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• ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

  - by lmttag

  We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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• HLSL tex2d sampler seemingly using inconsistent rounding; why?

  - by RJFalconer

  Hello all, I have code that needs to render regions of my object differently depending on their location. I am trying to use a colour map to define these regions. The problem is when I sample from my colour map, I get collisions. Ie, two regions with different colours in the colourmap get the same value returned from the sampler. I've tried various formats of my colour map. I set the colours for each region to be "5" apart in each case; Indexed colour RGB, RGBA: region 1 will have RGB 5%,5%,5%. region 2 will have RGB 10%,10%,10% and so on. HSV Greyscale: region 1 will have HSV 0,0,5%. region 2 will have HSV 0,0,10% and so on. (Values selected in The Gimp) The tex2D sampler returns a value [0..1]. [ I then intend to derive an int array index from region. Code to do with that is unrelated, so has been removed from the question ] float region = tex2D(gColourmapSampler,In.UV).x; Sampling the "5%" colour gave a "region" of 0.05098 in hlsl. From this I assume the 5% represents 5/100*255, or 12.75, which is rounded to 13 when stored in the texture OR when sampled by the sampler; can't tell which. (Reasoning: 0.05098 * 255 ~= 13) By this logic, the 50% should be stored as 127.5. Sampled, I get 0.50196 which implies it was stored as 128. the 70% should be stored as 178.5. Sampled, I get 0.698039, which implies it was stored as 178. What rounding is going on here? (127.5 becomes 128, 178.5 becomes 178 ?!) Edit: OK, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bankers_rounding#Round_half_to_even Apparently this is "banker's rounding". Is this really what HLSL samplers use? I am using Shader Model 2 and FX Composer. This is my sampler declaration; //Colour map texture gColourmapTexture < string ResourceName = "Globe_Colourmap_Regions_Greyscale.png"; string ResourceType = "2D"; >; sampler2D gColourmapSampler : register(s1) = sampler_state { Texture = <gColourmapTexture>; #if DIRECT3D_VERSION >= 0xa00 Filter = MIN_MAG_MIP_LINEAR; #else /* DIRECT3D_VERSION < 0xa00 */ MinFilter = Linear; MipFilter = Linear; MagFilter = Linear; #endif /* DIRECT3D_VERSION */ AddressU = Clamp; AddressV = Clamp; };

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• Using pointers, references, handles to generic datatypes, as generic and flexible as possible

  - by Patrick

  In my application I have lots of different data types, e.g. Car, Bicycle, Person, ... (they're actually other data types, but this is just for the example). Since I also have quite some 'generic' code in my application, and the application was originally written in C, pointers to Car, Bicycle, Person, ... are often passed as void-pointers to these generic modules, together with an identification of the type, like this: Car myCar; ShowNiceDialog ((void *)&myCar, DATATYPE_CAR); The 'ShowNiceDialog' method now uses meta-information (functions that map DATATYPE_CAR to interfaces to get the actual data out of Car) to get information of the car, based on the given data type. That way, the generic logic only has to be written once, and not every time again for every new data type. Of course, in C++ you could make this much easier by using a common root class, like this class RootClass { public: string getName() const = 0; }; class Car : public RootClass { ... }; void ShowNiceDialog (RootClass *root); The problem is that in some cases, we don't want to store the data type in a class, but in a totally different format to save memory. In some cases we have hundreds of millions of instances that we need to manage in the application, and we don't want to make a full class for every instance. Suppose we have a data type with 2 characteristics: A quantity (double, 8 bytes) A boolean (1 byte) Although we only need 9 bytes to store this information, putting it in a class means that we need at least 16 bytes (because of the padding), and with the v-pointer we possibly even need 24 bytes. For hundreds of millions of instances, every byte counts (I have a 64-bit variant of the application and in some cases it needs 6 GB of memory). The void-pointer approach has the advantage that we can almost encode anything in a void-pointer and decide how to use it if we want information from it (use it as a real pointer, as an index, ...), but at the cost of type-safety. Templated solutions don't help since the generic logic forms quite a big part of the application, and we don't want to templatize all this. Additionally, the data model can be extended at run time, which also means that templates won't help. Are there better (and type-safer) ways to handle this than a void-pointer? Any references to frameworks, whitepapers, research material regarding this?

