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  • Can't make my WCF extension work

    - by Sergio Romero
    I have a WCF solution that consists of the following class libraries: Exercise.Services: Contains the implementation classes for the services. Exercise.ServiceProxy: Contains the classes that are instantiated in the client. Exercise.HttpHost: Contains the services (*.svc files). I'm calling the service from a console application and the "first version" works really well so I took the next step which is to create a custom ServiceHostFactory, ServiceHost, and InstanceProvider so I can use constructor injection in my services as it is explained in this article. These classes are implemented in yet another class library: 4. Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension Now even though I've modified my service this: <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory" Service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" %> I always get the following exception: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException Security negotiation failed because the remote party did not send back a reply in a timely manner. This may be because the underlying transport connection was aborted. It fails in this line of code: public class PurchaseOrderProxy : ClientBase<IPurchaseOrderService>, IPurchaseOrderService { public PurchaseOrderResponse CreatePurchaseOrder(PurchaseOrderRequest purchaseOrderRequest) { return base.Channel.CreatePurchaseOrder(purchaseOrderRequest); //Fails here } } But that is not all, I added a trace to the web.config file and this is the error that appears in the log file: System.InvalidOperationException The service type provided could not be loaded as a service because it does not have a default (parameter-less) constructor. To fix the problem, add a default constructor to the type, or pass an instance of the type to the host. So this means that my ServiceHostFactory is never being hit, I even set a breakpoint in both its constructor and its method and they never get hit. I've added a reference of the StructureMapWcfExtension library to all the other ones (even the console client), one by one to no avail. I also tried to use the option in the host's web.config file to configure the factory like so: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceActivations> <add service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" relativeAddress="PurchaseOrderService.svc" factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory"/> </serviceActivations> </serviceHostingEnvironment> That didn't work either. Please I need help in getting this to work so I can incorporate it to our project. Thank you. UPDATE: Here's the service host factory's code: namespace Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension { public class StructureMapServiceHostFactory : ServiceHostFactory { private readonly Container Container; public StructureMapServiceHostFactory() { Container = new Container(); new ContainerConfigurer().Configure(Container); } protected override ServiceHost CreateServiceHost(Type serviceType, Uri[] baseAddresses) { return new StructureMapServiceHost(Container, serviceType, baseAddresses); } } public class ContainerConfigurer { public void Configure(Container container) { container.Configure(r => r.For<IPurchaseOrderFacade>().Use<PurchaseOrderFacade>()); } } }

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  • JBOSS 7 encoding not working as expected

    - by Fofole
    I had problems with my listgrids not showing diacritcs corectly and I found out that when I inserted from java into the db the values where already bugged. A post here helped and I changed my project properties - Text encoding - other - UTF-8 and this fixed my problem. Thing is this only fixes my problem locally. What I need to do is on my Jboss server also set the encoding somehow. This is what I put in my configuration file: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <server name="vali-ubuntu" xmlns="urn:jboss:domain:1.0"> extensions> extension module="org.jboss.as.clustering.infinispan"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.connector"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.deployment-scanner"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.ee"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.ejb3"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.jaxrs"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.jmx"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.logging"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.naming"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.osgi"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.remoting"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.sar"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.security"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.threads"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.transactions"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.web"/> extension module="org.jboss.as.weld"/> /extensions> system-properties> property name="org.apache.catalina.connector.URI_ENCODING" value="UTF-8"/> property name="org.apache.catalina.connector.USE_BODY_ENCODING_FOR_QUERY_STRING" value="tru e"/> /system-properties> //..... This doesn't work so maybe I need to add something else. I tried everything I could find with no succes so any help is appreciated. Thanks. EDIT:From what I read, this will work only in jboss 7.1.0 beta 1 or highier. (URIEncoding) and I use JBoss 7.0.2 so I need a replacement for 7.0.2

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  • Using JavaScript to parse an XML file

    - by Chris Clouten
    I am new to Stack OverFlow and coding in general. I am trying to take an XML file and render it in the browser using JavaScript. I have looked around at some sample code of how to do this and came up with the following code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <script> if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","social.xml",false); xmlhttp.send(); xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; document.write("<table border='1'>"); var x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("CD"); for (i=0;i<x.length;i++) { document.write("<tr><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("c_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("facebook_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td></tr>"); } document.write("</table>"); </script> </body> </html> Anyway, when I run this on my local server none of the data that I am trying to display in the table appears. My .html file and .xml file are in the same folder, so I believe I have the correct file pathway. I could just be making a rookie mistake here, but I can't for the life of me figure out why a table listing the c_id and facebook_id values is not being created. I looked around for answers and haven't been able to find any. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • JQuery uploadify plugin not working

