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• Reading Xml with XmlReader in C#

  - by Gloria Huang

  I'm trying to read the following Xml document as fast as I can and let additional classes manage the reading of each sub block. <ApplicationPool><Accounts><Account><NameOfKin></NameOfKin><StatementsAvailable><Statement></Statement></StatementsAvailable></Account></Accounts></ApplicationPool> I can't seem to format the above nicely :( However, I'm trying to use the XmlReader object to read each Account and subsequently the "StatementsAvailable". Do you suggest using XmlReader.Read and check each element and handle it? I've thought of seperating my classes to handle each node properly. So theres an AccountBase class that accepts a XmlReader instance that reads the NameOfKin and several other properties about the account. Then I was wanting to interate through the Statements and let another class fill itself out about the Statement (and subsequently add it to an IList). Thus far I have the "per class" part done by doing XmlReader.ReadElementString() but I can't workout how to tell the pointer to move to the StatementsAvailable element and let me iterate through them and let another class read each of those proeprties. Sounds easy!

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• How can I simulate this application hang scenario?

  - by Pwninstein

  I have a Windows Forms app that itself launches different threads to do different kinds of work. Occasionally, ALL threads (including the UI thread) become frozen, and my app becomes unresponsive. I've decided it may be a Garbage Collector-related issue, as the GC will freeze all managed threads temporarily. To verify that just managed threads are frozen, I spin up an unmanaged one that writes to a "heartbeat" file with a timestamp every second, and it is not affected (i.e. it still runs): public delegate void ThreadProc(); [DllImport("UnmanagedTest.dll", EntryPoint = "MyUnmanagedFunction")] public static extern void MyUnmanagedFunction(); [DllImport("kernel32")] public static extern IntPtr CreateThread( IntPtr lpThreadAttributes, uint dwStackSize, IntPtr lpStartAddress, IntPtr lpParameter, uint dwCreationFlags, out uint dwThreadId); uint threadId; ThreadProc proc = new ThreadProc(MyUnmanagedFunction); IntPtr functionPointer = Marshal.GetFunctionPointerForDelegate(proc); IntPtr threadHandle = CreateThread(IntPtr.Zero, 0, functionPointer, IntPtr.Zero, 0, out threadId); My Question is: how can I simulate this situation, where all managed threads are suspended but unmanaged ones keep on spinning? My first stab: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate { new Hanger(); GC.Collect(2, GCCollectionMode.Forced); })); t.Start(); } class Hanger{ private int[] m_Integers = new int[10000000]; public Hanger() { } ~Hanger() { Console.WriteLine("About to hang..."); //This doesn't reproduce the desired behavior //while (true) ; //Neither does this //Thread.Sleep(System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); } } Thanks in advance!!

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• JAXB, BigDecimal or double?

  - by Alex

  I working on different web-services, and I always use WSDL First. JAXB generates for a Type like: <xsd:simpleType name="CurrencyFormatTyp"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:decimal"> <xsd:totalDigits value="13"/> <xsd:fractionDigits value="2"/> <xsd:minInclusive value="0.01"/> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> a Java binding type BigDecimal (as it's mentioned in JAXB specification). When I then do some simple arithmetic operation with values of the type double (which are stored in a database and mapped via hibernate to the type double) I run into trouble. <ns5:charge>0.200000000000000011102230246251565404236316680908203125</ns5:charge> <ns5:addcharge>0.0360000000000000042188474935755948536098003387451171875</ns5:addcharge> <ns5:tax>0.047199999999999998900879205621095024980604648590087890625</ns5:tax> <ns5:totalextax>0.2360000000000000153210777398271602578461170196533203125</ns5:totalextax> What would be the right way? Convert all my values into double (JAXB binding from BigDecimal to double) Hibernate mapping double to Bigdecimal and do all my arithmetic operations in one object type.