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• Unset/Change Binding in WPF

  - by captcalamares

  How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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• Modular GWT design concerns

  - by GlGuru

  Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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• Android library to get pitch from WAV file

  - by Sakura

  I have a list of sampled data from the WAV file. I would like to pass in these values into a library and get the frequency of the music played in the WAV file. For now, I will have 1 frequency in the WAV file and I would like to find a library that is compatible with Android. I understand that I need to use FFT to get the frequency domain. Is there any good libraries for that? I found that [KissFFT][1] is quite popular but I am not very sure how compatible it is on Android. Is there an easier and good library that can perform the task I want? EDIT: I tried to use JTransforms to get the FFT of the WAV file but always failed at getting the correct frequency of the file. Currently, the WAV file contains sine curve of 440Hz, music note A4. However, I got the result as 441. Then I tried to get the frequency of G4, I got the result as 882Hz which is incorrect. The frequency of G4 is supposed to be 783Hz. Could it be due to not enough samples? If yes, how much samples should I take? //DFT DoubleFFT_1D fft = new DoubleFFT_1D(numOfFrames); double max_fftval = -1; int max_i = -1; double[] fftData = new double[numOfFrames * 2]; for (int i = 0; i < numOfFrames; i++) { // copying audio data to the fft data buffer, imaginary part is 0 fftData[2 * i] = buffer[i]; fftData[2 * i + 1] = 0; } fft.complexForward(fftData); for (int i = 0; i < fftData.length; i += 2) { // complex numbers -> vectors, so we compute the length of the vector, which is sqrt(realpart^2+imaginarypart^2) double vlen = Math.sqrt((fftData[i] * fftData[i]) + (fftData[i + 1] * fftData[i + 1])); //fd.append(Double.toString(vlen)); // fd.append(","); if (max_fftval < vlen) { // if this length is bigger than our stored biggest length max_fftval = vlen; max_i = i; } } //double dominantFreq = ((double)max_i / fftData.length) * sampleRate; double dominantFreq = (max_i/2.0) * sampleRate / numOfFrames; fd.append(Double.toString(dominantFreq)); Can someone help me out? EDIT2: I manage to fix the problem mentioned above by increasing the number of samples to 100000, however, sometimes I am getting the overtones as the frequency. Any idea how to fix it? Should I use Harmonic Product Frequency or Autocorrelation algorithms?

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• Hibernate3: Self-Referencing Objects

  - by monojohnny

  Need some help on understanding how to do this; I'm going to be running recursive 'find' on a file system and I want to keep the information in a single DB table - with a self-referencing hierarchial structure: This is my DB Table structure I want to populate. DirObject Table: id int NOT NULL, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, parentid int NOT NULL); Here is the proposed Java Class I want to map (Fields only shown): public DirObject { int id; String name; DirObject parent; ... For the 'root' directory was going to use parentid=0; real ids will start at 1, and ideally I want hibernate to autogenerate the ids. Can somebody provide a suggested mapping file for this please; as a secondary question I thought about doing the Java Class like this instead: public DirObject { int id; String name; List<DirObject> subdirs; Could I use the same data model for either of these two methods ? (With a different mapping file of course). --- UPDATE: so I tried the mapping file suggested below (thanks!), repeated here for reference: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="my.proj.DirObject" table="category"> ... <set name="subDirs" lazy="true" inverse="true"> <key column="parentId"/> <one-to-many class="my.proj.DirObject"/> </set> <many-to-one name="parent" class="my.proj.DirObject" column="parentId" cascade="all" /> </class> ...and altered my Java class to have BOTH 'parentid' and 'getSubDirs' [returning a 'HashSet']. This appears to work - thanks, but this is the test code I used to drive this - I think I'm not doing something right here, because I thought Hibernate would take care of saving the subordinate objects in the Set without me having to do this explicitly ? DirObject dirobject=new DirObject(); dirobject.setName("/files"); dirobject.setParent(dirobject); DirObject d1, d2; d1=new DirObject(); d1.setName("subdir1"); d1.setParent(dirobject); d2=new DirObject(); d2.setName("subdir2"); d2.setParent(dirobject); HashSet<DirObject> subdirs=new HashSet<DirObject>(); subdirs.add(d1); subdirs.add(d2); dirobject.setSubdirs(subdirs); session.save(dirobject); session.save(d1); session.save(d2);

