have been loaded and used to compile. I tried adding the location that contains the .a file to LDFLAGS and then doing a AC_CHECK_LIB but it is not found. Maybe my syntax is wrong, or maybe I'm missing something more fundamental, which would not be surprising since I'm a newbie and don't really know what I'm doing. Here is what I have tried: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location"; AC_CHECK_LIB(helper)]) No dice. AC_CHECK_LIB is looking for -lhelper I guess (or libhelper?) so I'm not sure if that's a problem, so I tried this, too (omit AC_CHECK_LIB and include the .a directly in LDFLAGS), without luck: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location/helper.a"]) To emulate the manual compilation, I tried removing the -L but that doesn't help: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS $location/helper.a"]) I tried other combinations and permutations, but I think I might be missing something more fundamental....

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  • Disable button after submit

    - by Chris Philpotts
    I'm trying to disable a button when a user submits a payment form and the code to post the form is causing a double post in firefox. This problem does not occur when the code is removed, and does not occur in any browser other than firefox. Any idea how to prevent the double post here? System.Text.StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function') { "); sb.Append("if (Page_ClientValidate() == false) { return false; }} "); sb.Append("this.value = 'Please wait...';"); sb.Append("this.disabled = true;"); sb.Append(Page.GetPostBackEventReference(btnSubmit )); sb.Append(";"); btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", sb.ToString()); it's the sb.Append(Page.GetPostBackEventReference(btnSubmit )) line that's causing the issue Thanks EDIT: Here's the c# of the button: <asp:Button ID="cmdSubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" /> here's the html This code posts twice (and disables the submit button and verifies input): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function') { if (Page_ClientValidate() == false) { return false; }} this.value = 'Please wait...';this.disabled = true;document.getElementById('ctl00_MainContent_cmdBack').disabled = true;__doPostBack('ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit','');" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts twice (but doesn’t disable the submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="__doPostBack('ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit','');" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts once (but doesn’t verify the user input and doesn’t disable the submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts once (but doesn’t disable submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code doesn’t post at all: <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="this.disabled = true;WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> Obviously it’s the disabling of the submit button that’s posing the problem. Do you have any ideas how we can disable the submit to avoid multiple clicking?

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • Ajax load div , part of CSS not working

    - by user225228
    Hello, I'm using the ajax to load a div content, but the div content is not taking the CSS of the page. Example :- This link will load into <a href="#" onclick="javascript:loadAjax('test.html')">Test</a> <div id="result"> <table class="tablesorter"> <thead> <tr> <th>Header 1</th><th>Header 2</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Record 1</td><td>Desc 1</td></tr> </tbody> </table> </div> In my CSS : table.tablesorter thead tr th, table.tablesorter tfoot tr th { background-color: #e6EEEE; border: 1px solid #FFF; font-size: 8pt; padding: 4px; } table.tablesorter thead tr .header { background-image: url(bg.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: center right; cursor: pointer; } In my test.html, it's the same table with different record : <table class="tablesorter"> <thead> <tr> <th>Header 1</th><th>Header 2</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Record 2</td><td>Desc 2</td></tr> </tbody> </table> The issue I'm facing is that before "test.html" is load, the CSS is fine. But after clicking on the link which suppose to loads test.html, the CSS background still shows but "cursor:pointer" and "background-image" not longer works. What should I do to make it work? Thanks in advance!

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  • How can I have a Makefile automatically rebuild source files that include a modified header file? (I