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• Intercepting method with Spring AOP using only annotations

  - by fish

  In my Spring context file I have something like this: <bean id="userCheck" class="a.b.c.UserExistsCheck"/> <aop:config> <aop:aspect ref="userCheck"> <aop:pointcut id="checkUser" expression="execution(* a.b.c.d.*.*(..)) &amp;&amp; args(a.b.c.d.RequestObject)"/> <aop:around pointcut-ref="checkUser" method="checkUser"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> a.b.c.UserExistsCheck looks like this: @Aspect public class UserExistsCheck { @Autowired private UserInformation userInformation; public Object checkUser(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { int userId = ... //get it from the RequestObject passed as a parameter if (userExists(userId)) { return pjp.proceed(); } else { return new ResponseObject("Invalid user); } } And the class that is being intercepted with this stuff looks like this: public class Klazz { public ResponseObject doSomething(RequestObject request) {...} } This works. UserExistCheck is executed as desired before the call is passed to Klazz. The problem is that this is the only way I got it working. To get this working by using annotations instead of the context file seems to be just too much for my small brain. So... how exactly should I annotate the methods in UserExistsCheck and Klazz? And do I still need something else too? Another class? Still something in the context file?

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• How can I prevent 'objects you are adding to the designer use a different data connection...'?

  - by Timothy Khouri

  I am using Visual Studio 2010, and I have a LINQ-to-SQL DBML file that my colleagues and I are using for this project. We have a connection string in the web.config file that the DBML is using. However, when I drag a new table from my "Server Explorer" onto the DBML file... I get presented with a dialog that demands that do one of these two options: Allow visual studio to change the connection string to match the one in my solution explorer. Cancel the operation (meaning, I don't get my table). I don't really care too much about the debate as why the PMs/devs who made this tool didn't allow a third option - "Create the object anyway - don't worry, I'm a developer!" What I am thinking would be a good solution is if I can create a connection in the Server Explorer - WITHOUT A WIZARD. If I can just paste a connection string, that would be awesome! Because then the DBML designer won't freak out on me :O) If anyone knows the answer to this question, or how to do the above, please lemme know!

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• LINQ compiled query DataBind issue

  - by Brian

  Hello All, I have a pretty extensive reporting page that uses LINQ. There is one main function that returns an IQueryable object. I then further filter / aggregate the returned query depending on the report the user needs. I changed this function to a compiled query, it worked great, and the speed increase was astonishing. The only problem comes when i want to databind the results. I am databinding to a standard asp.net GridView and it works fine, no problems. I am also databinding to an asp.net chart control, this is where my page is throwing an error. this works well: GridView gv = new GridView(); gv.DataSource = gridSource; But this does not: Series s1 = new Series("Series One"); s1.Points.DataBindXY(gridSource, "Month", gridSource, "Success"); The error i receive is this: System.NotSupportedException Specified method is not supported When i look into my gridSource var at run time i see this using a typical linq query: SELECT [t33].[value2] AS [Year], [t33].[value22] AS [Month], [t33].[value3] AS [Calls]...... I see this after i change the query to compiled: {System.Linq.OrderedEnumerable<<>f__AnonymousType15<string,int,int,int,int,int,int,int>,string>} This is obviously the reason why the databindxy is no longer working, but i am not sure how to get around it. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks

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• Backend raising (INotify)PropertyChanged events to all connected clients?

  - by Jörg Battermann

  One of our 'frontend' developers keeps requesting from us backend developers that the backend notifies all connected clients (it's a client/server environment) of changes to objects. As in: whenever one user makes a change, all other connected clients must be notified immediately of the change. At the moment our architecture does not have a notification system of that kind and we don't have a sort of pub/sub model for explicitly chosen objects (e.g. the one the frontend is currently implementing).. which would make sense in such a usecase imho, but obviously requires extra implementation. However, I thought frontends typically check for locks for concurrently existing user changes on the same object and rather pull for changes / load on demand and in the background rather than the backend pushing all changes to all clients for all objects constantly.. which seems rather excessive to me. However, it's being argumented that e.g. the MS Entity Framework does in fact publish (INotify)PropertyChanged not only for local changes, but for all such changes including other client connections, but I have found no proof or details regarding this. Can anyone shed some light into this? Do other e.g. ORMs etc provide broadcasted (INotify)PropertyChanged events on entities?

