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  • SQL Server Express 2005 Merge Replication using RMO causes Null Reference exception

    - by Craig Shearer
    I'm trying to use RMO to programmatically perform merge synchronization. I've basically copied the SQL Server example code, as follows: // Create a connection to the Subscriber. ServerConnection conn = new ServerConnection(subscriberName); MergePullSubscription subscription; try { // Connect to the Subscriber. conn.Connect(); // Define the pull subscription. subscription = new MergePullSubscription(subscriptionDbName, publisherName, publicationDbName, publicationName, conn, false); // If the pull subscription exists, then start the synchronization. if (subscription.LoadProperties()) { // Check that we have enough metadata to start the agent. if (subscription.PublisherSecurity != null || subscription.DistributorSecurity != null) { subscription.SynchronizationAgent.Synchronize(); } else { throw new ApplicationException("There is insufficent metadata to " + "synchronize the subscription. Recreate the subscription with " + "the agent job or supply the required agent properties at run time."); } } else { // Do something here if the pull subscription does not exist. throw new ApplicationException(String.Format( "A subscription to '{0}' does not exist on {1}", publicationName, subscriberName)); } } catch (Exception ex) { // Implement appropriate error handling here. throw new ApplicationException("The subscription could not be " + "synchronized. Verify that the subscription has " + "been defined correctly.", ex); } finally { conn.Disconnect(); } I've got the server merge publication defined correctly, but when I run the above code, I get a null reference exception on the call to: subscription.SynchronizationAgent.Synchronize(); The stack trace is as follows: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Replication.MergeSynchronizationAgent.StatusEventSinkMethod(String message, Int32 percent, Int32* returnValue) at Test.ConsoleTest.Program.SynchronizePullSubscription() in F:\Visual Studio Projects\Test\source\Test.ConsoleTest\Program.cs:line 124 It seems, from the stack trace, like something to do with the Status event, but I don't have a handler defined, and defining one makes no difference.

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  • Need help limiting a join in Transact-sql

    - by MsLis
    I'm somewhat new to SQL and need help with query syntax. My issue involves 2 tables within a larger multi-table join under Transact-SQL (MS SQL Server 2000 Query Analyzer) I have ACCOUNTS and LOGINS, which are joined on 2 fields: Site & Subset. Both tables may have multiple rows for each Site/Subset combination. ACCOUNTS: | LOGINS: SITE SUBSET FIELD FIELD FIELD | SITE SUBSET USERID PASSWD alpha bravo blah blah blah | alpha bravo foo bar alpha charlie blah blah blah | alpha bravo bar foo alpha charlie bleh bleh blue | alpha charlie id ego delta bravo blah blah blah | delta bravo john welcome delta foxtrot blah blah blah | delta bravo jane welcome | delta bravo ken welcome | delta bravo barbara welcome I want to select all rows in ACCOUNTS which have LOGIN entries, but only 1 login per account. DESIRED RESULT: SITE SUBSET FIELD FIELD FIELD USERID PASSWD alpha bravo blah blah blah foo bar alpha charlie blah blah blah id ego alpha charlie bleh bleh blue id ego delta bravo blah blah blah jane welcome I don't really care which row from the login table I get, but the UserID and Password have to correspond. [Don't return invalid combinations like foo/foo or bar/bar] MS Access has a handy FIRST function, which can do this, but I haven't found an equivalent in TSQL. Also, if it makes a difference, other tables are joined to ACCOUNTS, but this is the only use of LOGINS in the structure. Thank you very much for any assistance.

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  • How to make Python Extensions for Windows for absolute beginners

    - by JR
    Hello: I've been looking around the internet trying to find a good step by step guide to extend Python in Windows, and I haven't been able to find something for my skill level. let's say you have some c code that looks like this: #include <stdio.h> #include <math.h> double valuex(float value, double rate, double timex) { float value; double rate, timex; return value / double pow ((1 + rate), (timex)); } and you want to turn that into a Python 3 module for use on a windows (64bit if that makes a difference) system. How would you go about doing that? I've looked up SWIG and Pyrex and in both circumstances they seem geared towards the unix user. With Pyrex I am not sure if it works with Python 3. I'm just trying to learn the basics of programing, using some practical examples. Lastly, if there is a good book that someone can recommend for learning to extend, I would greatly appreciate it. Thank you.