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I have the following makefile that I use to build a program (a kernel, actually) that I'm working on. Its from scratch and I'm learning about the process, so its not perfect, but I think its powerful enough at this point for my level of experience writing makefiles. AS = nasm CC = gcc LD = ld TARGET = core BUILD = build SOURCES = source INCLUDE = include ASM = assembly VPATH = $(SOURCES) CFLAGS = -Wall -O -fstrength-reduce -fomit-frame-pointer -finline-functions \ -nostdinc -fno-builtin -I $(INCLUDE) ASFLAGS = -f elf #CFILES = core.c consoleio.c system.c CFILES = $(foreach dir,$(SOURCES),$(notdir $(wildcard $(dir)/*.c))) SFILES = assembly/start.asm SOBJS = $(SFILES:.asm=.o) COBJS = $(CFILES:.c=.o) OBJS = $(SOBJS) $(COBJS) build : $(TARGET).img $(TARGET).img : $(TARGET).elf c:/python26/python.exe concat.py stage1 stage2 pad.bin core.elf floppy.img $(TARGET).elf : $(OBJS) $(LD) -T link.ld -o $@ $^ $(SOBJS) : $(SFILES) $(AS) $(ASFLAGS) $< -o $@ %.o: %.c @echo Compiling $<... $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -c -o $@ $< #Clean Script - Should clear out all .o files everywhere and all that. clean: -del *.img -del *.o -del assembly\*.o -del core.elf My main issue with this makefile is that when I modify a header file that one or more C files include, the C files aren't rebuilt. I can fix this quite easily by having all of my header files be dependencies for all of my C files, but that would effectively cause a complete rebuild of the project any time I changed/added a header file, which would not be very graceful. What I want is for only the C files that include the header file I change to be rebuilt, and for the entire project to be linked again. I can do the linking by causing all header files to be dependencies of the target, but I cannot figure out how to make the C files be invalidated when their included header files are newer. I've heard that GCC has some commands to make this possible (so the makefile can somehow figure out which files need to be rebuilt) but I can't for the life of me find an actual implementation example to look at. Can someone post a solution that will enable this behavior in a makefile? EDIT: I should clarify, I'm familiar with the concept of putting the individual targets in and having each target.o require the header files. That requires me to be editing the makefile every time I include a header file somewhere, which is a bit of a pain. I'm looking for a solution that can derive the header file dependencies on its own, which I'm fairly certain I've seen in other projects.

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  • Handling exceptions raised in observers

    - by sparky
    I have a Rails (2.3.5) application where there are many groups, and each Group has_many People. I have a Group edit form where users can create new people. When a new person is created, they are sent an email (the email address is user entered on the form). This is accomplished with an observer on the Person model. The problem comes when ActionMailer throws an exception - for example if the domain does not exist. Clearly that cannot be weeded out with a validation. There would seem to be 2 ways to deal with this: A begin...rescue...end block in the observer around the mailer. The problem with this is that the only way to pass any feedback to the user would be to set a global variable - as the observer is out of the MVC flow, I can't even set a flash[:error] there. A rescue_from in the Groups controller. This works fine, but has 2 problems. Firstly, there is no way to know which person threw the exception (all I can get is the 503 exception, no way to know which person caused the problem). This would be useful information to be able to pass back to the user - at the moment, there is no way for me to let them know which email address is the problem - at the moment, I just have to chuck the lot back at them, and issue an unhelpful message saying that one of them is not correct. Secondly (and to a certain extent this make the first point moot) it seems that it is necessary to call a render in the rescue_from, or it dies with a rather bizarre "can't convert Array into String" error from webbrick, with no stack trace & nothing in the log. Thus, I have to throw it back to the user when I come across the first error and have to stop processing the rest of the emails. Neither of the solutions are optimal. It would seem that the only way to get Rails to do what I want is option 1, and loathsome global variables. This would also rely on Rails being single threaded. Can anyone suggest a better solution to this problem?

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  • VB - Convert Web Site to Web Application

