Search Results

Search found 28559 results on 1143 pages for 'upgrade issue'.

Page 966/1143 | < Previous Page | 962 963 964 965 966 967 968 969 970 971 972 973  | Next Page >

  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

    Read the article

  • best way to switch between secure and unsecure connection without bugging the user

    - by Brian Lang
    The problem I am trying to tackle is simple. I have two pages - the first is a registration page, I take in a few fields from the user, once they submit it takes them to another page that processes the data, stores it to a database, and if successful, gives a confirmation message. Here is my issue - the data from the user is sensitive - as in, I'm using an https connection to ensure no eavesdropping. After that is sent to the database, I'd like on the confirmation page to do some nifty things like Google Maps navigation (this is for a time reservation application). The problem is by using the Google Maps api, I'd be linking to items through a unsecure source, which in turn prompts the user with a nasty warning message. I've browsed around, Google has an alternative to enterprise clients, but it costs $10,000 a year. What I am hoping is to find a workaround - use a secure connection to take in the data, and after it is processed, bring them to a page that isn't secure and allows me to utilize the Google Maps API. If any of you have a Netflix account you can see exactly what I would like to do when you sign-in, it is a secure page, which then takes you to your account / queue, on an unsecure page. Any suggestions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Creating an Admin directory in Rails

    - by matsko
    I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Importing fixtures with foreign keys and SQLAlchemy?

    - by Chris Reid
    I've been experimenting with using fixture to load test data sets into my Pylons / PostgreSQL app. This works great except that it fails to properly create foreign keys if they reference an auto increment id field. My fixture looks like this: class AuthorsData(DataSet): class frank_herbert: first_name = "Frank" last_name = "Herbert" class BooksData(DataSet): class dune: title = "Dune" author_id = AuthorsData.frank_herbert.ref('id') And the model: t_authors = sa.Table("authors", meta.metadata, sa.Column("id", sa.types.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column("first_name", sa.types.String(100)), sa.Column("last_name", sa.types.String(100)), ) t_books = sa.Table("books", meta.metadata, sa.Column("id", sa.types.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column("title", sa.types.String(100)), sa.Column("author_id", sa.types.Integer, sa.ForeignKey('authors.id')) ) When running "paster setup-app development.ini", SQLAlchemey reports the FK value as "None" so it's obviously not finding it: 15:59:48,683 INFO [sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...9eb0] INSERT INTO books (title, author_id) VALUES (%(title)s, %(author_id)s) RETURNING books.id 15:59:48,683 INFO [sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...9eb0] {'author_id': None, 'title': 'Dune'} The fixture docs actually warn that this might be a problem: "However, in some cases you may need to reference an attribute that does not have a value until it is loaded, like a serial ID column. (Note that this is not supported by the SQLAlchemy data layer when using sessions.)" http://farmdev.com/projects/fixture/using-dataset.html#referencing-foreign-dataset-classes Does this mean that this is just not supported with SQLAlchemy? Or is it possible to load the data without using SA "sessions"? How are other people handling this issue?

    Read the article

  • Help! The log file for database 'tempdb' is full. Back up the transaction log for the database to fr

    - by michael.lukatchik
    We're running SQL Server 2000. In our database, we have an "Orders" table with approximately 750,000 rows. We can perform simple SELECT statements on this table. However, when we want to run a query like SELECT TOP 100 * FROM Orders ORDER BY Date_Ordered DESC, we receive the following message: Error: 9002, Severity: 17, State: 6 The log file for database 'tempdb' is full. Back up the transaction log for the database to free up some log space. We have other tables in our database which are similar in size of the amount of records that are in the tables (i.e. 700,000 records). On these tables, we can run any queries we'd like and we never receive a message about 'tempdb being full'. To resolve this, we've backed up our database, shrunk the actual database and also shrunk the database and files in the tempdb system database, but this hasn't resolved the issue. The size of our log file is set to autogrow. We're not sure where to go next. Are there any ideas why we still might be receiving this message? Error: 9002, Severity: 17, State: 6 The log file for database 'tempdb' is full. Back up the transaction log for the database to free up some log space.

    Read the article

  • Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

    - by Channel72
    I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

    Read the article

  • Web form is not updating tables, why?