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  • Using Alarmmanager to start a service at specific time

    - by Javadid
    Hi friends, I have searched a lot of places but couldnt find a clean sequential explanation of how to start a service (or if thats not possible then an activity) at a specific time daily using the AlarmManager?? I want to register several such alarms and triggering them should result in a service to be started. I'll be having a small piece of code in the service which can then execute and i can finish the service for good.... Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); Calendar cur_cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cur_cal.setTimeInMillis(System.currentTimeMillis()); Date date = new Date(cur_cal.get(Calendar.YEAR), cur_cal.get(Calendar.MONTH), cur_cal.get(Calendar.DATE), 16, 45); cal.setTime(date); Intent intent = new Intent(ProfileList.this, ActivateOnTime.class); intent.putExtra("profile_id", 2); PendingIntent pintent = PendingIntent.getService(ProfileList.this, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarm = (AlarmManager)getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarm.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, cal.getTimeInMillis(), pintent); System.out.println("The alarm set!!"); i tried this code to activate the alarm at 4.45... but its not firing the service... do i have to keep the process running?? M i doing anything wrong??? One more thing, my service gets perfectly executed in case i use the following code: long firstTime = SystemClock.elapsedRealtime(); alarm.setRepeating(AlarmManager.ELAPSED_REALTIME_WAKEUP, firstTime, 30*1000,pintent);

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  • jQuery modal Dialog over iFrame

    - by Ram
    I am using jQuery UI dialog for modal popups. I have some iframes in my page as well. The iFrame (z-Index = 1500) sits on top of the parent page (z-index =1000). I open the modal dialog from the parent page. I am trying to set the z-index using $('modal').dialog('option','zIndex',3000); but this is not working. I also tried stack:true (to stack it on top), and .dialog( 'moveToTop' ) as well, but they don't seem to work. Here is the code: Parent page: using style sheet : from "css/ui-darkness/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.css" using scripts: jquery-1.3.2.min.js && jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function TestModal() { var modal = "<div id='modal'>Hello popup world</div>"; $(modal).dialog({ modal: true, title: 'Modal Popup', zIndex: 12000, // settin it here works, but I want to set it at runtime instead of setting it at design time close: function() { setTimeout(TestModal, 5000); $(this).remove(); } }); $('modal').dialog('option', 'zIndex', 11000); // these dont work $('modal').dialog('moveToTop'); // these dont work $('modal').dialog('option', 'stack', true); // these dont work } /** Run with defaults **/ $(document).ready(function() { TestModal(); }); </script> <div> Hello World <br /> </div> <iframe src="blocker.htm" width="100%" height="100%" frameborder="0" scrolling="no" name="myInlineFrame" style="z-index:10000;background-color:Gray;position:absolute;top:0px;left:0px" ALLOWTRANSPARENCY="false"> </iframe> iframe : blocker.htm .wrap{width:100%;height:100%} I am an iframe and I am evil