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• Question - Setting dynamic HTML using Javascript to iFrames on Windows Mobile 6.1 - IE Mobile6

  - by swaroop

  Hi Experts, (excuse me if this is not the right forum to post - i couldn't find anything related to non-native programming and related to this topic) I Am trying to set a dynamic HTML into an iFrame on the webpage. I have tried a couple of things but none of them seem to work. I m able to read the innerHTML but can't seem to update it. // Able to read using document.getElementById('iFrameIdentifier').innerHTML; // On Desktop IE, this code works document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.open(); document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.write(dynamicHTML); document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.close(); Ideally the same function should work as how it works for div's but it says 'Object doesn't support this method or property". I have also tried document.getElementById('iFrameId').document.body.innerHTML. This apparently replaces the whole HTML of the page and not just the innerHTML. I have tried out a couple of things and they didn't work document.getElementById('iFrameId').body.innerHTML document.frames[0].document.body.innerHTML My purpose is to have a container element which can contain dynamic HTML that's set to it. I've been using it well till now when I observed that the setting innerHTML on a div is taking increasing amount of time because of the onClicks or other JS methods that are attached to the anchors and images in the dynamic HTML. Appears the JS methods or the HTML is some how not getting cleaned up properly (memory leak?) Also being discussed - http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/Scripting/JavaScript/Q_26185526.html#a32779090

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• Editing 8bpp indexed Bitmaps

  - by Pedro Sá

  hi, i'm trying to edit the pixels of a 8bpp. Since this PixelFormat is indexed i'm aware that it uses a Color Table to map the pixel values. Even though I can edit the bitmap by converting it to 24bpp, 8bpp editing is much faster (13ms vs 3ms). But, changing each value when accessing the 8bpp bitmap results in some random rgb colors even though the PixelFormat remains 8bpp. I'm currently developing in c# and the algorithm is as follows: (C#) 1- Load original Bitmap at 8bpp 2- Create Empty temp Bitmap with 8bpp with the same size as the original 3-LockBits of both bitmaps and, using P/Invoke, calling c++ method where I pass the Scan0 of each BitmapData object. (I used a c++ method as it offers better performance when iterating through the Bitmap's pixels) (C++) 4- Create a int[256] palette according to some parameters and edit the temp bitmap bytes by passing the original's pixel values through the palette. (C#) 5- UnlockBits. My question is how can I edit the pixel values without having the strange rgb colors, or even better, edit the 8bpp bitmap's Color Table? Regards, Pedro

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• Apache Axis2 1.5.1 and NTLM Authentication

  - by arcticpenguin

  I've browsed all of the discussions here on StackOverflow regarding NTLM and Java, and I can't seem to find the answer. I'll try and be much more specific. Here's some code that returns a client stub that (I hope) is configured for NTLM authentication: ServiceStub getService() { try { ServiceStub stub = new ServiceStub( "http://myserver/some/path/to/webservices.asmx"); // this service is hosted on IIS List<String> ntlmPreferences = new ArrayList<String>(1); ntlmPreferences.add(HttpTransportProperties.Authenticator.NTLM); HttpTransportProperties.Authenticator ntlmAuthenticator = new HttpTransportProperties.Authenticator(); ntlmAuthenticator.setPreemptiveAuthentication(true); ntlmAuthenticator.setAuthSchemes(ntlmPreferences); ntlmAuthenticator.setUsername("me"); ntlmAuthenticator.setHost("localhost"); ntlmAuthenticator.setDomain("mydomain"); Options options = stub._getServiceClient().getOptions(); options.setProperty(HTTPConstants.AUTHENTICATE, ntlmAuthenticator); options.setProperty(HTTPConstants.REUSE_HTTP_CLIENT, "true"); stub._getServiceClient().setOptions(options); return stub; } catch (AxisFault e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } This returns a valid SerivceStub object. When I try to invoke a call on the stub, I see the following in my log: Jun 9, 2010 12:12:22 PM org.apache.commons.httpclient.auth.AuthChallengeProcessor selectAuthScheme INFO: NTLM authentication scheme selected Jun 9, 2010 12:12:22 PM org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodDirector authenticate SEVERE: Credentials cannot be used for NTLM authentication: org.apache.commons.httpclient.UsernamePasswordCredentials Does anyone have a solution to this issue?