    - by Dave
    Hi This is my first time doing VB :-) I've inherited a web site, which I've converted into a web application in VS2008. The conversion has worked for everything except a Gallery control. The compile error I'm getting is: Type 'Gallery' is not defined in file: gallery_oct07.aspx.designer.vb Option Strict On Option Explicit On Partial Public Class gallery_oct07 '''<summary> '''Gallery1 control. '''</summary> '''<remarks> '''Auto-generated field. '''To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. '''</remarks> Protected WithEvents Gallery1 As Global.Gallery End Class with squiggly lines under Global.Gallery. The gallery_oct07.aspx.vb is: Partial Class gallery_oct07 Inherits System.Web.UI.Page End Class Gallery.ascx is: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Codebehind="Gallery.ascx.cs" Inherits="WebApplication1.Gallery"%> <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="rptGallery"> <HeaderTemplate> <ul class='<%#CssClass%>'> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li><a href='<%#ImageFolder + Eval("Name") %>' class="thickbox" rel="gallery"><img src='<%#ImageFolder + "thumb/" + Eval("Name") %>' /></a></li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </ul></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> and the code behind is: using System; using System.IO; namespace WebApplication1 { public partial class Gallery : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public string _ImageFolder; public string ImageFolder { get { return _ImageFolder; } set { _ImageFolder = value; } } private string _cssClass = "gallery"; public string CssClass { get { return _cssClass; } set { _cssClass = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { DirectoryInfo dir = new DirectoryInfo(MapPath(ImageFolder)); FileInfo[] images = dir.GetFiles("*.jpg"); rptGallery.DataSource = images; rptGallery.DataBind(); } protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } } The feels like a namespace issue.. My project namespace is WebApplication1. Cheers!

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  • Error using paho-mqtt in App Engine Python App

    - by calumb
    I am trying to right a Google Cloud Platform app in python with Flask that makes an MQTT connection. I have included the paho python library by doing pip install paho-mqtt -t libs/. However, when I try to run the app, even if I don't try to connect to MQTT. I get a weird error about IP address checking: RuntimeError: error('illegal IP address string passed to inet_pton',) It seems something in the remote_socket lib is causing a problem. Is this a security issue? Is there someway to disable it? Relevant code: from flask import Flask import paho.mqtt.client as mqtt import logging as logger app = Flask(__name__) # Note: We don't need to call run() since our application is embedded within # the App Engine WSGI application server. #callback to print out connection status def on_connect(mosq, obj, rc): logger.info('on_connect') if rc == 0: logger.info("Connected") mqttc.subscribe('test', 0) else: logger.info(rc) def on_message(mqttc, obj, msg): logger.info(msg.topic+" "+str(msg.qos)+" "+str(msg.payload)) mqttc = mqtt.Client("mqttpy") mqttc.on_message = on_message mqttc.on_connect = on_connect As well as full stack trace: ERROR 2014-06-03 15:14:57,285 wsgi.py:262] Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/runtime/wsgi.py", line 239, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/runtime/wsgi.py", line 298, in _LoadHandler handler, path, err = LoadObject(self._handler) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/runtime/wsgi.py", line 84, in LoadObject obj = __import__(path[0]) File "/Users/cbarnes/code/ignite/tank-demo/appengine-flask-demo/main.py", line 24, in <module> mqttc = mqtt.Client("mqtthtpp") File "/Users/cbarnes/code/ignite/tank-demo/appengine-flask-demo/lib/paho/mqtt/client.py", line 403, in __init__ self._sockpairR, self._sockpairW = _socketpair_compat() File "/Users/cbarnes/code/ignite/tank-demo/appengine-flask-demo/lib/paho/mqtt/client.py", line 255, in _socketpair_compat listensock.bind(("localhost", 0)) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/dist27/socket.py", line 222, in meth return getattr(self._sock,name)(*args) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/remote_socket/_remote_socket.py", line 668, in bind self._SetProtoFromAddr(request.mutable_proxy_external_ip(), address) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/remote_socket/_remote_socket.py", line 632, in _SetProtoFromAddr proto.set_packed_address(self._GetPackedAddr(address)) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/remote_socket/_remote_socket.py", line 627, in _GetPackedAddr AI_NUMERICSERV|AI_PASSIVE): File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/remote_socket/_remote_socket.py", line 338, in getaddrinfo canonical=(flags & AI_CANONNAME)) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/remote_socket/_remote_socket.py", line 211, in _Resolve canon, aliases, addresses = _ResolveName(name, families) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/remote_socket/_remote_socket.py", line 229, in _ResolveName apiproxy_stub_map.MakeSyncCall('remote_socket', 'Resolve', request, reply) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/apiproxy_stub_map.py", line 94, in MakeSyncCall return stubmap.MakeSyncCall(service, call, request, response) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/apiproxy_stub_map.py", line 328, in MakeSyncCall rpc.CheckSuccess() File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/apiproxy_rpc.py", line 156, in _WaitImpl self.request, self.response) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/ext/remote_api/remote_api_stub.py", line 200, in MakeSyncCall self._MakeRealSyncCall(service, call, request, response) File "/Users/cbarnes/google-cloud-sdk/platform/google_appengine/google/appengine/ext/remote_api/remote_api_stub.py", line 234, in _MakeRealSyncCall raise pickle.loads(response_pb.exception()) RuntimeError: error('illegal IP address string passed to inet_pton',) INFO 2014-06-03 15:14:57,291 module.py:639] default: "GET / HTTP/1.1" 500 - Thanks!