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I first used primefaces FileUpload component and it didn't work. Always gave "HTTP Error". So i thought there is some bug with this component and went to plain old JQuery and tried using uploadify. But still i get the same error. I am using Container Managed Security. Is this the reason for not working properly? This is my script :- $(document).ready(function(){ $('#photoInput').uploadify({ 'script' : '/Blogger/fileUploadServlet', 'uploader' : './uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'cancelImg' : './uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto' : true }); And this is my servlet which is never executed :- package Servlets; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import javax.servlet.ServletException; import javax.servlet.annotation.WebServlet; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import org.apache.commons.fileupload.FileItemFactory; import org.apache.commons.fileupload.FileUploadException; import org.apache.commons.fileupload.disk.DiskFileItemFactory; import org.apache.commons.fileupload.servlet.ServletFileUpload; @WebServlet(name = "fileUploadServlet", urlPatterns = {"/fileUploadServlet"}) public class fileUploadServlet extends HttpServlet { protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException, FileUploadException { PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { System.out.println("Executed!!"); boolean isMultipart = ServletFileUpload.isMultipartContent(request); // Create a factory for disk-based file items FileItemFactory factory = new DiskFileItemFactory(); // Create a new file upload handler ServletFileUpload upload = new ServletFileUpload(factory); // Parse the request List /* FileItem */ items = upload.parseRequest(request); Iterator e = items.iterator(); while(e.hasNext()){ System.out.println(e.next().toString()); } } finally { out.close(); } } } }); Please help me. I am stuck on this since 3 hours.

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  • CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

    - by ControlFlow
    I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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  • IE8 web slice - CSS problem

    - by rjovic
    Again me with IE8 web slice :) This time i have following problem. I created web slice for IE8 and created button for users where they can choice to add it to their browsers. Code is : <input class="add" type="button" value="Dodaj Xica web slice u IE8!" onclick='window.external.AddToFavoritesBar("http://localhost:51914/Home/GetWebSlice", "xica.rjovic.com", "slice");' /> There is everything fine, and web slice is added to IE8 and web page is displayed correct. But I have problem with CSS in web slice. I defined css in it, but when web slice i rendered there are only black fonts without any css properties. My web slice is defined as : <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>GetWebSlice</title> <style type="text/css"> p {color: white; } body {background-color: blue; } .container {background-color: red;} </style> </head> <body> <div class="hslice container" id="xica"> <h2 class="entry-title container">Xica web slice</h2> <div class="entry-content"> <h2>Saldo : <b><%= ViewData["total"] %></b></h2> <p><%= ViewData["cardNumber"] %></p> <p>Status : <%= ViewData["status"] %></p> </div> </div> </body> </html> When I try to see web slice directly in my browser then everything is ok, and css is show as expected. Thank you...! EDIT : here is the picture of problem : http://www.deviantpics.com/share-2F10_4BD73E25.html

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  • How to launch a Windows service network process to listen to a port on a localhost socket that is vi

    - by rwired
    Here's the code (in a standard TService in Delphi): const ProcessExe = 'MyNetApp.exe'; function RunService: Boolean; var StartInfo : TStartupInfo; ProcInfo : TProcessInformation; CreateOK : Boolean; begin CreateOK := false; FillChar(StartInfo,SizeOf(TStartupInfo),#0); FillChar(ProcInfo,SizeOf(TProcessInformation),#0); StartInfo.cb := SizeOf(TStartupInfo); CreateOK := CreateProcess(nil, PChar(ProcessEXE),nil,nil,False, CREATE_NEW_PROCESS_GROUP+NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, nil, PChar(InstallDir), StartInfo, ProcInfo); CloseHandle(ProcInfo.hProcess); CloseHandle(ProcInfo.hThread); Result := CreateOK; end; procedure TServicel.ServiceExecute(Sender: TService); const IntervalsBetweenRuns = 4; //no of IntTimes between checks IntTime = 250; //ms var Count: SmallInt; begin Count := IntervalsBetweenRuns; //first time run immediately while not Terminated do begin Inc(Count); if Count >= IntervalsBetweenRuns then begin Count := 0; //We check to see if the process is running, //if not we run it. That's all there is to it. //if ProcessEXE crashes, this service host will just rerun it if processExists(ProcessEXE)=0 then RunService; end; Sleep(IntTime); ServiceThread.ProcessRequests(False); end; end; MyNetApp.exe is a SOCKS5 proxy listening on port 9870. Users configure their browser to this proxy which acts as a secure-tunnel/anonymizer. All works perfectly fine on 2000/XP/2003, but on Vista/Win7 with UAC the service runs in Session0 under LocalSystem and port 9870 doesn't show up in netstat for the logged-in user or Administrator. Seems UAC is getting in my way. Is there something I can do with the SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES or CreateProcess, or is there something I can do with CreateProcessAsUser or impersonation to ensure that a network socket on a service is available to logged-in users on the system (note, this app is for mass deployment, I don't have access to user credentials, and require the user elevate their privileges to install a service on Vista/Win7)