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  • Creating ViewResults outside of Controllers in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Craig Walker
    Several of my controller actions have a standard set of failure-handling behavior. In general, I want to: Load an object based on the Route Data (IDs and the like) If the Route Data does not point to a valid object (ex: through URL hacking) then inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 404 Not Found Validate that the current user has the proper permissions on the object If the user doesn't have permission, inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 403 Forbidden If the above is successful, then do something with that object that's action-specific (ie: render it in a view). These steps are so standardized that I want to have reusable code to implement the behavior. My current plan of attack was to have a helper method to do something like this: public static ActionResult HandleMyObject(this Controller controller, Func<MyObject,ActionResult> onSuccess) { var myObject = MyObject.LoadFrom(controller.RouteData). if ( myObject == null ) return NotFound(controller); if ( myObject.IsNotAllowed(controller.User)) return NotAllowed(controller); return onSuccess(myObject); } # NotAllowed() is pretty much the same as this public static NotFound(Controller controller){ controller.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 404 # NotFound.aspx is a shared view. ViewResult result = controller.View("NotFound"); return result; } The problem here is that Controller.View() is a protected method and so is not accessible from a helper. I've looked at creating a new ViewResult instance explicitly, but there's enough properties to set that I'm wary about doing so without knowing the pitfalls first. What's the best way to create a ViewResult from outside a particular Controller?

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  • SIGABRT error when running on iPad

    - by user324881
    Hello, all. I've been banging my head for a few hours because of this problem. I have a universal project that's a mix of iPhone and iPad projects. I put these codebases together into the universal project and, after a lot of "#if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MIN_REQUIRED >= 30200" checks, got the project to run in both the iPhone (OS 3.0 to 3.1.3) and iPad simulators. After doing a more finagling with the project settings of external libraries that I load, I got the app to load on an iPhone (which runs OS 3.1.3). However, when I run the app on my iPad, I get an immediate SIGABRT error. I've tried running it under Debug, under Release, with Active Architecture of both armv6 and armv7. I've checked and double-checked that the app has the right nib files set up (but, again, this app runs fine in the simulator). I've gone through the external libraries I'm using and set them up to have the same base SDK (3.2), same architectures (Optimized (armv6 armv7)), the same targeted device family (iPhone/iPad), and the same iPhone OS deployment target (iPhone OS 3.0). So, to summarize... I have a universal app that works in the simulator for iPhone and iPad, runs on an actual iPhone, but doesn't run on an iPad. It doesn't get far on the iPad -- there's an immediate SIGABRT error that stops execution. Help??

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  • WPF TreeViewItem Context Menu Unhighlights Item

    - by Snea
    I have been having problems with this for some time now, and have come up with some less-than-desirable solutions. The problem is that when a TreeViewItem's context menu is opened, the TreeViewItem is greyed out. Is it possible for a TreeViewItem to stay highlighted while its ContextMenu is open? The problem with the TreeViewItem greying out, is that it gives no relation to the context menu and the TreeViewItem, and it looks ugly. Generally, the code I use for setting a context menu is this. Sometimes the context menu will be generated by the code with a PreviewRightMouseButtonDown EventSetter, but it doesn't make a difference. <TreeView> <TreeView.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TreeViewItem}"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu"> <Setter.Value> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Menu Item 1" /> <MenuItem Header="Menu Item 2" /> </ContextMenu> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </TreeView.Resources> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 1"> <TreeViewItem Header="Sub-Item 1"/> </TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 2"></TreeViewItem> </TreeView> So far the only solution I have found is to override the "grey" unfocused color with the focused color, but then the TreeView never seems unfocused, such as when another control is clicked on. I have had problems with ListViews as well.

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  • Solr error; Anybody know what this means?

    - by Camran
    I am installing solr on my VPS (Ubuntu 9.10) via PuTTY. First, I thought about installing Solr with Tomcat, but then after installing tomcat, I changed my mind and went for the Jetty which comes with Solr. Now that I have setup everything on my Server, and try to start the "start.jar" file, I get some errors... Here is some text from the log file: 2010-05-29 00:22:42.074::INFO: jetty-6.1.3 2010-05-29 00:22:42.134::INFO: Extract jar:file:/var/www/webapps/solr.war!/ to /var/www/work/Jetty_0_0_0_0_8983_solr.war__solr__k1kf17/webapp May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.SolrResourceLoader locateSolrHome INFO: JNDI not configured for solr (NoInitialContextEx) May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.SolrResourceLoader locateSolrHome INFO: solr home defaulted to 'solr/' (could not find system property or JNDI) May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.SolrResourceLoader <init> INFO: Solr home set to 'solr/' May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.servlet.SolrDispatchFilter init INFO: SolrDispatchFilter.init() May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.SolrResourceLoader locateSolrHome INFO: JNDI not configured for solr (NoInitialContextEx) May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.SolrResourceLoader locateSolrHome INFO: solr home defaulted to 'solr/' (could not find system property or JNDI) May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.CoreContainer$Initializer initialize INFO: looking for solr.xml: /var/www/solr/solr.xml May 29, 2010 12:22:42 AM org.apache.solr.core.SolrResourceLoader <init> INFO: Solr home set to 'solr/' Anybody know what this is? Thanks