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• Setting up a "to-many" relationship value dependency for a transient Core Data attribute

  - by Greg Combs

  I've got a relatively complicated Core Data relationship structure and I'm trying to figure out how to set up value dependencies (or observations) across various to-many relationships. Let me start out with some basic info. I've got a classroom with students, assignments, and grades (students X assignments). For simplicity's sake, we don't really have to focus much on the assignments yet. StudentObj <--->> ScoreObj <<---> AssignmentObj Each ScoreObj has a to-one relation with the StudentObj and the AssignmentObj. ScoreObj has real attributes for the numerical grade, the turnInDate, and notes. AssignmentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that assignment (N = all students). AssignmentObj has real attributes for name, dueDate, curveFunction, gradeWeight, and maxPoints. StudentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that student (N = all assignments). StudentObj also has real attributes like name, studentID, email, etc. StudentObj has a transient (calculated, not stored) attribute called gradeTotal. This last item, gradeTotal, is the real pickle. it calculates the student's overall semester grade using the scores (ScoreObj) from all their assignments, their associated assignment gradeWeights, curves, and maxPoints, and various other things. This gradeTotal value is displayed in a table column, along with all the students and their individual assignment grades. Determining the value of gradeTotal is a relatively expensive operation, particularly with a large class, therefore I want to run it only when necessary. For simplicity's sake, I'm not storing that gradeTotal value in the core data model. I don't mind caching it somewhere, but I'm having a bitch of a time determining where and how to best update that cache. I need to run that calculation for each student whenever any value changes that affects their gradeTotal. If this were a simple to-one relationship, I know I could use something like keyPathsForValuesAffectingGradeTotal ... but it's more like a many-to-one-to-many relationship. Does anyone know of an elegant (and KVC correct) solution? I guess I could tear through all those score and assignment objects and tell them to register their students as observers. But this seems like a blunt force approach.

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• Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

  - by swilliams

  Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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• Parallel programming in C#

  - by Alxandr

  I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

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• approximating log10[x^k0 + k1]

  - by Yale Zhang

  Greetings. I'm trying to approximate the function Log10[x^k0 + k1], where .21 < k0 < 21, 0 < k1 < ~2000, and x is integer < 2^14. k0 & k1 are constant. For practical purposes, you can assume k0 = 2.12, k1 = 2660. The desired accuracy is 5*10^-4 relative error. This function is virtually identical to Log[x], except near 0, where it differs a lot. I already have came up with a SIMD implementation that is ~1.15x faster than a simple lookup table, but would like to improve it if possible, which I think is very hard due to lack of efficient instructions. My SIMD implementation uses 16bit fixed point arithmetic to evaluate a 3rd degree polynomial (I use least squares fit). The polynomial uses different coefficients for different input ranges. There are 8 ranges, and range i spans (64)2^i to (64)2^(i + 1). The rational behind this is the derivatives of Log[x] drop rapidly with x, meaning a polynomial will fit it more accurately since polynomials are an exact fit for functions that have a derivative of 0 beyond a certain order. SIMD table lookups are done very efficiently with a single _mm_shuffle_epi8(). I use SSE's float to int conversion to get the exponent and significand used for the fixed point approximation. I also software pipelined the loop to get ~1.25x speedup, so further code optimizations are probably unlikely. What I'm asking is if there's a more efficient approximation at a higher level? For example: Can this function be decomposed into functions with a limited domain like log2((2^x) * significand) = x + log2(significand) hence eliminating the need to deal with different ranges (table lookups). The main problem I think is adding the k1 term kills all those nice log properties that we know and love, making it not possible. Or is it? Iterative method? don't think so because the Newton method for log[x] is already a complicated expression Exploiting locality of neighboring pixels? - if the range of the 8 inputs fall in the same approximation range, then I can look up a single coefficient, instead of looking up separate coefficients for each element. Thus, I can use this as a fast common case, and use a slower, general code path when it isn't. But for my data, the range needs to be ~2000 before this property hold 70% of the time, which doesn't seem to make this method competitive. Please, give me some opinion, especially if you're an applied mathematician, even if you say it can't be done. Thanks.