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• Hiding keyboard in iPad with UITextView , can do this in iphone not iPad.

  - by user271753

  Hey the code below when written in HelloWorldAppDelegate.m in an iPhone app having UITextView hides the keyboard when the app starts : The UITextView is editable thats what I want in iPad Also But how can do the same in iPad its not working at all ! ! ! ! ! ! ! And also I have checked that I can use Subviews if I want to keep this to my app itself - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { //For hiding the Keyboard [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWillShow:) name:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } /// /// Hiding the Keyboard /// - (void)keyboardWillShow:(NSNotification *)note { //The UIWindow that contains the keyboard view UIWindow* tempWindow; //Because we cant get access to the UIKeyboard throught the SDK we will just use UIView. //UIKeyboard is a subclass of UIView anyways UIView* keyboard; //Check each window in our application for(int c = 0; c < [[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] count]; c ++) { //Get a reference of the current window tempWindow = [[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] objectAtIndex:c]; //Get a reference of the current view for(int i = 0; i < [tempWindow.subviews count]; i++) { keyboard = [tempWindow.subviews objectAtIndex:i]; if (!strcmp(object_getClassName(keyboard), "UIKeyboard")) { NSLog(@"hide keyboard"); [keyboard setHidden:YES]; return; } } } } Regards

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• Make user download pdf instead of saving to a location

  - by chupinette

  Hello!I was trying out the following code which actually saves the pdf file to C:/xampp/ I want to create a link so that when the user clicks on it. It prompts it to save the pdf file. <?php // create handle for new PDF document $pdf = pdf_new(); // open a file pdf_open_file($pdf, "try1.pdf"); // start a new page (A4) pdf_begin_page($pdf, 595, 842); pdf_set_parameter($pdf, 'FontOutline', 'Arial=c:\windows\fonts\arial.ttf'); // get and use a font object $font = pdf_findfont($pdf, "Arial", "host", 1); pdf_setfont($pdf, $font, 10); // print text pdf_show_xy($pdf, "There are more things in heaven and earth, Horatio,", 50, 750); pdf_show_xy($pdf, "than are dreamt of in your philosophy", 50, 730); // add an image under the text //$image = pdf_open_image_file($pdf, "jpeg", "shakespeare.jpg"); pdf_place_image($pdf, $image, 50, 650, 0.25); // end page pdf_end_page($pdf); // close and save file pdf_close($pdf); ?>

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• optimize query: get al votes from user's item

  - by Toni Michel Caubet

  hi there! i did it my way because i'm very bad getting results from two tables... Basically, first i get all the id items that correspond to the user, and then i calculate the ratings of each item. But, there is two different types of object item, so i do this 2 times: show you: function votos_usuario($id){ $previa = "SELECT id FROM preguntas WHERE id_usuario = '$id'"; $r_previo = mysql_query($previa); $ids_p = '0, '; while($items_previos = mysql_fetch_array($r_previo)){ $ids_p .= $items_previos['id'].", "; //echo "ids pregunta usuario: ".$items_previos['id']."<br>"; } $ids = substr($ids_p,0,-2); //echo $ids; $consulta = "SELECT valor FROM votos_pregunta WHERE id_pregunta IN ( $ids )"; //echo $consulta; $resultado = mysql_query($consulta); $votos_preguntas = 0; while($voto = mysql_fetch_array($resultado)){ $votos_preguntas = $votos_preguntas + $voto['valor']; } $previa_r = "SELECT id FROM recetas WHERE id_usuario = '$id'"; $r_previo_r = mysql_query($previa_r); $ids_r = '0, '; while($items_previos_r = mysql_fetch_array($r_previo_r)){ $ids_r .= $items_previos_r['id'].", "; //echo "ids pregunta usuario: ".$items_previos['id']."<br>"; } $ids = substr($ids_r,0,-2); $consulta_b = "SELECT valor FROM votos_receta WHERE id_receta IN ( $ids )"; //echo $consulta; $resultado_b = mysql_query($consulta_b); $votos_recetas = 0; while($voto_r = mysql_fetch_array($resultado_b)){ $votos_recetas = $votos_recetas + $voto_r['valor']; } $total = $votos_preguntas + $votos_recetas; return $total; } As you can si this is two much.. O(n^2) Feel like thinking? thanks!