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  • Confusion about Kerberos, delegation and SPNs.

    - by Vilx-
    I'm trying to write a proof-of-concept application that performs Kerberos delegation. I've written all the code, and it seems to working (I'm authenticating fine), but the resulting security context doesn't have the ISC_REQ_DELEGATE flag set. So I'm thinking that maybe one of the endpoints (client or server) is forbidden to delegate. However I'm not authenticating against an SPN. Just one domain user against another domain user. As the SPN for InitializeSecurityContext() I'm passing "[email protected]" (which is the user account under which the server application is running). As I understand, domain users have delegation enabled by default. Anyway, I asked the admin to check, and the "account is sensitive and cannot be delegated" checkbox is off. I know that if my server was running as a NETWORK SERVICE and I used an SPN to connect to it, then I'd need the computer account in AD to have the "Trust computer for delegation" checkbox checked (off by default), but... this is not the case, right? Or is it? Also - when the checkbox in the computer account is set, do the changes take place immediately, or must I reboot the server PC or wait for a while?

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  • asp.net MVC 1.0 and 2.0 currency model binding

    - by David Liddle
    I would like to create model binding functionality so a user can enter ',' '.' etc for currency values which bind to a double value of my ViewModel. I was able to do this in MVC 1.0 by creating a custom model binder, however since upgrading to MVC 2.0 this functionality no longer works. Does anyone have any ideas or better solutions for performing this functionality? A better solution would be to use some data annotation or custom attribute. public class MyViewModel { public double MyCurrencyValue { get; set; } } A preferred solution would be something like this... public class MyViewModel { [CurrencyAttribute] public double MyCurrencyValue { get; set; } } Below is my solution for model binding in MVC 1.0. public class MyCustomModelBinder : DefaultModelBinder { public override object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { object result = null; ValueProviderResult valueResult; bindingContext.ValueProvider.TryGetValue(bindingContext.ModelName, out valueResult); bindingContext.ModelState.SetModelValue(bindingContext.ModelName, valueResult); if (bindingContext.ModelType == typeof(double)) { string modelName = bindingContext.ModelName; string attemptedValue = bindingContext.ValueProvider[modelName].AttemptedValue; string wantedSeperator = NumberFormatInfo.CurrentInfo.NumberDecimalSeparator; string alternateSeperator = (wantedSeperator == "," ? "." : ","); try { result = double.Parse(attemptedValue, NumberStyles.Any); } catch (FormatException e) { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError(modelName, e); } } else { result = base.BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext); } return result; } }

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  • DotNetOpenAuth RelayParty not working on load balanced cluster

