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• Basic Team Foundation Server 2010 Question - System Resource Usage?

  - by user127954

  Guys / Gals i have a real basic Team Foundation Server 2010 question. For those of you who have played around with tfs 2010 is it a lot more light weight than tfs2008 is? I remember installing all the pieces needed for TFS 2008 one one machine at work. I remember it being a pain to install (i know 2010 is supposed to be much better) We wanted to play around with it a little bit to see if it met our needs. Well it brought that machine to a screeching halt. I'm needing a source control repository for home and i thought why not just install tfs 2010 so i can get familiar with it and maybe in the future i can make a better sell to my organization and FINALLY get them to move off of Source Safe but my concern is i only have one server at home (granted i already have SQL Server installed) and don't want to buy a machine just for this purpose. I'd also like to get more familiar with CI too. Anyways, if team is going to be to heavy i'll just use subversion but i'd like to use TFS if possible. Any help would be appreciated. thanks, Ncage

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• Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

  - by Doug Chamberlain

  Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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• WebView and HTML5 <video>

  - by brian moore

  I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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• Javascript + PHP $_POST array empty

  - by Peterim

  While trying to send a POST request via xmlhttp.open("POST", "url", true) (javascript) to the server I get an empty $_POST array. Firebug shows that the data is being sent. Here is the data string from Firebug: a=1&q=151a45a150.... But $_POST['q'] returns nothing. The interesting thing is that file_get_contents('php://input') does have my data (the string above), but PHP somehow doesn't recognize it. Tried both $_POST and $_REQUEST, nothing works. Headers being sent: POST /test.php HTTP/1.1 Host: website.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://website.com/ Content-Length: 156 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Thank you for any suggestions.

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• Problem in getting response from server in jquery

  - by Alvin

  Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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• What database strategy to choose for a large web application

  - by Snoopy

  I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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• C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

  - by Madi D.

  I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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• WCF cross-domain policy security error

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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• Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

  - by Ev

  Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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• Need an Overview of Possibilities for multicolumn programming

  - by Sam

  Hi folks, From source1 and source2 i gather that IE9 will NOT support multi-column css3!! Since it is still the most popular browser (another thing i cannot understand), i am left but no other choice than to use Programming Power to make multi-columns work. Now, I use three divs that float to left, and which are manually filled with text. Please don't laugh i know its stupid! But I would wish to not to have to worry about the columns and just have a one piece of (un-interrupted) text which all goes into only 1 div, and then have a program smart enough to split it up into X equally wide columns. Question: before i start reinvent the wheel, what methods of programming power have you known that tackle this elegantly? Please suggest your best working multi-column layout sources so I can evaluate which option is the best (I will update the below table). Exploring all possibilities 2011 and further, to enable multi column text user experience: Language Author SourceCodeUsage WorksOnAllMajorBrowser? ================================================================================= html manual labour put text manually in separate left-floating divs "Y" // Upside: control! Downside: few changes necessitates to reflow 3 divs manually! CSS3 w3c css3.info/preview/multi-column-layout/ "N" // {-moz-column-count: 3; -webkit-column-count: 3; } Thats all! javascript a list apart will add url soon ? // php ? ? ? //

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• DataGridView update datasource directly after changed Checkbox value

  - by SchlaWiener

  I have a System.Windows.Forms DataGridView that is bound to a List<MyObject>. The class MyObject contains a boolean property that is bound to DataGridViewCheckboxCell within the DataGridView. public class MyObject { public decimal DefaultValue {get; set; } public bool HasCustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CurrentValue { get { return HasCustomValue ? CustomValue : DefaultValue; } } If I change the value of HasCustomValue another (readonly) property CurrentValue changes it's value, too. That is done by implementing the INotifyPropertyChanged event (I left that part in the source example for simplicity) If I changed HasCustomValue from outside the DataGridView, the column bound to CurrentValue gets updated immediately. Howevery, If the users enables/disables the checkbox, HasCustomValue is not changed in the underlying datasource unless he leaves the column by clicking with the mouse or pressing the TAB key. Is there a way to force the grid to update the datasource directly after changing a checkbox value? If I bind a Control Property I have the ability to set the DataSourceUpdateMode to Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged but I haven't found anything like that in a DataGridView

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• JavaFX MouseEvent continues when I remove the object it happened on

  - by Kyle

  It took me a while to realize what was going on with mouse events going through my blocking dialog boxes when I closed them, but I finally figured out why. I still don't know any good way to fix it. I have a custom dialog box (that blocks the mouse) with a close button. When I click the close button, I remove the dialog box from the scene, but JavaFx is still processing the MouseEvent and now it finds that there is nothing blocking the screen behind where the cancel button was, so that component receives a MouseEvent. How do I make the mouseEvent stop processing when I see that they pressed cancel and remove the dialog box? Or, is there a way to make the removing of the dialog box not happen until after it is done processing the MouseEvent? Example Code for the problem: import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.scene.control.Button; var theScene:Scene; var btn:Button; Stage { title: "Application title" scene: theScene= Scene { width: 500 height: 200 content: [ Rectangle{ width: bind theScene.width height: bind theScene.height onMouseClicked: function(e:MouseEvent):Void{ println("Rectangle");} }, Button{ layoutX: 20 layoutY: 50 blocksMouse: true text: "JustPrint" action:function():Void{ println("JustPrint");} }, btn = Button{ layoutX: 20 layoutY: 20 blocksMouse: true text: "Cancel" action:function():Void{ println("Cancel"); delete btn from theScene.content;} }, ] } } When you press "JustPrint" you get: JustPrint When you press "Cancel" you get: Cancel Rectangle