    - by JPJedi
    I have a web application and on page is an update page to update some profile information. Below is the code I am using to update the table. But I think it is wrong. Does anything stick out? The connection string works cause it is used to read the database to get the profile information, I just removed it due to it containing password/login info for the db. player is the class of properties that contains player information and ds is the dataset, but I would like to update the database itself online... Dim connectionString As String = "" Dim GigsterDBConnection As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connectionString) GigsterDBConnection.Open() Dim updatetoursql As String = "UPDATE PLAYERS SET FIRSTNAME = '" & player.FIRSTNAME & "', LASTNAME = '" & player.LASTNAME & "', ADDRESS = '" & player.ADDRESS & "', CITY = '" & player.CITY & "', ZIP = '" & player.ZIP & "', PHONE = '" & player.PHONE & "', EMAIL = '" & player.EMAIL & "', REFFEREDBY = '" & player.REFEREDBY & "' " updatetoursql = updatetoursql & "PLAYERID = '" & player.PLAYERID & "';" Dim cmd As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(updatetoursql, GigsterDBConnection) Dim sqlAdapter As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataAdapter(cmd) sqlAdapter.Update(ds, "PLAYERS") I think the issue is something the 3 last lines of the code. am I doing it right or is their a better way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • .NET RichTextBox: unable to change Rtf property.

    - by Dave
    Hey guys, Perhaps I'm missing something real simple here, but I've been struggling to change the RTF property of my RichTextBox in order to apply some color coding to my text. Probably the most straight-forward example of the problem I'm having is setting the Rtf property to include a color table in its header. The default RTF string returned by the Rtf property: {\rtf1\ansi\ansicpg1252\deff0\deflang1033{\fonttbl{\f0\fnil\fcharset0 Microsoft Sans Serif;}}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs17\par} And the new RTF string I'd like to set with my color table: {\rtf1\ansi\ansicpg1252\deff0\deflang1033{\fonttbl{\f0\fnil\fcharset0 Microsoft Sans Serif;}{\colortbl;\red128\green0\blue0;\red0\green128\blue0;\red0\green0\blue255;}}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs17\par} And I set this using: RichTextBox richTextBox = new RichTextBox(); richTextBox.Rtf = rtfStr; // My new RTF string, as seen above. However, via debugger, it can be observed the that Rtf property stubbornly refuses to change; no exceptions are thrown, it just refuses to change. Same issue happens when I string.Replace() words to include RTF color tags around them. I've also tried turning off any ReadOnly properties on the text box. Any suggestions would be most helpful, thanks! Dave

    Read the article

  • Update Related Entity Of Detached Entity

    - by Hemslingo
    I'm having an issue updating an entity with multiple related entities. I've got a very simple model which consists of an article entity and a list of categories the article can be related to. You can choose from a check box list which of these categories are associated to it...which works fine. The problem crops up when I actually come to update an existing entity using the dbContext. As I am updating this entity, I have already detached it from the context ready to re-attach it later so the update can execute properly. I can see that after I posting the model, the category(s) are being added to the article entity just fine and it looks like it updates in the repository with no errors occurring. When I look in the database the article has updated as normal but the category(s) have not. Here is my (simplified) update code... public virtual bool Attach(T entity) { _dbContext.Entry(entity).State = EntityState.Modified; _dbSet.Attach(entity); return this.Commit(); } Any help will be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

    - by Vishal
    Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

    Read the article

  • Magento failure.phtml, get the order total

    - by Kieran
    Hello. One of the projects I work on has the failure page and success page in magento as exactly the same and requires some tracking code on both. The tracking code requires the order ID and the amount being ordered. The issue I'm having is trying to get the order total on the failure page. The methods built into the block class Mage_Checkout_Block_Onepage_Failure are getRealOrderId(), getErrorMessage() and getContinueShoppingUrl(), so no help there. I found some code to do what I want on the success page but it doesn't work for the failure page. <?php $orderId = $this->getRealOrderId(); $order = Mage::getSingleton('sales/order'); $order->load($orderId); $_totalData = $order->getData(); $_grand = $_totalData['grand_total']; ?> I dumped $order and $_totalData. $_totalData just an empty array and $order an empty Mage_Sales_Model_Order instance. Does anyone have any suggestions for where to get the grand total of what is being purchased? Regards, Kieran (I'm also having issues testing the success page as I can't get to it, even putting in the correct test card details on the dev server - but I'll find a way around this)