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• GAE AttributeError

  - by awegawef

  My GAE app runs fine from my computer, but when I upload it, I start getting an AttributeError, specifically: AttributeError: 'dict' object has no attribute 'item' I am using the pylast interface (an API for last.fm--link). Specifically, I am accessing a list of variables of this type: SimilarItem = _namedtuple("SimilarItem", ["item", "match"]) I have a variable of this type, call it sim, and I am trying to access sim.item when I get the attribute error. I should note that I am using Python 2.6 on my computer, and I understand that GAE runs on Python 2.5. Would that make a difference here? I thought they were backwards-compatible. Lastly, I think it could be a possible problem with the modules that pylast imports--maybe they don't work with GAE or something? I did some research but I didn't get any results. Here are the imports: import hashlib import httplib import urllib import threading from xml.dom import minidom import xml.dom import time import shelve import tempfile import sys import htmlentitydefs I would appreciate any help with this frustrating issue. Thanks in advance.

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• check RAM,page file, /PAE, /3GB, SQL server memory using powershell

  - by Manjot

  I am a powershell novice. After days of searching.... I have put together a small powershell script (as below) to check page file, /PAE switch, /3GB switch, SQL server max RAM, min RAM. I am running this on 1 server. If I want to run it on many servers (from a .txt) file, How can I change it ? How can I change it to search boot.ini file's contents for a given server? clear $strComputer="." $PageFile=Get-WmiObject Win32_PageFile -ComputerName $strComputer Write-Host "Page File Size in MB: " ($PageFile.Filesize/(1024*1024)) $colItems=Get-WmiObject Win32_PhysicalMemory -Namespace root\CIMv2 -ComputerName $strComputer $total=0 foreach ($objItem in $colItems) { $total=$total+ $objItem.Capacity } $isPAEEnabled =Get-WmiObject Win32_OperatingSystem -ComputerName $strComputer Write-Host "Is PAE Enabled: " $isPAEEnabled.PAEEnabled Write-Host "Is /3GB Enabled: " | Get-Content C:\boot.ini | Select-String "/3GB" -Quiet # how can I change to search boot.ini file's contents on $strComputer $smo = new-object('Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server') $strSQLServer $memSrv = $smo.information.physicalMemory $memMin = $smo.configuration.minServerMemory.runValue $memMax = $smo.configuration.maxServerMemory.runValue ## DBMS Write-Host "Server RAM available: " -noNewLine Write-Host "$memSrv MB" -fore "blue" Write-Host "SQL memory Min: " -noNewLine Write-Host "$memMin MB " Write-Host "SQL memory Max: " -noNewLine Write-Host "$memMax MB" Any comments how this can be improved? Thanks in advance

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• Are PyArg_ParseTuple() "s" format specifiers useful in Python 3.x C API?

  - by Craig McQueen

  I'm trying to write a Python C extension that processes byte strings, and I have something basically working for Python 2.x and Python 3.x. For the Python 2.x code, near the start of my function, I currently have a line: if (!PyArg_ParseTuple(args, "s#:in_bytes", &src_ptr, &src_len)) ... I notice that the s# format specifier accepts both Unicode strings and byte strings. I really just want it to accept byte strings and reject Unicode. For Python 2.x, this might be "good enough"--the standard hashlib seems to do the same, accepting Unicode as well as byte strings. However, Python 3.x is meant to clean up the Unicode/byte string mess and not let the two be interchangeable. So, I'm surprised to find that in Python 3.x, the s format specifiers for PyArg_ParseTuple() still seem to accept Unicode and provide a "default encoded string version" of the Unicode. This seems to go against the principles of Python 3.x, making the s format specifiers unusable in practice. Is my analysis correct, or am I missing something? Looking at the implementation for hashlib for Python 3.x (e.g. see md5module.c, function MD5_update() and its use of GET_BUFFER_VIEW_OR_ERROUT() macro) I see that it avoids the s format specifiers, and just takes a generic object (O specifier) and then does various explicit type checks using the GET_BUFFER_VIEW_OR_ERROUT() macro. Is this what we have to do?