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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • jboss connection pooling

    - by Web
    I have a question related to Prepared Steatement pooling (across all connections). Here's the config file <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>JNDI-NAME</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:mysql://<server_name>/<database_name>?useServerPrepStmts=true</connection-url> <driver-class>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</driver-class> <user-name>xxx</user-name> <password>xxxxx</password> <min-pool-size>10</min-pool-size> <max-pool-size>20</max-pool-size> <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <valid-connection-checker-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLValidConnectionChecker</valid-connection-checker-class-name> <background-validation>true</background-validation> <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> <prepared-statement-cache-size>100</prepared-statement-cache-size> <share-prepared-statements>true</share-prepared-statements> <!-- sql to call when connection is created <new-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</new-connection-sql> --> <!-- sql to call on an existing pooled connection when it is obtained from pool - MySQLValidConnectionChecker is preferred for newer drivers <check-valid-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</check-valid-connection-sql> --> <!-- corresponding type-mapping in the standardjbosscmp-jdbc.xml --> <metadata> <type-mapping>mySQL</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> It seems that this line: <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> doesn't cause any problems with Prepared Statements, but: <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> causes that all connections are removed and re-created if there was no traffic for the last 20 minutes. Because of that existing Prepared Statements are removed from the pool of cached Prepared Statements. How to overcome this issue? I have to use idle-timeout-minutes because MySQL server closes the connection after 8h

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  • When I really need to use [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1];

    - by Timbo
    Hi there, I have a program that needs to use sleep. Like really needs to. In lieu of spending ages explaining why, suffice to say that it needs it. Now I'm told to split off my code into a separate thread if it requires sleep so I don't lose interface responsiveness, so I've started learning how to use NSThread. I've created a brand new program that is conceptual so to solve the issue for this example will help me in my real program. Short story is I have a class, it has instance variables and I need a loop with a sleep to be depended on the value of that instance variable. Here's what I've put together anyway, your help is very much appreciated :) Cheers Tim /// Start Test1ViewController.h /// #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface Test1ViewController : UIViewController { UILabel* label; } @property (assign) IBOutlet UILabel *label; @end /// End Test1ViewController.h /// /// Start Test1ViewController.m /// #import "Test1ViewController.h" #import "MyClass.h" @implementation Test1ViewController @synthesize label; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; label.text = @"1"; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(backgroundProcess) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; } - (void)backgroundProcess { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Create an instance of a class that will eventually store a whole load of variables MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance createMyClassInstance:(@"Timbo")]; while (aMyClassInstance.myVariable--) { NSLog(@"blah = %i",aMyClassInstance.myVariable); label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; //how do I pass the new value out to the updateLabel method, or reference aMyClassInstance.myVariable? [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateLabel) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; //the sleeping of the thread is absolutely mandatory and must be worked around. The whole point of using NSThread is so I can have sleeps [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1]; } [pool release]; } - (void)updateLabel {label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; // be nice if i could } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning {[super didReceiveMemoryWarning];} - (void)viewDidUnload {} - (void)dealloc {[super dealloc];} @end /// End Test1ViewController.m /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MyClass : NSObject { NSString* name; int myVariable; } @property int myVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName; - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount; @end /// End MyClass.h /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import "MyClass.h" @implementation MyClass @synthesize name, myVariable; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName{ name = withName; myVariable = 10; } - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount{ myVariable = toAmount; return toAmount; } @end /// End MyClass.h ///