    - by Garth
    We're trying to move an ASP.NET MVC application, which uses DotNetOpenAuth OpenID Version 3.4.1, from a single server web garden to a physical server cluster held behind a hardware load balancer. Our old setup (OpenID RP working): Browser = SHTTP = Server = WebGarden = Nonce/Session Store Our new setup (OpenID RP not working): Browser = SHTTP = Load Balancer = HTTP = Cluster Node = WebGarden = Nonce/Session Store DB When we authenticate with the new setup we are correctly redirected to the OpenID Provider but after authenticated we are redirected back to our cluster (relay party) and get the following exception: Exception DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.ProtocolException: Redirects on POST requests that are to untrusted servers is not supported. at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.ErrorUtilities.VerifyProtocol(Boolean condition, String message, Object[] args) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\ErrorUtilities.cs:line 235 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.UntrustedWebRequestHandler.GetResponse(HttpWebRequest request, DirectWebRequestOptions options) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\UntrustedWebRequestHandler.cs:line 258 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.OpenIdChannel.GetDirectResponse(HttpWebRequest webRequest) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\OpenIdChannel.cs:line 277 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.RequestCore(IDirectedProtocolMessage request) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 542 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.Request(IDirectedProtocolMessage requestMessage) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 425 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.Request[TResponse](IDirectedProtocolMessage requestMessage) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 405 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.SigningBindingElement.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\SigningBindingElement.cs:line 154 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 992 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.OpenIdChannel.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\OpenIdChannel.cs:line 172 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ReadFromRequest(HttpRequestInfo httpRequest) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 386 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.RelyingParty.OpenIdRelyingParty.GetResponse(HttpRequestInfo httpRequestInfo) in c:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\bf9e2ca68b75a334\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\RelyingParty\OpenIdRelyingParty.cs:line 501 We have added a machines involved into the trusted machine list and turned off requires ssl but it makes no difference. We even tried removing out nonce store and using a stateless connection, but that didn't work either. We always get the same error. We suspected the issue is arising as a result of the cluster node having a different IP from the load balancer when it connects to the OpenID Provider, but we're not sure. Any ideas?

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  • BizTalk Business Rules Engine - Repeating Elements Question

    - by Andrew Cripps
    Hello I'm trying to create what I think should be a relatively simple business rule to operate over repeating elements in an XML schema. Consider the following XML snippet (this is simplified with namespaces removed, for readability): <Root> <AllAccounts> <Account id="1" currentPayment="10.00" arrearsAmount="25.00"> <AllCustomers> <Customer id="20" primary="true" canSelfServe="false" /> <Customer id="21" primary="false" canSelfServe="false" /> </AllCustomers> </Account> <Account id="2" currentPayment="10.00" arrearsAmount="15.00"> <AllCustomers> <Customer id="30" primary="true" canSelfServe="false" /> <Customer id="31" primary="false" canSelfServe="false" /> </AllCustomers> </AllAccounts> </Root> What I want to do is to have two rules: Set /Root/AllAccounts/Account[x]/AllCustomers/Customer[primary='true']/canSelfServe = true IF arrearsAmount < currentPayment Set /Root/AllAccounts/Account[x]/AllCustoemrs/Customer[primary='true']/canSelfServer = false IF arrearsAmount = currentPayment Where [x] is 0...number of /Root/AllAccounts/Account records present in the XML. I've tried two simple rules for this, and each rule seems to fire x * x times, where x is the number of Account records in the XML. I only want each rule to fire once for each Account record. Any help greatly appreciated! Thanks Andrew

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  • JSP compilation error upon changing XML parser to Xerces

    - by elduff
    All, I'm working on a java webapp that we deploy in the Resin web app server. I have been doing some XML parsing for a new part of the application, and realized that our app was using Resin classes to do the parsing. I wanted to get away from that and use something more standard for a number of reasons, so I set these system properties in my resin config file (and added the xerces jar to my classpath): <system-property javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory="org.apache.xerces.jaxp.DocumentBuilderFactoryImpl"/> <system-property javax.xml.parsers.SAXParserFactory="org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserFactoryImpl"/> And, now I'm getting JSP compilation errors on several pages (I guess Resin's built in parser was more lenient). The error reads: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The value of attribute "title" associated with an element type "display:column" must not contain the '<' character. And, the 'display:column' tag on some pages does indeed contain markup in the 'title' attribute. Here's an example: <display:column scope='col' class=" appealColorBG selectAllWidth" title="<span class='centerThis'><label for='selectAll'>Select All</label><br /> <input type='checkbox' name='selectAll' id='selectAll' onClick='selectAllCheckboxes();'/></span> " > That's some ugly JSP code, I know, but it's also code that's already in production, so I'm hesitant to change it. Does anyone know of a way that I can set xerces so that it will allow the JSP to compile as is?