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• jQuery: modify hidden form field value before submit

  - by Jason Miesionczek

  I have the following code in a partial view (using Spark): <span id="selectCount">0</span> video(s) selected. <for each="var video in Model"> <div style="padding: 3px; margin:2px" class="video_choice" id="${video.YouTubeID}"> <span id="video_name">${video.Name}</span><br/> <for each="var thumb in video.Thumbnails"> <img src="${thumb}" /> </for> </div> </for> # using(Html.BeginForm("YouTubeVideos","Profile", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "youTubeForm" })) # { <input type="hidden" id="video_names" name="video_names" /> <input type="submit" value="add selected"/> # } <ScriptBlock> $(".video_choice").click(function() { $(this).toggleClass('selected'); var count = $(".selected").length; $("#selectCount").html(count); }); var options = { target: '#videos', beforeSubmit: function(arr, form, opts) { var names = []; $(".selected").each(function() { names[names.length] = $(this).attr('id'); }); var namestring = names.join(","); $("#video_names").attr('value',namestring); //alert(namestring); //arr["video_names"] = namestring; //alert($.param(arr)); //alert($("#video_names").attr('value')); return true; } }; $("#youTubeForm").ajaxForm(options); </ScriptBlock> Essentially i display a series of divs that contain information pulled from the YouTube API. I use jQuery to allow the the user to select which videos they would like to add to their profile. When i submit the form i would like to populate the hidden field with a comma separated list of video ids. Everything works except that when i try to set the value of the field, in the controller on post, the field comes back empty. I am using the jQuery ajax form plugin. What am i doing wrong that is not allowing the value i set in the field to be sent to the server?

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• Looking for an Open Source Project in need of help

  - by hvidgaard

  Hi StackOverflow! I'm a CS student on well on my way to graduate. I have had a difficult time of finding relevant student jobs (they seems to be taken merely hours after the notice gets on the board) , so instead I'm looking for an open source project in need of help. I'm aware that I should choose one that I use, but I'm not aware of any OS-project that I use that needs help. That's why I'm asking you. I don't have any deep experience, but I here are some of my biggest projects so far: BitTorrent-ish client in Python (a subset of BitTorrent) HTTP 1.1 webserver in Java Compiler from a subset of Java to run on JRE Flash-framework project to model an iPad look and feel (not to run actual iPad programs) complete with an API for programs. Complete MySQL database for a booking system, with departure and arrival times, so you could only book valid tickets (with a Java frontend). I know, Java and languages like AS3 and C# feels natural per se, Python, and have done a fair bit of hacking around in C, but I don't feel very comfortable with it. Mostly I'm afraid to make a fuckup because I have such a high degree of control. I would like to think I'm well aware of good software design practices, but in reality what I do is ask myself "would I like to use/maintain this?", and I love to refactor my code because I see optimizations. I love algorithms and to make them run in the best possible time. I don't have any preferred domain to work in, but I wouldn't mind it to be graphics or math heavy. Ideally I'm looking for a project in C++ to learn the in's and out's of it, but I'm well aware that I don't know that language very well. I would like to have a mentor-like figure until I'm confident enough to stand on my own, not one to review all my code (I'm sure someone will to start with anyway), but to ask questions about the project and language in question. I do have a wife and two children, so don't expect me to put in 10+ hours every week. In return I can work on my own, I strive to program modular and maintainable code. Know how to read an API, use Google, StackOverflow and online resources in general. If you have any questions, shoot. I'm looking forward to your suggestions.

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• how to handle a array of objects in a session

  - by Robert

  Hello, In the project I'm working on I have got a list List<Item> with objects that Is saved in a session. Session.Add("SessionName", List); In the Controller I build a viewModel with the data from this session var arrayList = (List<Item>)Session["SessionName"]; var arrayListItems= new List<CartItem>(); foreach (var item in arrayList) { var listItem = new Item { Amount = item.Amount, Variant= item.variant, Id = item.Id }; arrayListItems.Add(listItem); } var viewModel = new DetailViewModel { itemList = arrayListItems } and in my View I loop trough the list of Items and make a form for all of them to be able to remove the item. <table> <%foreach (var Item in Model.itemList) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <tr> <td><%=Html.Hidden(Settings.Prefix + ".VariantId", Item .Variant.Id)%> <td> <%=Html.TextBox(Settings.Prefix + ".Amount", Item.Amount)%></td> <td> <%=Html.Encode(Item.Amount)%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Remove" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> <% } %> </table> When the post from the submit button is handeld the item is removed from the array and post back exactly the same viewModel (with 1 item less in the itemList). return View("view.ascx", viewModel); When the post is handled and the view has reloaded the value's of the html.Hidden and Html.Textbox are the value's of the removed item. The value of the html.Encode is the correct value. When i reload the page the correct values are in the fields. Both times i build the viewModel the exact same way. I cant find the cause or solution of this error. I would be very happy with any help to solve this problem Thanx in advance for any tips or help