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  • RMI applet is making requests on random ports and blocked consequently

    - by Dan
    /// I have set up RMI system successfully on local ubuntu srver. Registry port 1099 and remote object export on 1100(fixed by calling super(1100)) Now I am trying to make it work on Ubuntu over internet with a public IP. I could bind service properly with public ip.But the client applet is trying to connect to ubuntu server at random ports. Below is the error thrown by client applet: // Exception network: Connecting public-ip:1100 with proxy=DIRECT network: Connecting public-ip/cgi-bin/java-rmi.cgi?forward=1099 with proxy=DIRECT network: Connecting public-ip:3733 with proxy=DIRECT network: Connecting public-ip:3721 with proxy=DIRECT // java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: public-ip; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(Unknown Source)Source) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) ... // // I have only 2 ports open on server, i.e., 1099(registry) and 1100(export). How can I fix ports in applet requests such that it does always connect server on same open port? // // Another issue.As I have bound service on public IP i.e. //public-ip:1099/ServiceName, a job running on server to send message to clinets is not able to make request to RMI service. public-ip URL does not work on same machine,i.e., server.Do you think I should use fixed socket factory?If so please give me code snippet and guide me how i can set it up. //Exception java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: public-ip; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(TCPEndpoint.java:619) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPChannel.createConnection(TCPChannel.java:216) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPChannel.newConnection(TCPChannel.java:202) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:128) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invokeRemoteMethod(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:194) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:148) at $Proxy5.getUserID(Unknown Source) at rmi.source.xxxxxx$JobScheduler.run(xxxxServerImpl.java:293) at java.util.TimerThread.mainLoop(Timer.java:555) at java.util.TimerThread.run(Timer.java:505) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.doConnect(AbstractPlainSocketImpl.java:337) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(AbstractPlainSocketImpl.java:198) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.connect(AbstractPlainSocketImpl.java:180) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:391) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:579) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:528) at java.net.Socket.(Socket.java:425) at java.net.Socket.(Socket.java:208) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIDirectSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIDirectSocketFactory.java:40) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIMasterSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIMasterSocketFactory.java:146) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(TCPEndpoint.java:613) ... 9 more Coould you please help me? Thanks a lot in advance. Dan

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  • Simaltaneous connections with PHP and SOAP?

    - by Dov
    I'm new to using SOAP and understanding the utmost basics of it. I create a client resource/connection, I then run some queries in a loop and I'm done. The issue I am having is when I increase the iterations of the loop, ie: from 100 to 1000, it seems to run out of memory and drops an internal server error. How could I possibly run either a) multiple simaltaneous connections or b) create a connection, 100 iterations, close connection, create connection.. etc. "a)" looks to be the better option but I have no clue as to how to get it up and running whilst keeping memory (I assume opening and closing connections) at a minimum. Thanks in advance! index.php <?php // set loops to 0 $loops = 0; // connection credentials and settings $location = 'https://theconsole.com/'; $wsdl = $location.'?wsdl'; $username = 'user'; $password = 'pass'; // include the console and client classes include "class_console.php"; include "class_client.php"; // create a client resource / connection $client = new Client($location, $wsdl, $username, $password); while ($loops <= 100) { $dostuff; } ?> class_console.php <?php class Console { // the connection resource private $connection = NULL; /** * When this object is instantiated a connection will be made to the console */ public function __construct($location, $wsdl, $username, $password, $proxyHost = NULL, $proxyPort = NULL) { if(is_null($proxyHost) || is_null($proxyPort)) $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password)); else $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password, 'proxy_host' => $proxyHost, 'proxy_port' => $proxyPort)); $connection->__setLocation($location); $this->connection = $connection; return $this->connection; } /** * Will print any type of data to screen, where supported by print_r * * @param $var - The data to print to screen * @return $this->connection - The connection resource **/ public function screen($var) { print '<pre>'; print_r($var); print '</pre>'; return $this->connection; } /** * Returns a server / connection resource * * @return $this->connection - The connection resource */ public function srv() { return $this->connection; } } ?>