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• .NET EventHandlers - Generic or no?

  - by Chris Marasti-Georg

  Every time I start in deep in a C# project, I end up with lots of events that really just need to pass a single item. I stick with the EventHandler/EventArgs practice, but what I like to do is have something like: public delegate void EventHandler<T>(object src, EventArgs<T> args); public class EventArgs<T>: EventArgs { private T item; public EventArgs(T item) { this.item = item; } public T Item { get { return item; } } } Later, I can have my public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; public event EventHandler<Bar> BarChanged; However, it seems that the standard for .NET is to create a new delegate and EventArgs subclass for each type of event. Is there something wrong with my generic approach? EDIT: The reason for this post is that I just re-created this in a new project, and wanted to make sure it was ok. Actually, I was re-creating it as I posted. I found that there is a generic EventHandler<TEventArgs, so you don't need to create the generic delegate, but you still need the generic EventArgs<T class, because TEventArgs: EventArgs. Another EDIT: One downside (to me) of the built-in solution is the extra verbosity: public event EventHandler<EventArgs<Foo>> FooChanged; vs. public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; It can be a pain for clients to register for your events though, because the System namespace is imported by default, so they have to manually seek out your namespace, even with a fancy tool like Resharper... Anyone have any ideas pertaining to that?

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• Why I cannot get correct class of a custom class through isKindOfClass?

  - by Anthony Chan

  Hi, I've created a custom class AnimalView which is a subclass of UIView containing a UILabel and a UIImageView. @interface AnimalView : UIView { UILabel *nameLabel; UIImageView *picture; } Then I added in several AnimalView onto the ViewController.view. In the touchesBegan:withEvent: method, I wanted to detect if the touched object is an AnimalView or not. Here is the code for the viewController: @implementation AppViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { UIScrollView *scrollView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:... [self.view addSubview scrollview]; for (int i = 0; i<10; i++) { AnimalView *newAnimal = [[AnimalView alloc] init]; // customization of newAnimal [scrollview addSubview:newAnimal; } } - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; UIView *hitView = touch.view; if ([hitView isKindOfClass:[AnimalView class]]) { AnimalView *animal = (AnimalView *)hitView; [animal doSomething]; } } However, nothing happened when I clicked on the animal. When I checked the class of hitView by NSLog(@"%@", [hitView class]), it always shows UIView instead of AnimalView. Is it true that the AnimalView changed to a UIView when it is added onto the ViewController? Is there any way I can get back the original class of a custom class?

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• Linq Query to Update Nested Array Items?

  - by Brett

  I have an object structure generated from xsd.exe. Roughly, it consists of 3 nested arrays: protocols, sources and reports. The xml looks like this: <protocols> <protocol> <source> <report /> <report /> </source> <source> <report /> <report /> </source> </protocol> <!-- more protocols --> </protocols> I need to update a single "Report" within the data structure. A brute force algorithm is shown below. I know that this could be done using XDocument and Linq, but I'd prefer to update the data structure and then serialize the structure back to disk. Thoughts? Brett bool updated = false; foreach (ProtocolsProtocol protocol in protocols.Protocol) { if (updated) break; foreach (ProtocolsProtocolSource source in protocol.Source) { if (updated) break; for (int i = 0; i < source.Report.Length; i++) { ProtocolsProtocolSourceReport currentReport = source.Report[i]; if (currentReport.Id == report.Id) { currentReport.Attribute1 = report.Attribute1; currentReport.Attribute2 = report.Attribute2; updated = true; break; } } } }

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• .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

  - by Orborde

  I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

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• asp.net updatepanel inside hidden panel possible bug

  - by MakkyNZ

  Hi The javascript generated by the asp.net SciptManager control seems to have a bug and cant handle hidden UpdatePanels. A javascript error is thrown when a control within one updated panel tries to make another update panel visible. Is this a bug with ASP.Net ajax? And does anyone have any ideas how to get around this? heres is an example of when im trying to to <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Panel1.Visible = true; } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" Text="Show Panel"></asp:LinkButton> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" runat="server" Visible="false"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> blah bla blah </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </asp:Panel> this is the javascript error that gets thrown when clicking on the "LinkButton1" link. This error comes from the javascript that is generated by the asp.net ScriptManager control Error: Sys.InvalidOperationException: Could not find UpdatePanel with ID 'ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_UpdatePanel2'

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• Is there something like a "long running offline transaction" for NHibernate or any other ORM?