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• Rails send mail with GMail

  - by Danny McClelland

  Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

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• Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

  - by Guillaume Schuermans

  Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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• Release management with a distributed version control system

  - by See Sharp Cheddar

  We're considering a switch from SVN to a distributed VCS at my workplace. I'm familiar with all the reasons for wanting to using a DVCS for day-to-day development: local version control, easier branching and merging, etc., but I haven't seen that much that's compelling in terms of managing software releases. Here's our release process: Discover what changes are available for merging. Run a query to find the defects/tickets associated with these changes. Filter out changes associated with "open" tickets. In our environment, tickets must be in a closed state in order to merged with a release branch. Filter out changes we don't want in the release branch. We are very conservative when it comes to merging changes. If a change isn't absolutely necessary, it doesn't get merged. Merge available changes, preferably in chronological order. We group changes together if they're associated with the same ticket. Block unwanted changes from the release branch (svnmerge block) so we don't have to deal with them again. Sometimes we can be juggling 3-5 different milestones at a time. Some milestones have very different constraints, and the block list can get quite long. I've been messing around with git, mercurial and plastic, and as far as I can tell none of them address this model very well. It seems like they would work very well when you have only one product you're releasing, but I can't imagine using them for juggling multiple, very different products from the same codebase. For example, cherry-picking seems to be an afterthought in mercurial. (You have to use the 'transplant' command). After you cherry-pick a change into a branch it still shows up as an available integration. Cherry-picking breaks the mercurial way of working. DVCS seems to be better suited for feature branches. There's no need for cherry-picking if you merge directly from a feature branch to trunk and the release branch. But who wants to do all that merging all the time? And how do you query for what's available to merge? And how do you make sure all the changes in a feature branch belong together? It sounds like total chaos. I'm torn because the coder in me wants DVCS for day-to-day work. I really want it. But I fear the day when I have to put the release manager hat and sort out what needs to be merged and what doesn't. I want to write code, I don't want to be a merge monkey.

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• POST parameters strangely parsed inside phantomjs

  - by user61629

  I am working with PHP/CURL and would like to send POST data to my phantomjs script, by setting the postfields array below: In my php controller I have: $data=array('first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith'); $url='http://localhost:7788/'; $output = $this->my_model->get_data($url,$data); In my php model I have: public function get_data($url,$postFieldArray) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookieFile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 6.0)"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postFieldArray); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); $output = curl_exec($ch); In my phantomJS script that I am running locally I have: // import the webserver module, and create a server var server = require('webserver').create(); var port = require('system').env.PORT || 7788; console.log("Start Application"); console.log("Listen port " + port); // Create serever and listen port server.listen(port, function(request, response) { // Print some information Just for debbug console.log("We got some requset !!!"); console.log("request method: ", request.method); // request.method POST or GET if(request.method == 'POST' ){ console.log("POST params should be next: "); console.log("POST params: ",request.post); exit; } I first start and run the phantomjs script (myscript.js) from the command line, then I run my php script. The output is: $ phantomjs.exe myscript.js Start Application Listen port 7788 null We got some requset !!! request method: POST POST params should be next: POST params: ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="first" John ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="last" Smith ------------------------------e70d439800f9-- I'm confused about the the output. I was expecting something more like: first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith Can someone explain why it looks this way? How can I parse the request.post object to assign to variables inside myscript.js

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• Hibernate MappingException Unknown entity: $Proxy2