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  • jQuery Validation plugin, IE7 "SCRIPT3: Member not found"

    - by jkinz
    I have the following: <html> <head> </head> <body> <div> <form method="post"> <div id="questions"> <label for="question-6">Name of Course:</label> <input type="text" name="name_of_course[response]" value="" id="question-6" class="required"> <label class="control-label" for="reporting-year">Reporting Year: </label> <select name="reporting_year" id="reporting-year"> <option value="-1" selected="selected">Select option...</option> <option value="4">2013-2014</option> <option value="1">2012-2013</option> <option value="2">2011-2012</option> <option value="3">2010-2011</option> </select> </div> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Save Entry" class="btn"> </form> </div> <script src="//code.jquery.com/jquery.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.10.0/jquery.validate.min.js"></script> <script> $(function(){ jQuery.validator.addMethod("notEqual", function(value, element, param) { return this.optional(element) || value !== param; }, "Please select an option"); $('form').validate({ rules:{ 'reporting_year': { notEqual: "-1" } } }); }); </script> </body> </html> Everyone's favorite browser, IE7 (IE10 w/compatibility really) is reporting the following error in the console: SCRIPT3: Member not found. jquery.js, line 2525 character 4 Of course IE8 and above work fine, but my client is using IE7.

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  • Login function runs different between local and server

    - by quangnd
    Here is my check login function: protected bool checkLoginStatus(String email, String password) { bool loginStatus = false; bool status = false; try { Connector.openConn(); String str = "SELECT * FROM [User]"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(str, Connector.conn); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tblUser"); //check valid foreach (DataRow dr in ds.Tables[0].Rows) { if (email == dr["Email"].ToString() && password == Connector.base64Decode(dr["Password"].ToString())) { Session["login_status"] = true; Session["username"] = dr["Name"].ToString(); Session["userId"] = dr["UserId"].ToString(); status = true; break; } } } catch (Exception ex) { } finally { Connector.closeConn(); } return status; } And call it at my aspx page: String email = Login1.UserName.Trim(); String password = Login1.Password.Trim(); if (checkLoginStatus(email, password)) Response.Redirect(homeSite); else lblFailure.Text = "Invalid!"; I ran this page at localhost successful! When I published it to server, this function only can run if email and password correct! Other, error occured: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I tried open SQL Server 2008 Configuration Manager and enable SQL Server Browser service (Logon as:NT Authority/Local Service) but it stills error. (note: here is connection string of openConn() at Localhost (run on SQLEXpress 2005) connectionString="Data Source=MYLAPTOP\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=Spider_Vcms;Integrated Security=True" /> ) At server (run on SQL Server Enterprise 2008) connectionString="Data Source=SVR;Initial Catalog=Spider_Vcms;User Id=abc;password=123456;" /> anyone have an answer for my problem :( thanks a lot!

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  • Invalid character in a Base-64 string when Concatenating and Url encoding a string

    - by Rob
    I’m trying to write some encryption code that is passed through a Url. For the sake of the issue I’ve excluded the actual encryption of the data and just shown the code causing the problem. I take a salt value, convert it to a byte array and then convert that to a base64 string. This string I concatenate to another base64 string (which was previously a byte array). These two base64 strings are then Url encoded. Here’s my code... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; using System.Web; class RHEncryption { private static readonly Encoding ASCII_ENCODING = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); private static readonly string SECRET_KEY = "akey"; private static string md5(string text) { return BitConverter.ToString(new MD5CryptoServiceProvider().ComputeHash(ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(text))).Replace("-", "").ToLower(); } public string UrlEncodedData; public RHEncryption() { // encryption object RijndaelManaged aes192 = new RijndaelManaged(); aes192.KeySize = 192; aes192.BlockSize = 192; aes192.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; aes192.Key = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(md5(SECRET_KEY)); aes192.GenerateIV(); // convert Ivector to base64 for sending string base64IV = Convert.ToBase64String(aes192.IV); // salt value string s = "maryhadalittlelamb"; string salt = s.Substring(0, 8); // convert to byte array // and base64 for sending byte[] saltBytes = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(salt.TrimEnd('\0')); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(saltBytes); //url encode concatenated base64 strings UrlEncodedData = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(base64Salt + base64IV, ASCII_ENCODING); } public string UrlDecodedData() { // decode the url encode string string s = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(UrlEncodedData, ASCII_ENCODING); // convert back from base64 byte[] base64DecodedBytes = null; try { base64DecodedBytes = Convert.FromBase64String(s); } catch (FormatException e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } return s; } } If I then call the UrlDecodedData method I get a “Invalid character in a Base-64 string” exception. This is generated because the base64Salt variable contains an invalid character (I’m guessing a line termination) but I can’t seem to strip it off.