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• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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• How to get value of h:inputText when binded in JSF

  - by Tr?n Minh Phuong

  How can i get 2 h:inputTextValue from this? <h:dataTable cellspacing="0" value="#{managerManagedBean.lstMatch}" var="m" binding="#{managerManagedBean.datatableMatch}"> <!-- cellspacing='0' is important, must stay --> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team One</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamOneName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Score</f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{m.teamOneResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center" binding="#{input}"></h:inputText> - <h:inputText value="#{m.teamTwoResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center"></h:inputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Half Time</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.haveHalfTime}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team Two</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamTwoName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Date</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.matchDate}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Control</f:facet> <h:commandButton action="#{managerManagedBean.update(m, input.value)}" value="Update Match"> </h:commandButton> </h:column> </h:dataTable>

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• How to extract byte-array from one xml and store it in another in Java

  - by grobartn

  So I am using DocumentBuilderFactory and DocumentBuilder to parse an xml. So it is DOM parser. But what I am trying to do is extract byte-array data (its an image encoded in base64) Store it in one object and later in code write it out to another xml encoded in base64. What is the best way to store this in btw. Store it as string? or as ByteArray? How can I extract byte array data in best way and write it out. I am not experienced with this so wanted to get opinion from the group. UPDATE: I am given XML I do not have control of incoming XML that comes in binary64 encoded < byte-array > ... base64 encoded image ... < /byte-array > Using parser I have I need to store this node and question is should that be byte or string and then writing it out to another node in new xml. again in base64 encoding. thanks

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• Populate a column as a result of performing math on two columns in a jqGrid.

  - by HacksawOnRye

  Background: Our company selected a workflow tool that has some "interersting" UI restrictions. jqGrid has been identified as one of best ways to overcome these restrictions. Consequently, the answers to this question need to be restricted to functionlity available within the jqGrid space. It pains me to pose this question and I know you will tempted to go down a million other paths - most that we have already traveled before. :( Question: Can jqGrid populate a column as a result of performing math on two other columns. The source of those two columns is in our control so we can "guarantee" that numeric data will be returned. Also, the result is something that we simplay want to display on demand but not store yet. On the example below, is there a function that allow the 'total' column to be populated from the following calculation: 'amount' * 'tax' Example jqGrid javascript: jQuery("#list3").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?q=2', datatype: "json", colNames:['Inv No','Date', 'Client', 'Amount','Tax','Total','Notes'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:60, sorttype:"int"}, {name:'invdate',index:'invdate', width:90, sorttype:"date"}, {name:'name',index:'name', width:100}, {name:'amount',index:'amount', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'tax',index:'tax', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'total',index:'total', width:80,align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'note',index:'note', width:150, sortable:false} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[10,20,30], pager: '#pager3', sortname: 'id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "desc", loadonce: true, caption: "Load Once Example" });

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• How do I call the methods in a model via controller? Zend Framework

  - by Joel

  Hi guys, I've been searching for tutorials to better understand this, but I'm having no luck. Please forgive the lengthy explination, but I want make sure I explain myself well. First, I'm quite new to the MVC structure, though I have been doing tutorials and learning as best I can. I have been moving over a live site into the Zend Framework model. So far, I have all the views within views/scripts/index/example.phtml. So therefore I'm using one IndexController and I have the code in each Action method for each page: IE public function exampleAction() Because I didn't know how to interact with a model, I put all the methods at the bottom of the controller (a fat controller). So basically, I had a working site by using a View and Controller and no model. ... Now I'm trying to learn how to incorporate the Model. So I created a View at: view/scripts/calendar/index.phtml I created a new Controller at: controller/CalendarControllers.php and a new model at: model/Calendar.php The problem is I think I'm not correctly communication with the model (I'm still new to OOP). Can you look over my controller and model and tell me if you see a problem. I'm needing to return an array from runCalendarScript(), but I'm not sure if I can return an array into the object like I'm trying to? I don't really understand how to "run" the runCalendarScript() from the controller? Thanks for any help! I'm stripping out most of the guts of the methods for the sake of brevity: controller: <?php class CalendarController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function indexAction() { $finishedFeedArray = new Application_Model_Calendar(); $this->view->googleArray = $finishedFeedArray; } } model: <?php class Application_Model_Calendar { public function _runCalendarScript(){ $gcal = $this->_validateCalendarConnection(); $uncleanedFeedArray = $this->_getCalendarFeed($gcal); $finishedFeedArray = $this->_cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray); return $finishedFeedArray; } //Validate Google Calendar connection public function _validateCalendarConnection() { ... return $gcal; } //extracts googles calendar object into the $feed object public function _getCalendarFeed($gcal) { ... return $feed; } //cleans the feed to just text, etc protected function _cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray) { $contentText = $this->_cleanupText($event); $eventData = $this->_filterEventDetails($contentText); return $cleanedArray; } //Cleans up all formatting of text from Calendar feed public function _cleanupText($event) { ... return $contentText; } //filterEventDetails protected function _filterEventDetails($contentText) { ... return $data; } }