  - by Vilx-

  In essence this is a followup of this question. I'm beginning to feel that I should give up the whole idea, but I'll give it one more shot. What I want is pretty much like a DB transaction. It should track my changes to the DB and then in the end allow me to either commit or rollback them. If I insert an object, I should get it back in my next (appropriate) SELECT query. If I delete it, future SELECT queries should not return it. Etc. But there is one catch - this transaction would be very long running. It would start when the user opened a form (I'm talking about Windows Forms here), and the commit/rollback would be when the user closed it(with OK/Cancel). So it could take anywhere between seconds and days. This requirement rules out a standard DB transaction because that would lock the tables/rows it touched, and other users wouldn't be able to use the system. Also the transaction should not commit ANY changes to the DB until it was really committed. So if one user makes some changes, others don't see them until OK button is hit. This prevents errors in case the computer crashes or is disconnected from the network. I'm quite OK if the solution puts constraints on my model (I'm using MSSQL 2008, btw). I can design the DB/code any way I like. I'm also fine with the idea that a commit could fail because someone already modified one of the objects my transaction touched. Is there anything like this? I looked at NHibernate.Burrow, but I'm not sure that that's the thing I want. Added: It's the very beginning of the project so I'm not tied to NHibernate. I started out with it but I can still change easily.

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• How to avoid an HttpException due to timeout

  - by Dan

  I'm working on a website powered by .NET asp/C# code. The clients require that sessions have a 25 minute timeout. However, sometimes the site is used, and a user stays connected for long periods of time (longer than 25 mins). Session_End is triggered: protected void Session_End(Object sender, EventArgs e) { Hashtable trackingInformaiton = (Hashtable)Application["trackingInformation"]; trackingInformaiton.Remove(Session["trackingID"]); } The user returns some time later, but when they interact with the website, they get an error, and we get this email notification: User: Unauthenticated User Error: System.Web.HttpException Description: Failed to load viewstate. The control tree into which viewstate is being loaded must match the control tree that was used to save viewstate during the previous request... The telling part of the stack trace is System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl. Apparently, the server has thrown away the session data, and is sending new data, but the client is trying to deal with old data. Hence the error that "the control tree into which viewstate is being loaded [doesn't] match the control tree that was used to save the viewstate during the prevoius request." So here's the question. How can I force instruct the user's browser to redirect to a "you're logged out" screen when the connection times out? (Is it something I should add to the Session_End method?)

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• C# Win Forms Access Violation Exception

  - by Goober

  I keep getting the following error: System.AccessViolationException was unhandled Message="Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." Source="FEDivaNET" StackTrace: at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.dropReference() at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.!FEDivaObject() at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.Dispose(Boolean ) at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.Finalize() InnerException: Any ideas what the issue could be? - I'm using a library that is written in C++ and isn't designed for multithreading, yet I'm hammering it about 3000 times with requests every 6 minutes. CODE delegate void SetTextCallback(string mxID, string text); public void UpdateLog(string mxID, string text) { //lock (thisLock) //{ if (listBoxProcessLog.InvokeRequired) { SetTextCallback d = new SetTextCallback(UpdateLog); this.BeginInvoke(d, new object[] { mxID, text }); } else { //Get a reference to the datatable assigned as the datasource. //DataTable logDT = (DataTable)listBoxProcessLog.DataSource; //logDT.Rows.Add(DateTime.Now + " - " + mxID + ": " + text); if (text.Contains("COMPLETE") || (text.Contains("FAILED"))) { if (progressBar1.Value <= progressBar1.MaxValue) { progressBar1.Value += 1; } } } //} } Baring in mind that even when the Lock and the DataTable weren't commented out, the error still occurred!

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• Weird error running com-exposed assembly

  - by Bernabé Panarello

  I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

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