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  • Radio button inside anchor element is reset after jQuery click handler

    - by GrievousAngel
    I have a situation where an element, of type radio, is contained in an element. The anchor element has a href but I want to override that behaviour by adding a jQuery 'click' handler to the element. The click handler makes the radio button inside it the selected one within the group. This all works when the anchor is clicked, however, when the radio button is clicked it appears that jQuery resets the selected radio to the previously selected one! Here is a the simplified page that duplicates the issue: <html> <head> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#a1").click(function(event) { anchorClicked("a1"); return false; }); $("#a2").click(function(event) { anchorClicked("a2"); return false; }); }); function anchorClicked(anchorId) { $('#' + anchorId + ' input:radio').attr("checked", true); alert("Look at what is selected and what happens after the event when this dialog is closed!"); } </script> </head> <body> <form> <ul> <li id="li1"> <a id="a1" href="javascript:alert('default functionality')"> <input value="1" name="rb" type="radio" id="rb1"> <span>Details 1</span> </a> </li> <li id="li2"> <a id="a2" href="javascript:alert('default functionality')"> <input value="2" name="rb" type="radio" id="rb2"> <span>Details 2</span> </a> </li> </ul> </form> </body> Does anyone have any idea how I can prevent jQuery for resetting the radio button?

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  • Using empty row as default in a ComboBox with Style "DropDownList"?

    - by Pesche Helfer
    Hi board I am trying to write a method, that takes a ComboBox, a DataTable and a TextBox as arguments. The purpose of it is to filter the members displayed in the ComboBox according to the TextBox.Text. The DataTable contains the entire list of possible entries that will then be filtered. For filtering, I create a DataView of the DataTable, add a RowFilter and then bind this View to the ComboBox as DataSource. To prevent the user from typing into the ComboBox, I choose the DropDownStyle DropDownList. That’s working fine so far, except that the user should also be able to choose nothing / empty line. In fact, this should be the default member to be displayed (to prevent choosing a wrong member by accident, if the user clicks through the dialog too fast). I tried to solve this problem by adding a new Row to the view. While this works for some cases, the main issue here is that any DataTable can be passed to the method. If the DataTable contains columns that cannot be null and don’t contain a default value, I suppose I will raise an error by adding an empty row. A possibility would be to create a view that contains only the column that is defined as DisplayMember, and the one that is defined as ValueMember. Alas, this can’t be done with a view in C#. I would like to avoid creating a true copy of the DataTable at all cost, since who knows how big it will get with time. Do you have any suggestions how to get around this problem? Instead of a view, could I create an object containing two members and assign the DisplayMember and the ValueMember to these members? Would the members be passed as reference (what I hope) or would true copied be created (in which case it would not be a solution)? Thank you very much for your help! Best regards public static void ComboFilter(ComboBox cb, DataTable dtSource, TextBox filterTextBox) { cb.DropDownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDownList; string displayMember = cb.DisplayMember; DataView filterView = new DataView(dtSource); filterView.AddNew(); filterView.RowFilter = displayMember + " LIKE '%" + filterTextBox.Text + "%'"; cb.DataSource = filterView; }

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  • Emails sent using Flex app are delayed