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• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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• Capistrano + Git + DreamHost

  - by Michael Sync

  Hello, I'm trying to deploy my rails application by using Passenger and Capistrano on Dreamhost. I'm using Git as a version control and we bought an account from GitHub. I have installed all required gems, Passenger and Capistrano in my local machine and I have cloned the repository of my project from GitHub in my local machine as wel. According to Dreamhost support, they have Passenger, Ruby, Rails and etc on their server as well. I'm currently following this article http://github.com/guides/deploying-with-capistrano for my deployment. The following is my deploy.rb. default_run_options[:pty] = true ssh_options[:forward_agent] = true # be sure to change these set :user, 'gituser' set :domain, 'github.com' set :application, 'MyProjectOnGit' #[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git # the rest should be good set :repository, "[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git" set :deploy_to, "/ruby.michaelsync.net/" set :deploy_via, :remote_cache set :scm, 'git' set :branch, 'master' set :git_shallow_clone, 1 set :scm_verbose, true set :use_sudo, false set :git_enable_submodules, 1 server domain, :app, :web role :db, domain, :primary => true set :ssh_options, { :forward_agent => true } namespace :deploy do task :restart do run "touch #{current_path}/tmp/restart.txt" end end When I run "cap deploy", I'm getting the error below. [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) Thanks in advance..

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• Export large amount of data from Oracle 10G to SQL Server 2005

  - by uniball

  Dear all, I need to export 100 million data rows (avg row length ~ 100 bytes) from Oracle 10G database table into SQL server (over WAN/VLAN with 6MBits/sec capacity) on a regular basis. So far, these are the options that I have tried and a quick summary. Has anyone tried this before? Are there other better options? Which option would be the best in terms of performance and reliability? The time taken has been calculated using tests on smaller amounts of data and then extrapolating it to estimate the time required. Using data import wizard on the SQL server or SSIS packages to import the data. It will take around 150 hours to complete the task. Using Oracle batch job to spool data into a comma-delimited flat-file. Then using SSIS package to FTP this file to the SQL server and then load directly from the flat-file. The issue here is the size of the flat-file which is expected to run in GBs. Although this option is drastically different, I am even considering the option of using Linked Server to query the Oracle data directly at run-time to avoid bringing in data. Performance is a big problem and I have limited control over the Oracle database in terms of creating table indexes. Regards, Uniball

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• Pass scalar/list context to called subroutine

  - by Will

  I'm trying to write a sub that takes a coderef parameter. My sub does some initialization, calls the coderef, then does some cleanup. I need to call the coderef using the same context (scalar, list, void context) that my sub was called in. The only way I can think of is something like this: sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my @ret; my $ret; if (not defined wantarray) { $code->(); } elsif (wantarray) { @ret = $code->(); } else { $ret = $code->(); } # do some cleanup... if (not defined wantarray) { return; } elsif (wantarray) { return @ret; } else { return $ret; } } Obviously there's a good deal of redundancy in this code. Is there any way to reduce or eliminate any of this redundancy? EDIT   I later realized that I need to run $code->() in an eval block so that the cleanup runs even if the code dies. Adding eval support, and combining the suggestions of user502515 and cjm, here's what I've come up with. sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my $w = wantarray; return sub { my $error = $@; # do some cleanup... die $error if $error; # propagate exception return $w ? @_ : $_[0]; }->(eval { $w ? $code->() : scalar($code->()) }); } This gets rid of the redundancy, though unfortunately now the control flow is a little harder to follow.

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• What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

  - by Patrick

  Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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• Broadcast live video from web-cam via plug-in

  - by Freebrainz

  Hello guys! Could you please suggest me what kind of software should I use to broadcast live video from webcam? Web-cam is connected via USB to my server. I want to broadcast video from my webcam on my web-page (HTML, ASP.NET - doesn't matter). I don't want to develop video broadcasting from the beginning - it takes a lot of time to implement good system. I'm looking for ready-to-use plug-in/widget for my site. I found ustream.tv, but live video start playing with delay about 2 seconds... You know, it's not real-time. I need something like Skype/icq/ooVoo... plug-in/widget for my web-site. Are these plug-ins exists in internet? P.S. I know that VideoLAN has ActiveX control. Does VLC provide me with real-time video broadcasting from webcam without any delays like Skype? Thank you!

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