    Read the article

  • Got a table of people, who I want to link to each other, many-to-many, with the links being bidirect

    - by dflock
    Imagine you live in very simplified example land - and imagine that you've got a table of people in your MySQL database: create table person ( person_id int, name text ) select * from person; +-------------------------------+ | person_id | name | +-------------------------------+ | 1 | Alice | | 2 | Bob | | 3 | Carol | +-------------------------------+ and these people need to collaborate/work together, so you've got a link table which links one person record to another: create table person__person ( person__person_id int, person_id int, other_person_id int ) This setup means that links between people are uni-directional - i.e. Alice can link to Bob, without Bob linking to Alice and, even worse, Alice can link to Bob and Bob can link to Alice at the same time, in two separate link records. As these links represent working relationships, in the real world they're all two-way mutual relationships. The following are all possible in this setup: select * from person__person; +---------------------+-----------+--------------------+ | person__person_id | person_id | other_person_id | +---------------------+-----------+--------------------+ | 1 | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | 3 | 2 | 2 | | 4 | 3 | 1 | +---------------------+-----------+--------------------+ For example, with person__person_id = 4 above, when you view Carol's (person_id = 3) profile, you should see a relationship with Alice (person_id = 1) and when you view Alice's profile, you should see a relationship with Carol, even though the link goes the other way. I realize that I can do union and distinct queries and whatnot to present the relationships as mutual in the UI, but is there a better way? I've got a feeling that there is a better way, one where this issue would neatly melt away by setting up the database properly, but I can't see it. Anyone got a better idea?

    Read the article

  • Problem with cruise control and visual svn

    - by Andrew
    Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

    Read the article

  • Java Swing Threading with Updatable JProgressBar

    - by Anthony Sparks
    First off I've been working with Java's Concurency package quite a bit lately but I have found an issue that I am stuck on. I want to have and Application and the Application can have a SplashScreen with a status bar and the loading of other data. So I decided to use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait( call the splash component here ). The SplashScreen then appears with a JProgressBar and runs a group of threads. But I can't seem to get a good handle on things. I've looked over SwingWorker and tried using it for this purpose but the thread just returns. Here is a bit of sudo-code. and the points I'm trying to achieve. Have an Application that has a SplashScreen that pauses while loading info Be able to run multiple threads under the SplashScreen Have the progress bar of the SplashScreen Update-able yet not exit until all threads are done. Launching splash screen try { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait( SplashScreen ); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } catch (InvocationTargetException e) { } Splash screen construction SplashScreen extends JFrame implements Runnable{ public void run() { //run threads //while updating status bar } } I have tried many things including SwingWorkers, Threads using CountDownLatch's, and others. The CountDownLatch's actually worked in the manner I wanted to do the processing but I was unable to update the GUI. When using the SwingWorkers either the invokeAndWait was basically nullified (which is their purpose) or it wouldn't update the GUI still even when using a PropertyChangedListener. If someone else has a couple ideas it would be great to hear them. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • UpdatePanel and ModalPopup Extender

    - by rs
    I have my form designed as <asp:Panel runat="server" Id="xyz"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> 'Gridview with edit/delete - opens detailsview(edit template) with data for editing </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> 'Hyperlink to open detailsview(insert template) for inserting records </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" Id="xyz1"> 'Ajax modal popup extender control </asp:Panel> It works perfectly when i click update, insert alternately, but when i click insert hyperlink (which is outside gridview) and close/cancel popup without any insert and then again click insert it doesn't call insert_onclick event. It works if i click some other button and click this button. What could be causing this issue and how can i solve it?