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  • JavaScript: How to get text from all descendents of an element, disregarding scripts?

    - by Bungle
    My current project involves gathering text content from an element and all of its descendents, based on a provided selector. For example, when supplied the selector #content and run against this HTML: <div id="content"> <p>This is some text.</p> <script type="text/javascript"> var test = true; </script> <p>This is some more text.</p> </div> my script would return (after a little whitespace cleanup): This is some text. var test = true; This is some more text. However, I need to disregard text nodes that occur within <script> elements. This is an excerpt of my current code: // get text content of all matching elements for (x = 0; x < selectors.length; x++) { matches = Sizzle(selectors[x], document); for (y = 0; y < matches.length; y++) { match = matches[y]; if (match.innerText) { // IE content += match.innerText + ' '; } else if (match.textContent) { // other browsers content += match.textContent + ' '; } } } It's a bit overly simplistic in that it just returns all text nodes within the element (and its descendants) that matches the provided selector. The solution I'm looking for would return all text nodes except for those that fall within script elements. It doesn't need to be especially high-performance, but I do need it to ultimately be cross-browser compatible. I'm assuming that I'll need to somehow loop through all children of the element that matches the selector and accumulate all text nodes other than ones within <script> elements; it doesn't look like there's any way to identify JavaScript once it's already rolled into the string accumulated from all of the text nodes. I can't use jQuery (for performance/bandwidth reasons), although you may have noticed that I do use its Sizzle selector engine, so jQuery's selector logic is available. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • How to troubleshoot a Highcharts script that's not rendering data when date is added and hanging the JS engine with large datasets?

    - by ylluminate
    I have a Highchart JS graph that I'm building in Rails (although I don't think Ruby has real bearing on this problem unless it's the Date output format) to which I'm adding the timestamp of each datapoint. Presently the array of floats is rendering fine without timestamps, however when I add the timestamp to the series it fails to rend. What's worse is that when the series has hundreds of entries all sorts of problems arise, not the least of which is the browser entirely hanging and requiring a force quit / kill. I'm using the following to build the array of arrays data series: series1 = readings.map{|row| [(row.date.to_i * 1000), (row.data1.to_f if BigDecimal(row.data1) != BigDecimal("-1000.0"))] } This yields a result like this: series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-09],[1326262920000,1.29e-09],[1326262860000,1.22e-09],[1326262800000,1.42e-09],[1326262740000,1.29e-09],[1326262680000,1.34e-09],[1326262620000,1.31e-09],[1326262560000,1.51e-09],[1326262500000,1.24e-09],[1326262440000,1.7e-09],[1326262380000,1.24e-09],[1326262320000,1.29e-09],[1326262260000,1.53e-09],[1326262200000,1.23e-09],[1326262140000,1.21e-09]],"color":"blue"}] Yet nothing appears on the graph as noted. Notwithstanding, when I compare the data series in one of their very similar examples here: http://www.highcharts.com/demo/spline-irregular-time It appears that really the data series are formatted identically (except in mine I use the timestamp vs date method). This leads me to think I've got a problem with the timestamp output, but I'm just not able to figure out where / how as I'm converting the date output to an integer multipled by 1000 to convert it to milliseconds as per explained in a similar Railscasts tutorial. I would very much appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction here as to what I may be doing wrong. What could cause no data to appear on the graph in smaller sized sets (<100 points) and when into the hundreds causes an apparent hang in the javascript engine in this case? Perhaps ultimately the key lies here as this is the entire js that's being generated and not rendering: jQuery(function() { // 1. Define JSON options var options = { chart: {"defaultSeriesType":"spline","renderTo":"chart_name"}, title: {"text":"Title"}, legend: {"layout":"vertical","style":{}}, xAxis: {"title":{"text":"UTC Time"},"type":"datetime"}, yAxis: [{"title":{"text":"Left Title","margin":10}},{"title":{"text":"Right Groups Title"},"opposite":true}], tooltip: {"enabled":true}, credits: {"enabled":false}, plotOptions: {"areaspline":{}}, series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-08],[1326262920000,1.69e-08],[1326262860000,1.62e-08],[1326262800000,1.42e-08],[1326262740000,1.29e-08],[1326262680000,1.34e-08],[1326262620000,1.31e-08],[1326262560000,1.51e-08],[1326262500000,1.64e-08],[1326262440000,1.7e-08],[1326262380000,1.64e-08],[1326262320000,1.69e-08],[1326262260000,1.53e-08],[1326262200000,1.23e-08],[1326262140000,1.21e-08]],"color":"blue"},{"name":"Data 2","data":[[1326262980000,9.79e-09],[1326262920000,9.78e-09],[1326262860000,9.8e-09],[1326262800000,9.82e-09],[1326262740000,9.88e-09],[1326262680000,9.89e-09],[1326262620000,1.3e-06],[1326262560000,1.32e-06],[1326262500000,1.33e-06],[1326262440000,1.33e-06],[1326262380000,1.34e-06],[1326262320000,1.33e-06],[1326262260000,1.32e-06],[1326262200000,1.32e-06],[1326262140000,1.32e-06]],"color":"red"}], subtitle: {} }; // 2. Add callbacks (non-JSON compliant) // 3. Build the chart var chart = new Highcharts.StockChart(options); });