  - by slynn1324

  I'm using Hibernate annotations and have a VERY basic data object: import java.io.Serializable; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class State implements Serializable { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id private String stateCode; private String stateFullName; public String getStateCode() { return stateCode; } public void setStateCode(String stateCode) { this.stateCode = stateCode; } public String getStateFullName() { return stateFullName; } public void setStateFullName(String stateFullName) { this.stateFullName = stateFullName; } } and am trying to run the following test case: public void testCreateState(){ Session s = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction t = s.beginTransaction(); State state = new State(); state.setStateCode("NE"); state.setStateFullName("Nebraska"); s.save(s); t.commit(); } and get an org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: $Proxy2 at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:121) .... I haven't been able to find anything referencing the $Proxy part of the error - and am at a loss.. Any pointers to what I'm missing would be greatly appreciated. hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver</property> <property name="connection.url">jdbc:hsqldb:hsql://localhost/xdb</property> <property name="connection.username">sa</property> <property name="connection.password"></property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.HSQLDialect</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <mapping class="com.test.domain.State"/> in HibernateUtil.java public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory(boolean testing ) { if ( sessionFactory == null ){ try { String configPath = HIBERNATE_CFG; AnnotationConfiguration config = new AnnotationConfiguration(); config.configure(configPath); sessionFactory = config.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(e); } } return sessionFactory; }

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• ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

  - by Simon

  Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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• ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

  - by Terminal Frost

  Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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• Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

  - by bgadoci

  I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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• How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

  - by James A. Rosen

  I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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• Programmatically Binding to a Property

  - by M312V

  I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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• How to prevent google chrome from caching my inputs, esp hidden ones when user click back?

  - by melaos

  hi there, i have an asp.net mvc app which have quite a few hidden inputs to keep values around and formatting their names so that i can use the Model binding later when i submit the form. i stumble into a weird bug with chrome which i don't have with IE or Firefox when the user submits the form and click on the back button, i find that chrome will keep my hidden input values as well. this whole chunk is generated via javascript hence i believe chrome is caching this. function addProductRow(productId, productName) { if (productName != "") { //use guid to ensure that the row never repeats var guid = $.Guid.New(); var temp = parseFloat($(".tboProductCount").val()); //need the span to workaround for chrome var szHTML = "<tr valign=\"top\" id=\"productRow\"><td class=\"productIdCol\"><input type=\"hidden\" id=productRegsID" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productId\" value=\"" + productId + "\"/>" + "<span id=\"spanProdID" + temp + "\" name=\"spanProdID" + temp + "\" >" + productId + "</span>" + "</td>" //+ "<td><input type=\"text\" id=\"productRegName\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productName\" value=\"" + productName + "\" class=\"productRegName\" size=\"50\" readonly=\"readonly\"/></td>" + "<td><span id=\"productRegName\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productName\" class=\"productRegName\">"+ productName + "<\span></td>" + "<td id=\"" + guid + "\" class=\"productrowguid\" \>" + "<input type=\"text\" size=\"20\" id=\"productSerialNo" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].serialNo\" value=\"" + "\" class=\"productSerialNo\" maxlength=\"18\" />" + "<a class=\"fancybox\" id=\"btnImgSerialNo" + temp + "\" href=\"#divSerialNo" + temp + "\"><img class=\"btnImgSerialNo\" src=\"Images/landing_14.gif\" /></a>" + "<span id=\"snFlag" + temp + "\" class=\"redWarning\"></span></td>" + "<td><input type=\"text\" id=\"productRegDate" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].PurchaseDate\" readonly=\"readonly\" />" + "<span id=\"snRegDate" + temp + "\" class=\"redWarning\"></span></td>" + "<td align=\"center\"><img style=\"cursor:pointer\" id=\"btnImgDelete\" src=\"Images/btn_remove.gif\" onclick=\"javascript:removeProductRow('" + guid + "')\" /><div style=\"display:none;\"><div id=\"divSerialNo" + temp + "\" style=\"font-family:verdana;font-size:11px;width:600px\">" + serialnumbergeneral + "<br /><br />" + getSNImageByCategory(productId) + "</div></div></td>" + "</tr>"; $(".ProductRegistrationTable").append(szHTML); $("a.fancybox").fancybox(); //initialization $("#productRegDate" + temp).datepicker({ minDate: new Date(1996, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: 0 }); //sanity check //s7test alert('1 '+$("#spanProdID" + temp)); alert('2 '+$("#productRegsID" + temp)); } //end function addNewProductRow i need the id to be refreshed when the user select a new product, but putting another span tag beside it shows that the span will have the new id will the hidden input will still have the previous id. is there an elegant way to workaround this issue? thanks

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