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  • How do you override the opacity of a parent control in WPF?

    - by Metro Smurf
    When you set the opacity on a Grid in WPF, all the child elements appear to inherit its Opacity. How can you have a child element not inherit the parent's opacity? For example, the following parent grid has one child grid in the middle with a background set to red, but the background appears pinkish because of the parent's opacity. I'd like the child grid to have a solid color, non-transparent background: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Grid Background="Black" Opacity="0.5"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="0.333*"/> <RowDefinition Height="0.333*"/> <RowDefinition Height="0.333*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.333*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.333*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.333*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <-- how do you make this child grid's background solid red and not inherit the Opacity/Transparency of the parent grid? --> <Grid Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Background="Red"/> </Grid> </Grid>

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  • Where are the factory_girl records?

    - by gmile
    I'm trying to perform an integration test via Watir and RSpec. So, I created a test file within /integration and wrote a test, which adds a test user into a base via factory_girl. The problem is — I can't actually perform a login with my test user. The test I wrote looks as following: ... before(:each) @user = Factory(:user) @browser = FireWatir::Firefox.new end it "should login" @browser.text_field(:id, "username").set(@user.username) @browser.text_field(:id, "password").set(@user.password) @browser.button(:id, "get_in").click end ... As I'm starting the test and see a "performance" in browser, it always fires up a Username is not valid error. I've started an investigation, and did a small trick. First of all I've started to have doubts if the factory actually creates the user in DB. So after the immediate call to factory I've put some puts User.find stuff only to discover that the user is actually in DB. Ok, but as user still couldn't have logged in I've decided to see if he's present in DB with my own eyes. I've added a sleep right after a factory call, and went to see what's in the DB at the moment. I was crushed to see that the user is actually missing there! How come? Still, when I'm trying to output a user within the code, he is actually being fetched from somewhere. So where does the records, made by factory_girl within a runtime lie? Is it test or dev DB? I don't get it. I've 10 times checked if I'm running my Mongrel in test mode (does it matter? I think it does, as I'm trying to tun an integration test) and if my database.yml holds the correct connection specific data. I'm using an authlogic, if that can give any clue (no, putting activate_authlogic doesn't work here).

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  • Apache Mina Server Restart java.net.BindException: Address already in use

    - by Kosaki
    Hello, I have a rather annoying problem in my server application. I bind Apache Mina with the following code: acceptor.bind(new InetSocketAddress(PORT)); Where acceptor is an NioSocketAcceptor. Over a HTTP interface I can shutdown the server so I can restart it. Server.ioAcceptor.unbind(new InetSocketAddress(Server.PORT)); for(IoSession session: Server.ioAcceptor.getManagedSessions().values()){ if(session.isConnected() && !session.isClosing()){ session.close(false); } } Server.ioAcceptor.dispose(); Main.transport.stop(); Logger.getRootLogger().warn("System going down. Request from "+context.getRemoteAddress()); System.exit(10); This is the code I use to stop the Mina server. However if I try to start the server again in the next couple of minutes. (Somewhere between 5 minutes and 15 minutes) I get the following exception on start up: java.net.BindException: Address already in use I also tried a simple ioAcceptor.unbind() but there was no difference. The server runs on Centos 5 with OpenJDK. Apache Mina version is 2.0 RC1. Thank you in advance for any ideas on how to resolve this.