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  • Noob LINQ - reading, filtering XML with XDocument

    - by user316117
    I'm just learning XDocument and LINQ queries. Here's some simple XML (which doesn't look formatted exactly right in this forum in my browser, but you get the idea . . .) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <quiz xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.example.com/name XMLFile2.xsd" title="MyQuiz1"> <q_a> <q_a_num>1</q_a_num> <q_>Here is question 1</q_> <_a>Here is the answer to 1</_a> </q_a> <q_a> <q_a_num>2</q_a_num> <q_>Here is question 2</q_> <_a>Here is the answer to 2</_a> </q_a> </quiz> I can iterate across all elements in my XML file and display their Name, Value, and NodeType in a ListBox like this, no problem: XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(sPath); IEnumerable<XElement> elems = doc.Descendants(); IEnumerable<XElement> elem_list = from elem in elems select elem; foreach (XElement element in elem_list) { String str0 = "Name = " + element.Name.ToString() + ", Value = " + element.Value.ToString() + ", Nodetype = " + element.NodeType.ToString(); System.Windows.Controls.Label strLabel = new System.Windows.Controls.Label(); strLabel.Content = str0; listBox1.Items.Add(strLabel); } ...but now I want to add a "where" clause to my query so that I only select elements with a certain name (e.g., "qa") but my element list comes up empty. I tried . . . IEnumerable<XElement> elem_list = from elem in elems where elem.Name.ToString() == "qa" select elem; Could someone please explain what I'm doing wrong? (and in general are there some good tips for debugging Queries?) Thanks in advance!

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  • Under what circumstances would a LINQ-to-SQL Entity "lose" a changed field?

    - by John Rudy
    I'm going nuts over what should be a very simple situation. In an ASP.NET MVC 2 app (not that I think this matters), I have an edit action which takes a very small entity and makes a few changes. The key portion (outside of error handling/security) looks like this: Todo t = Repository.GetTodoByID(todoID); UpdateModel(t); Repository.Save(); Todo is the very simple, small entity with the following fields: ID (primary key), FolderID (foreign key), PercentComplete, TodoText, IsDeleted and SaleEffortID (foreign key). Each of these obviously corresponds to a field in the database. When UpdateModel(t) is called, t does get correctly updated for all fields which have changed. When Repository.Save() is called, by the time the SQL is written out, FolderID reverts back to its original value. The complete code to Repository.Save(): public void Save() { myDataContext.SubmitChanges(); } myDataContext is an instance of the DataContext class created by the LINQ-to-SQL designer. Nothing custom has been done to this aside from adding some common interfaces to some of the entities. I've validated that the FolderID is getting lost before the call to Repository.Save() by logging out the generated SQL: UPDATE [Todo].[TD_TODO] SET [TD_PercentComplete] = @p4, [TD_TodoText] = @p5, [TD_IsDeleted] = @p6 WHERE ([TD_ID] = @p0) AND ([TD_TDF_ID] = @p1) AND /* Folder ID */ ([TD_PercentComplete] = @p2) AND ([TD_TodoText] = @p3) AND (NOT ([TD_IsDeleted] = 1)) AND ([TD_SE_ID] IS NULL) /* SaleEffort ID */ -- @p0: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] /* this SHOULD be 4 and in the update list */ -- @p2: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [90] -- @p3: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text] -- @p4: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [0] -- @p5: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text foo] -- @p6: Input Bit (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [True] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1 So somewhere between UpdateModel(t) (where I've validated in the debugger that FolderID updated) and the output of this SQL, the FolderID reverts. The other fields all save. (Well, OK, I haven't validated SaleEffortID yet, because that subsystem isn't really ready yet, but everything else saves.) I've exhausted my own means of research on this: Does anyone know of conditions which would cause a partial entity reset (EG, something to do with long foreign keys?), and/or how to work around this?