    Read the article

  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

    Read the article

  • What are the security implications of making a clientaccesspolicy proxy workaround?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I wanted to use a published GoogleDocs document as the datasource of a Silverlight application but ran into clientaccesspolicy issues. I read many articles like this and this about how difficult it is to get around the clientaccesspolicy issue. So I wrote this 15-line CURL script and put it on my PHP site and now I can get the text of any GoogleDocs document and any text from any URL into my Silverlight application: <?php $url = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'url',FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $user_agent = 'Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url ); // set url to post to curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); // Fail on errors curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 0); // allow redirects curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); // return into a variable curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 0); echo curl_exec($ch); ?> So it makes me wonder: Why is there so much discussion about whether or not URLs support clientaccesspolicy or not, since you just have to write a simple proxy script and get the information through it? Why aren't there services, e.g. like the URL shortening services, which supply this functionality? What are the security implications of having a script like this?

    Read the article

  • Efficient AutoSuggest with jQuery?

    - by nobosh
    I'm working to build a jQuery AutoSuggest plugin, inspired by Apple's spotlight. Here is the general code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#q').bind('keyup', function() { if( $(this).val().length == 0) { // Hide the q-suggestions box $('#q-suggestions').fadeOut(); } else { // Show the AJAX Spinner $("#q").css("background-image","url(/images/ajax-loader.gif)"); $.ajax({ url: '/search/spotlight/', data: {"q": $(this).val()}, success: function(data) { $('#q-suggestions').fadeIn(); // Show the q-suggestions box $('#q-suggestions').html(data); // Fill the q-suggestions box // Hide the AJAX Spinner $("#q").css("background-image","url(/images/icon-search.gif)"); } }); } }); The issue I want to solve well & elegantly, is not killing the sever. Right now the code above hits the server every time you type a key and does not wait for you to essentially finish typing. What's the best way to solve this? A. Kill previous AJAX request? B. Some type of AJAX caching? C. Adding some type of delay to only submit .AJAX() when the person has stopped typing for 300ms or so?

    Read the article

  • Reusing Windows Picture and Fax Viewer process to load a new image from FileSystemWatcher

    - by Cory Larson
    So for an idea for my birthday party I'm setting up a photo booth. I've got software to remotely control the camera and all that, but I need to write a little application to monitor the folder where the pictures get saved and display them. Here's what I've got so far. The issue is that I don't want to launch a new Windows Photo Viewer process every time the FileSystemWatcher sees a new file, I just want to load the latest image into the current instance of the Windows Photo Viewer (or start a new one if one isn't running). class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { new Program().StartWatching(); } public void StartWatching() { FileSystemWatcher incoming = new FileSystemWatcher(); incoming.Path = @"G:\TempPhotos\"; incoming.NotifyFilter = NotifyFilters.LastWrite | NotifyFilters.FileName; incoming.Filter = "*.jpg"; incoming.Created += new FileSystemEventHandler(ShowImage); incoming.EnableRaisingEvents = true; Console.WriteLine("Press \'q\' to quit."); while (Console.Read() != 'q') ; } private void ShowImage(object source, FileSystemEventArgs e) { string s1 = Environment.ExpandEnvironmentVariables("%windir%\\system32\\rundll32.exe "); string s2 = Environment.ExpandEnvironmentVariables("%windir%\\system32\\shimgvw.dll,ImageView_Fullscreen " + e.FullPath); Process.Start(s1, s2); Console.WriteLine("{0} : Image \"{0}\" at {1:t}.", e.ChangeType, e.FullPath, DateTime.Now); } } If you don't have a tried and true solution, a simple push in the right direction would be just as valuable. And FYI, this will be running on a 64-bit Windows 7 machine. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • OutOfMemoryException

    - by Andrew
    I have an application that is pretty memory hungry. It holds a large amount of data in some big arrays. I have recently been noticing the occasional OutOfMemoryException. These OutOfMemoryExceptions are occurring long before my application (ASP.Net) has used up the 800mb available to it. I have track the issue down to the area of code where the array is resized. The array contains a structure that is 74bytes in size. (I know that you shouldn't create struct's that are bigger than 16bytes), but this application is a port from a Vb6 application). I have tried changing the struct to a class and this appears to have fixed the problem for now. I think the reason that changing to a class solves the problem has to do with the fact that when using a struct and the array is resized, a segment of memory that is large enough to store the new array needs to be reserved (e.g. (currentArraySize + increaseBySize)*74) cannot be found. This leads to the OutOfMemoryException. This isn't the case with a class as each element of the array only needs 8bytes to store a pointer to the new object. Is my thinking correct here?