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  • Cannot cause $(this).find("a").click(); to fire using JQuery

    - by Ali
    Hi Everyone, I have a small question which should be very easy for the jquery experts out there. I am trying to follow http://aspdotnetcodebook.blogspot.com/2010/01/page-languagec-autoeventwireuptrue.html to be able to perform an action on gridview row double click. I can redirect to another page fine (as shown in the example) but I cannot cause the $(this).find("a").click(); to fire. Below is my GridView markup. <asp:GridView ID="gvCustomers" runat="server" DataSourceID="odsCustomers" CssClass="datagrid" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="Customer_ID" PageSize="3" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" OnRowCommand="gvCustomers_RowCommand" OnRowDataBound="gvCustomers_RowDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Customer_ID" HeaderText="ID" ReadOnly="true" Visible="false" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Customer_FirstName" HeaderText="First Name" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Customer_LastName" HeaderText="Last Name" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Customer_Email" HeaderText="Email" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Customer_Mobile" HeaderText="Mobile" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkButton" runat="server" CommandName="showVehicles" CommandArgument='<%# Eval("Customer_ID") %>' ></asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> <EmptyDataTemplate> Sorry No Record Found. </EmptyDataTemplate> </asp:GridView> I just cant make it work as the author has suggested: /* or you could have a hidden LinkButton in the row (Text="" or not set) that you could trigger. Make sure you set the CommandName="Something" and CommandArgument="RecordId" */ on the OnCommand of linkButton, I have my server side method which I would like to fire. Any ideas will be most apprecited. Thanks, Ali

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  • How to break WinDbg in an anonymous method?

    - by Richard Berg
    Title kinda says it all. The usual SOS command !bpmd doesn't do a lot of good without a name. Some ideas I had: dump every method, then use !bpmd -md when you find the corresponding MethodDesc not practical in real world usage, from what I can tell. Even if I wrote a macro to limit the dump to anonymous types/methods, there's no obvious way to tell them apart. use Reflector to dump the MSIL name doesn't help when dealing with dynamic assemblies and/or Reflection.Emit. Visual Studio's inability to read local vars inside such scenarios is the whole reason I turned to Windbg in the first place... set the breakpoint in VS, wait for it to hit, then change to Windbg using the noninvasive trick attempting to detach from VS causes it to hang (along with the app). I think this is due to the fact that the managed debugger is a "soft" debugger via thread injection instead of a standard "hard" debugger. Or maybe it's just a VS bug specific to Silverlight (would hardly be the first I've encountered). set a breakpoint on some other location known to call into the anonymous method, then single-step your way in my backup plan, though I'd rather not resort to it if this Q&A reveals a better way

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  • WPF DatePicker IsEnabled property not changing appearance

    - by Jonathan
    I think I have found an issue with the DatePicker in the toolkit, perhaps some of you gurus can check it out. The issue is when setting the IsEnabled property of the DatePicker. If set in XAML, it stays grey even if you set the IsEnabled to true at run time. The same goes for the other way around should it start off being enabled. The button just changes the IsEnabled property of the date picker, you will see that when it becomes enabled, the style remains grayed out. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:tk="http://schemas.microsoft.com/wpf/2008/toolkit" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <tk:DatePicker x:Name="txtDate" IsEnabled="False"></tk:DatePicker> <Button Height="25" Click="Button_Click"></Button> </StackPanel> </Window> private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { txtDate.IsEnabled = !txtDate.IsEnabled; }

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  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

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  • Custom ViewModel with MVC 2 Strongly Typed HTML Helpers return null object on Create ?

    - by Barbaros Alp
    Hi, I am having a trouble while trying to create an entity with a custom view modeled create form. Below is my custom view model for Category Creation form. public class CategoryFormViewModel { public CategoryFormViewModel(Category category, string actionTitle) { Category = category; ActionTitle = actionTitle; } public Category Category { get; private set; } public string ActionTitle { get; private set; } } and this is my user control where the UI is <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CategoryFormViewModel>" %> <h2> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.ActionTitle) %></span> </h2> <%=Html.ValidationSummary() %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <p> <span class="bold block">Baslik:</span> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.Category.Title, new { @class = "width80 txt-base" })%> </p> <p> <span class="bold block">Sira Numarasi:</span> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.Category.OrderNo, new { @class = "width10 txt-base" })%> </p> <p> <input type="submit" class="btn-admin cursorPointer" value="Save" /> </p> <% } %> When i click on save button, it doesnt bind the category for me because of i am using custom view model and strongly typed html helpers like that <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.Category.OrderNo) %> How can i fix this ? Thanks in advance

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  • Silverlight - Access the Layout Grid's DataContext in a DataGrid CellTemplate's DataTemplate?