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  • Add new row to asp .net grid view using button

    - by SARAVAN
    Hi, I am working in ASP .net 2.0. I am a learner. I have a grid view which has a button in it. Please find the asp mark up below <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="myGridView" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button CommandName="AddARowBelow" Text="Add A Row Below" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div> </form> Please find the code behind below. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Data; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace GridViewDemo { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = new DataTable("myTable"); dt.Columns.Add("col1"); dt.Columns.Add("col2"); dt.Columns.Add("col3"); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); myGridView.DataSource = dt; myGridView.DataBind(); } protected void myGridView_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { } } } I was thinking that when I click the command button, it would fire the mygridview_rowcommand() but instead it threw an error as follows: Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" % in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. Can any one let me know on where I am going wrong?

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  • Not able to show video with html5

    - by shin
    I am testing html 5 video tag. I am using http://www.kaltura.org/project/HTML5_Video_Media_JavaScript_Library and http://camendesign.co.uk/. I downloaded the creative common video. When I use an external link, it plays the video. So I uploaded the video to my server but it does not play. It asks if I want to save it or asking an application to play. When I go to the external link, http://cdn.kaltura.org/apis/html5lib/kplayer-examples/media/bbb400p.ogv, it plays it on the browser automatically. I also tested locally, but it does not play either. I am hoping someone gives me why and how to solve the problem. This code works. <figure> <video id="vid1" width="500" height="300" style="position:absolute" poster="http://cdn.kaltura.org/apis/html5lib/kplayer-examples/media/bbb480.jpg" durationHint="33" controls = "true"> <source src="http://cdn.kaltura.org/apis/html5lib/kplayer-examples/media/bbb400p.ogv" /> <source src="http://cdn.kaltura.org/apis/html5lib/kplayer-examples/media/bbb_trailer_iphone.m4v"/> </video> </figure> This does not. <figure> <video id="vid1" width="500" height="300" style="position:absolute" poster="http://cdn.kaltura.org/apis/html5lib/kplayer-examples/media/bbb480.jpg" durationHint="33" controls = "true"> <source src="http://www.mywebsite.com/media/bbb400p.ogv" /> <source src="http://www.mywebsite.com/media/bbb_trailer_iphone.m4v"/> </video> </figure> This does not work either. <figure> <video id="vid1" width="500" height="300" style="position:absolute" poster="http://cdn.kaltura.org/apis/html5lib/kplayer-examples/media/bbb480.jpg" durationHint="33" controls = "true"> <source src="http://127.0.0.1/html5videotest/media/bbb400p.ogv" /> <source src="http://127.0.0.1/html5videotest/media/bbb_trailer_iphone.m4v"/> </video> </figure>

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  • How to use the Value of a Selected Value from a DropDownList populated with AJAX/PHP

    - by mouthpiec
    Hi, I have form with two dropdownlists (lets say A and B). When I select a value from A, B is being populated accordingly using AJAX In the same page I have a button, that when pressed, posts the values of the selected items of the dropdownlists to another PHP page. The problem I am having is that the selected value of B is returned as Blank/Empty. Is there a way to store the selected value of a dropdownlist populated using AJAX? Code below: (Main FORM) <form name="NewBar" method="post" onsubmit="return validateFormOnSubmit(this)" action="AssignContactDetailToBar_f.php"> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Bar:</b></td> <td> <select name = "bar" onChange="getContact('AssignContactDetailToBar_f_getContacts.php?bar='+this.value)" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">---Select---</option> <?php while ($data = mysql_fetch_array($r_getBarsDetails)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['bar_id']."\">".$data['bar_name']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Contact Person:</b></td> <td> <div id="persondiv"><select name = "person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Bar--</option> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input name="security" type="text" size="15"> </td> <td> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </td> </tr> </form> FORM to populate the 2nd Dropdownlist <select name="person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Person--</option> <?php while($data=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['person_id']."\">".$data['person_name']." ".$data['person_surname']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> if you would like to see the complete code download from here

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  • Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

    - by Carl Jokl
    I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

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  • Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

    - by user210119
    I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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  • How to set which version of the VC++ runtime Visual Studio 2005 targets

    - by TallGuy
    I have an application that contains a VC++ project (along with C# projects). Previously, (i.e. during the last year or so) when a build has been done, Visual Studio 2005 appears to be targeting the VC++ runtime version 8.0.50727.762. At least, that is what the Assembly.dll.intermediate.manifest file is telling me: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.762' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> This version number matches the Visual Studio 2005 version number. The application worked fine when deployed to the webserver. The sun was shining, the birds were singing and all was right with the world. Now something has changed. I don't know what - a security patch, an obscure Visual Studio setting or something. Now Visual Studio 2005 seems to be targeting the wrong version of the VC++ runtime: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.4053' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> When I deploy the application to the webserver, I get the dreaded This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B1) error. This problem occurs even when I recompile previous versions of the application. I can absolutely guarantee that nothing at all has changed in the solution - we zip up the entire contents of the solution as part of the build process and archive it. I have unzipped a number of these to a temp directory, verified that the previous manifest file refers to 8.0.50727.762, recompiled using exactly the same command at the command line and then verified that the new manifest file now refers to 8.0.50727.4053. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 Version 8.0.50727.762 (SP.050727-7600) and Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 77646-008-0000007-41610. Why would Visual Studio revert to a previous version of the VC++ runtime? How do I specify which version it should use? What is going wrong here?