    Read the article

  • Trouble Shoot JavaScript Function in IE

    - by CreativeNotice
    So this function works fine in geko and webkit browsers, but not IE7. I've busted my brain trying to spot the issue. Anything stick out for you? Basic premise is you pass in a data object (in this case a response from jQuery's $.getJSON) we check for a response code, set the notification's class, append a layer and show it to the user. Then reverse the process after a time limit. function userNotice(data){ // change class based on error code returned var myClass = ''; if(data.code == 200){ myClass='success'; } else if(data.code == 400){ myClass='error'; } else{ myClass='notice'; } // create message html, add to DOM, FadeIn var myNotice = '<div id="notice" class="ajaxMsg '+myClass+'">'+data.msg+'</div>'; $("body").append(myNotice); $("#notice").fadeIn('fast'); // fadeout and remove from DOM after delay var t = setTimeout(function(){ $("#notice").fadeOut('slow',function(){ $(this).remove(); }); },5000); }

    Read the article

  • WiX: Define made in included file not avaible from wxs-fragment-file.

    - by leiflundgren
    I have a defines.wxi-file which contains some good definitions used in all my wxs-files. When I attempt to reference the defined value from one of the <Fragment>-files I get Undefined preprocessor variable '$(var.IMAGE_FOLDER)' back in my face. I guess there is something trivial I am missing here... Any ideas? Edit 19:th April. Found that issue only occurs if reference from a Fragment-file. Re-wrote sample to match that. defines.wxi <Include> <?define IMAGE_FOLDER="Images" ?> </Include> some-Fragment.wxs <Fragment> <?Include defines.wxi ?> <Component Id='c.Images' Guid=".." Directory='INSTALLDIR.Images' > <File Id='f.sample.jpg' Source='$(var.IMAGE_FOLDER)sample.jpg' Name='sample.jpg' /> </Component>

    Read the article

  • Authenticated WCF: Getting the Current Security Context

    - by bradhe
    I have the following scenario: I have various user's data stored in my database. This data was entered via a web app. We'd like to expose this data back to the user over a web service so that they can integrate their data with their applications. We would also like to expose some business logic over these services. As such we do not want to use OData. This is a multi-tenant application so I only want to expose their data back to them and not other users. Likewise, the business logic we expose should be relative to the authenticated user. I would like let the user use an OASIS scheme to authenticate with the web service -- WCF already allows for this out of the box as far as I understand -- or perhaps we can issue them certificates to authenticate with. That bit hasn't really been worked out yet. Here is a bit of pseudo-code of how I envision this would work within the service: function GetUsersData(id) var user := Lookup User based on Username from Auth Context var data := Get Data From Repository based on "user" return data end function For the business logic scenario I think it would look something like this: function PerformBusinessLogic(someData) var user := Lookup User based on Username from Auth Context var returnValue := Perform some logic based on supplied data return returnValue end function The hard bit here is getting the current username (or cert info in the cert scenario) that the user authenticated with! Does WCF even enable this scenario? If not would WSE3 enable this? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • passing java mail message object from between applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

    Read the article

  • Linq-to-sql Add item and a one-to-many record at once

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have a function where I can add articles and users can comment on them. This is done with a one to many relationship like= "commentId=>ArticleId". However when I try to add the comment to the database at the same time as I add the one to many record, the commentId is not known. Like this code: Comment comment = new Comment(); comment.Date = DateTime.UtcNow; comment.Text = text; comment.UserId = userId; db.Comments.InsertOnSubmit(comment); comment.Articles.Add(new CommentsForArticle() { ArticleId = articleId, CommentId = comment.CommentId }); The commentId will be 0 before i press submit. Is there any way arround not having to submit in between or do I simply have to cut out the part where I have a one-to-many relationship and just use a CommentTable with a column like "ArticleId". What is best in a performance perspective? I understand the underlying issue, I just want to know which solution works best.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 962 963 964 965 966 967 968 969 970 971 972 973  | Next Page >