    - by Sudeep
    Hi, I am using Silverlight 3 to develop an application. In my app, I have a layout Grid (named "LayoutGrid") in which I have a DataGrid (named "PART_datagrid") with DataGridTemplateColumns. The LayoutGrid is set a DataContext in which there is a Ladders list as a property. This Ladders list is set as the ItemsSource for the PART_datagrid. <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <DataGrid x:Name="PART_datagrid" ItemsSource="{Binding Ladders}"> ... <DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button Name="DeleteLadder" Click.Command="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.DeleteLadderCommand}" /> Now in one of the DataGridTemplateColumns I have a button which should invoke a Command thats present in the LayoutGrid's DataContext. So I tried Element-To-Element binding on my DataTemplate button as follows <Button Name="DeleteLadder" Click.Command="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.DeleteLadderCommand}" /> But this does not seem to work. What I want to achieve is to handle the event of deletion of a DataGrid row at the parent DataContext level using the command. Can someone pls suggest how do I proceed on this? Thanks in advance...

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  • Encoding issue: Cocoa Error 261?

    - by Attacus
    So I'm fetching a JSON string from a php script in my iPhone app using: NSURL *baseURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"test.php"]; NSError *encodeError = [[NSError alloc] init]; NSString *jsonString = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:baseURL encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:&encodeError]; NSLog(@"Error: %@", [encodeError localizedDescription]); NSLog(@"STRING: %@", jsonString); The JSON string validates when I test the output. Now I'm having an encoding issue. When I fetch a single echo'd line such as: { "testKey":"é" } (I'm aware I could\should be using NSUrlConnection for asynchronous fetching of data, but at this point in the app development, I don't really need it.) The JSON parser works fine and I am able to create a valid JSON object. However, when I fetch my 2MB JSON string, I get presented with: Error: Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 261.) and a Null string. My PHP file is UTF8 itself and I am not using utf8_encode() because that seems to double encode the data since I'm already pulling the data as NSUTF8StringEncoding. Either way, in my single-echo test, it's the approach that allowed me to successfully log \ASDAS style UTF8 escapes when building the JSON object. What could be causing the error in the case of the larger string? Also, I'm not sure if it makes a difference, but I'm using the php function addslashes() on my parsed php data to account for quotes and such when building the JSON string.

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  • Blank subreport in Jasper Reports

    - by Andy Chapman
    Hi all, I'm trying to launch a report that I created in iReport which contains a main report and a subreport. In iReport, the subreport launches fine and contains data, however when I try to launch it from within my java code, the subreport is blank. What I've done so far: I have a String parameter in the main report called "SUBREPORT" that is used to define the path to the subreport. E.g. value: "E:\java\ReportLauncher\reports\test_subreport1.jasper" The subreport expression in the main report is set to: $P{SUBREPORT} The subreport connection expression is: $P{REPORT_CONNECTION} I also have a subreport parameter defined called "INVOICE_NUMBER" that is set to $F{InviInvNo}, which maps to a field in the main report. In my java code, I have: HashMap<String, Object> paramHash = new HashMap(); paramHash.put("INVOICE_NUMBER", invoiceID); paramHash.put("REPORT_CONNECTION", this.conn); paramHash.put("SUBREPORT", subReportPath); JasperPrint jasperprint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(this.reportPath, paramHash, this.conn); The main report is created fine and is populated. The subreport area however is blank. Any thoughts for what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance, Andy.

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