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  • Feeding PDF through IInternetSession to WebBrowser control - Error

    - by Codesleuth
    As related to my previous question, I have developed a temporary asynchronous pluggable protocol with the specific aim to be able to serve PDF documents directly to a WebBrowser control via a database. I need to do this because my limitations include not being able to access the disk other than IsolatedStorage; and a MemoryStream would be far better for serving up PDF documents that average around 31kb. Unfortunately the code doesn't work, and I'm getting an error from the WebBrowser control (i.e. IE): Unable to download . Unable to open this Internet site. The requested site is either unavailable or cannot be found. Please try again later. The line in my code where this occurs is within the following: pOIProtSink.ReportData(BSCF.BSCF_LASTDATANOTIFICATION, (uint)_stream.Length, (uint)_stream.Length); However, if you download the project and run it, you will be able to see the stream is successfully read and passed to the browser, so it seems like there's a problem somewhere to do with the end of reading the data: public uint Read(IntPtr pv, uint cb, out uint pcbRead) { var bytesToRead = Math.Min(cb, _streamBuffer.Length); pcbRead = (uint)_stream.Read(_streamBuffer, 0, (int)bytesToRead); Marshal.Copy(_streamBuffer, 0, pv, (int)pcbRead); return (pcbRead == 0 || pcbRead < cb) ? HRESULT.S_FALSE : HRESULT.S_OK; } Here is the entire sample project: InternetSessionSample.zip (VS2010) I will leave this up for as long as I can to help other people in the future If anyone has any ideas why I might be getting this message and can shed some light on the problem, I would be grateful for the assistance. EDIT: A friend suggested inserting a line that calls the IInternetProtocolSink.ReportProgress with BINDSTATUS_CACHEFILENAMEAVAILABLE pointing at the original file. This prevents it from failing now and shows the PDF in the Adobe Reader control, but means it defeats the purpose of this by having Adobe Reader simply load from the cache file (which I can't provide). See below: pOIProtSink.ReportProgress(BINDSTATUS.BINDSTATUS_CACHEFILENAMEAVAILABLE, @"D:\Visual Studio Solutions\Projects\InternetSessionSample\bin\Debug\sample.pdf"); pOIProtSink.ReportData(BSCF.BSCF_LASTDATANOTIFICATION, (uint)_stream.Length, (uint)_stream.Length); This is progress though, I guess.

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • Escaping Code for Different Shells

    - by Jon Purdy
    Question: What characters do I need to escape in a user-entered string to securely pass it into shells on Windows and Unix? What shell differences and version differences should be taken into account? Can I use printf "%q" somehow, and is that reliable across shells? Backstory (a.k.a. Shameless Self-Promotion): I made a little DSL, the Vision Web Template Language, which allows the user to create templates for X(HT)ML documents and fragments, then automatically fill them in with content. It's designed to separate template logic from dynamic content generation, in the same way that CSS is used to separate markup from presentation. In order to generate dynamic content, a Vision script must defer to a program written in a language that can handle the generation logic, such as Perl or Python. (Aside: using PHP is also possible, but Vision is intended to solve some of the very problems that PHP perpetuates.) In order to do this, the script makes use of the @system directive, which executes a shell command and expands to its output. (Platform-specific generation can be handled using @unix or @windows, which only expand on the proper platform.) The problem is obvious, I should think: test.htm: <!-- ... --> <form action="login.vis" method="POST"> <input type="text" name="USERNAME"/> <input type="password" name="PASSWORD"/> </form> <!-- ... --> login.vis: #!/usr/bin/vision # Think USERNAME = ";rm -f;" @system './login.pl' { USERNAME; PASSWORD } One way to safeguard against this kind of attack is to set proper permissions on scripts and directories, but Web developers may not always set things up correctly, and the naive developer should get just as much security as the experienced one. The solution, logically, is to include a @quote directive that produces a properly escaped string for the current platform. @system './login.pl' { @quote : USERNAME; @quote : PASSWORD } But what should @quote actually do? It needs to be both cross-platform and secure, and I don't want to create terrible problems with a naive implementation. Any thoughts?