    - by user363825
    I'm currently building an application in Flex that utilizes SMTP Mailer to automatically send out emails to the user when a particular condition is satisfied. The application checks this condition every 30 seconds. The condition is satisfied based on new records being returned from a database table. The problem is as follows: When the condition is first satisfied, the email is delivered to the user with no issues. The second time the condition is satisfied, the email is not delivered. In the smtp logs, the delivery attempt appears to get hung up on the following line: 354 Start mail input; end with <CRLF>.<CRLF> No error codes are present in the smtp logs, but I do trace the following event from the SMTP Mailer class: [Event type="mailError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2] When the condition is satisfied a third time, the email that was not delivered when the condition was satisfied the previous time is now delivered, along with the email for this instance. This pattern then repeats itself, with the next email not being sent followed by two emails being sent simulatneously when the condition is met again. The smtp server being used is Windows 2003, on an internal network. The email is being sent to an outlook account hosted on an exchange server that is also on this internal network. Here is the actionscript code that creates the SMTPMailer object: public var testMail:SMTPMailer = null; public function alertNotify() { Security.loadPolicyFile("crossdomain.xml"); this.testMail = new SMTPMailer("myserver.ec.local",25); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_SENT, onEmailEvent); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_ERROR, onEmailError); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.DISCONNECTED, onEmailConn); this.testMail.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, onEmailError); } Here is the code that creates the email body and calls the method to send the email: public function alertUser(emailAC:ArrayCollection):void { trace ("In alertUser() before send, testMail.connected = " + testMail.connected.toString()); var testStr:String = " Key Location Event Type Comment Update Time "; for each (var event:rEntity in emailAC) { testStr = testStr + "" + event.key.toString() + "" + event.xml.address.toString() + " " + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + event.xml.attribute("update-time").toXMLString() + ""; } testStr = testStr + ""; testMail.flush(); testMail.sendHTMLMail("[email protected]","[email protected]","Event Notification",testStr); } Really not sure where the email that gets hung up is being stored until it is finally sent.... Any suggestions as to how to begin to remedy this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • Chrome extension: sendMessage doesn't work

    - by user3334776
    I've already read the documentation from Google on 'message passing' a few times and have probably looked at over 10 other questions with the same problem and already tried quiet a few variations of most of their "solutions" and of what I have below... This is black magic, right? Either way, here it goes. Manifest File: { "manifest_version" : 2, "name" : "Message Test", "version" : "1.0", "browser_action": { "default_popup": "popup.html" }, "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches" : ["<all_urls>"], "js": ["message-test.js"] } ] } I'm aware extensions aren't suppose to use inline JS, but I'm leaving this in so the original question can be left as it was since I still can't get the message to send from the background page, When I switch from the popup to the background, I removed the appropriate lines from the manifest.json popup.html file: <html> <head> <script> chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> OR background.js file: chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); message-test.js file: var Mymessage; chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(message, sender, sendResponse) { if (message.greeting == "hello"){ Mymessage = message.theMessage; alert(Mymessage); } else{ sendResponse({}); } }); No alert(Mymessage) goes off. I'm also trying to execute this after pressing a button from a popup and having a window at a specified url, but that's a later issue. The other files can be found here except with the background.js content wrapped in an addEventListener("click"....: http://pastebin.com/KhqxLx5y AND http://pastebin.com/JaGcp6tj

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  • Simplest way to flatten document to a view in RavenDB

    - by degorolls
    Given the following classes: public class Lookup { public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class DocA { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public Lookup Currency { get; set; } } public class ViewA // Simply a flattened version of the doc { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string CurrencyName { get; set; } // View just gets the name of the currency } I can create an index that allows client to query the view as follows: public class A_View : AbstractIndexCreationTask<DocA, ViewA> { public A_View() { Map = docs => from doc in docs select new ViewA { Id = doc.Id, Name = doc.Name, CurrencyName = doc.Currency.Name }; Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select new ViewA { Id = g.Key.Id, Name = g.Key.Name, CurrencyName = g.Key.CurrencyName }; } } This certainly works and produces the desired result of a view with the data transformed to the structure required at the client application. However, it is unworkably verbose, will be a maintenance nightmare and is probably fairly inefficient with all the redundant object construction. Is there a simpler way of creating an index with the required structure (ViewA) given a collection of documents (DocA)? FURTHER INFORMATION The issue appears to be that in order to have the index hold the data in the transformed structure (ViewA), we have to do a Reduce. It appears that a Reduce must have both a GROUP ON and a SELECT in order to work as expected so the following are not valid: INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 1: Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select g.Key; This produces: System.InvalidOperationException: Variable initializer select must have a lambda expression with an object create expression Clearly we need to have the 'select new'. INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 2: Reduce = results => from result in results select new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName }; This prduces: System.InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.IdentifierExpression' to type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.InvocationExpression'. Clearly, we also need to have the 'group on new'. Thanks for any assistance you can provide. (Note: removing the type (ViewA) from the constructor calls has no effect on the above)

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  • JSF inner datatable not respecting rendered condition of outer table.