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  • AJAX response not valid in C++ but Apache

    - by fehergeri
    I want to make a server written in C++ to power my game. I learned the basics of sockets and wrote a basic chat program that worked well. Now I want to create an HTTP server like Apache, but only for the AJAX request-response part. I think just for the beginning i copied one Apache response text, and i sent the exact response with the C++ server program. The problem that is that the browser (Firefox) connnects to the apache and everything works fine, except all of the requests get a correct response. But if i send this with the C++ client, then FireBug tells me that the response status is OK (200) but there is no actual response text. (How is this possible?) This response-text is exactly the same what apache sends. I made a bit-bit comparison and they were the same. The php file wich is the original response <?php echo "AS";echo rand(0,9); ?> And the origional source code: Socket.h http://pastebin.com/bW9qxtrR Socket.cpp http://pastebin.com/S3c8RFM7 main.cpp http://pastebin.com/ckExuXsR index.html http://pastebin.com/mcfEEqPP < this is the requester file. ajax.js http://pastebin.com/uXJe9hVC benchmark.js http://pastebin.com/djSYtKg9 jQuery is not needed. The main.cpp there is lot of trash code like main3 and main4 functions, these do not affect the result. I know that the response stuff in the C++ code is not really good because the connection closing is not the best; I will fix that later now I want to send a success response first. UPDATE: now i tested today a lot again and i find out there is no problem with the socket. I used the fiddler program to capture the the good answer and to capture the bad. They were the same. After this i turned off my socket application, and forced fiddler to auto respond, and the answer from the 'bad' answer still bat. So after that i replaced the bad with the good and nothing happedned. The bad answer with the good text still bad on the :8888 port but the other on the original :80 port was good, but they were absolutly the same and the same program sended it (fiddler) i think there is something missing if the response is not on the same server address (even not the same port). UPDATE: oh my god! i cant send ajax request to a remote server. now i know this.

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  • jQuery post request is not sent until first post request is compleated

    - by Champ
    I have a function which have a long execution time. public void updateCampaign() { context.Session[processId] = "0|Fetching Lead360 Campaign"; Lead360 objLead360 = new Lead360(); string campaignXML = objLead360.getCampaigns(); string todayDate = DateTime.Now.ToString("dd-MMMM-yyyy"); context.Session[processId] = "1|Creating File for Lead360 Campaign on " + todayDate; string fileName = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("campaigns") + todayDate + ".xml"; objLead360.createFile(fileName, campaignXML); context.Session[processId] = "2|Reading The latest Lead360 Campaign"; string file = File.ReadAllText(fileName); context.Session[processId] = "3|Updating Lead360 Campaign"; string updateStatus = objLead360.updateCampaign(fileName); string[] statusArr = updateStatus.Split('|'); context.Session[processId] = "99|" + statusArr[0] + " New Inserted , " + statusArr[1] + " Updated , With " + statusArr[2] + " Error , "; } So to track the Progress of the function I wrote a another function public void getProgress() { if (context.Session[processId] == null) { string json = "{\"error\":true}"; Response.Write(json); Response.End(); }else{ string[] status = context.Session[processId].ToString().Split('|'); if (status[0] == "99") context.Session.Remove(processId); string json = "{\"error\":false,\"statuscode\":" + status[0] + ",\"statusmsz\":\"" + status[1] + "\" }"; Response.Write(json); Response.End(); } } To call this by jQuery post request is used reqUrl = "AjaxPages/lead360Campaign.aspx?processid=" + progressID + "&action=updatecampaign"; $.post(reqUrl); setTimeout(getProgress, 500); get getProgress is : function getProgress() { reqUrl = "AjaxPages/lead360Campaign.aspx?processid=" + progressID + "&action=getProgress"; $.post(reqUrl, function (response) { var progress = jQuery.parseJSON(response); console.log(progress) if (progress.error) { $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").html("Some error occured. Please try again later."); $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").css({ "background": "url(common/images/ajax_error.jpg) no-repeat center 6px" }); return; } if (progress.statuscode == 99) { $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").html("Update Status :"+ progress.statusmsz ); $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").css({ "background": "url(common/images/ajax_loded.jpg) no-repeat center 6px" }); return; } $("#fetchedCampaign .waitingMsz").html("Please Wait... " + progress.statusmsz); setTimeout(getProgress, 500); }); } But the problem is that I can't see the intermediate message. Only the last message is been displayed after a long lime of ajax loading message Also on the browser console I just see that after a long time first requested is completed and after that the second request is completed. but there should be for getProgress ? I have checked jquery.doc and it says that $post is an asynchronous request. Can anyone please explain what is wrong with the code or logic?

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