    - by Marc
    <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="OuterItems" value="#{valueList.values}" var="item" border="0"> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeA"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.options}" var="option" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Option: #{option.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeB"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.demands}" var="demand" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Demand: #{demand.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> </h:dataTable> public class Item{ ... public boolean isTypeA(){ return this instanceof TypeA; } public boolean isTypeB(){ return this instanceof TypeB; } ... } public class typeA extends Item(){ ... public List getOptions(){ .... } ... } public class typeB extends Item(){ ... public List getDemands(){ ... } .... } I'm having an issue with JSF. I've abstracted the problem out here, and I'm hoping someone can help me understand how what I'm doing fails. I'm looping over a list of Items. These Items are actually instances of the subclasses TypeA and TypeB. For Type A, I want to display the options, for Type B I want to display the demands. When rendering the page for the first time, this works fine. However, when I post back to the page for some action, I get an error: [3/26/10 12:52:32:781 EST] 0000008c SystemErr R javax.faces.FacesException: Error getting property 'options' from bean of type TypeB at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ApplyRequestValuesPhase.execute(ApplyRequestValuesPhase.java:89) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.phase(LifecycleImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:91) at com.ibm.faces.portlet.FacesPortlet.processAction(FacesPortlet.java:193) My grasp on the JSF lifecyle is very rough. At this point, i understand there is an error in the ApplyRequestValues Phases which is very early and so the previous state is restored and nothing changes. What I don't understand is that in order to fufill the condition for rendering "item.typeA" that object has to be an instance of TypeA. But here, it looks like that object passed the condition even though it was an instance of TypeB. It is like it is evaluating the inner dataTable (InnerItems) before evaluating the outer (outerItems). My working assumption is that I just don't understand how/when the rendered attribute is actually evaluated.

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  • Memory management with Objective-C Distributed Objects: my temporary instances live forever!

    - by jkp
    I'm playing with Objective-C Distributed Objects and I'm having some problems understanding how memory management works under the system. The example given below illustrates my problem: Protocol.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @protocol DOServer - (byref id)createTarget; @end Server.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" @interface DOTarget : NSObject @end @interface DOServer : NSObject < DOServer > @end @implementation DOTarget - (id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { NSLog(@"Target created"); } return self; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"Target destroyed"); [super dealloc]; } @end @implementation DOServer - (byref id)createTarget { return [[[DOTarget alloc] init] autorelease]; } @end int main() { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; DOServer *server = [[DOServer alloc] init]; NSConnection *connection = [[NSConnection new] autorelease]; [connection setRootObject:server]; if ([connection registerName:@"test-server"] == NO) { NSLog(@"Failed to vend server object"); } else [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Client.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" int main() { unsigned i = 0; for (; i < 3; i ++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; id server = [NSConnection rootProxyForConnectionWithRegisteredName:@"test-server" host:nil]; [server setProtocolForProxy:@protocol(DOServer)]; NSLog(@"Created target: %@", [server createTarget]); [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; [pool drain]; } return 0; } The issue is that any remote objects created by the root proxy are not released when their proxy counterparts in the client go out of scope. According to the documentation: When an object’s remote proxy is deallocated, a message is sent back to the receiver to notify it that the local object is no longer shared over the connection. I would therefore expect that as each DOTarget goes out of scope (each time around the loop) it's remote counterpart would be dellocated, since there is no other reference to it being held on the remote side of the connection. In reality this does not happen: the temporary objects are only deallocate when the client application quits, or more accurately, when the connection is invalidated. I can force the temporary objects on the remote side to be deallocated by explicitly invalidating the NSConnection object I'm using each time around the loop and creating a new one but somehow this just feels wrong. Is this the correct behaviour from DO? Should all temporary objects live as long as the connection that created them? Are connections therefore to be treated as temporary objects which should be opened and closed with each series of requests against the server? Any insights would be appreciated.

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