Search Results

Search found 62161 results on 2487 pages for 'set difference'.

Page 988/2487 | < Previous Page | 984 985 986 987 988 989 990 991 992 993 994 995  | Next Page >

  • Problem with header files of ARToolkitPlus after making the ARToolKitPlus dylib!

    - by MNassar
    I'm writing this Augmented Reality app for the iPhone and I'd decided to use ARToolKitPlus for it. Using QMake, I created the xcode project file and subsequently the libArToolKitPlus.dylib I tried to compile and run the sample files "simple" and "multi" which worked well. Now all other attempts that I tried to create another project and use the library have failed due to header files not being found. If I drag the "include" folder to the xcode project I get 8 errors instead of just one; The one is for the main include not being found is solved but then it includes 8 other headers that cannot be found (although they are in the same folder) #include "ARToolKitPlus/TrackerSingleMarkerImpl.h" I get a error: ARToolKitPlus/TrackerSingleMarkerImpl.h: No such file or directory If I drag the include folder then some of what I get: error: ARToolKitPlus/TrackerSingleMarker.h: No such file or directory error: ../src/TrackerSingleMarkerImpl.cpp: No such file or directory error: expected class-name before ',' token class TrackerSingleMarkerImpl : public TrackerSingleMarker, protected TrackerImpl<__PATTERN_SIZE_X,__PATTERN_SIZE_Y, __PATTERN_SAMPLE_NUM, __MAX_LOAD_PATTERNS, __MAX_IMAGE_PATTERNS Having the dylib doesnt make a difference as far as I can tell. What do you think I should do?? Would creating a framework help??

    Read the article

  • Load testing multipart form

    - by JacobM
    I'm trying to load-test a Rails application using JMeter. A critical part of the application involves a form that includes both text inputs and file uploads. It works fine in a browser, but when I try to post that page in JMeter, Rails is saving all of the parts of the multipart form as temp files, which causes things to break when it's looking for a string and gets a tempfile instead. It appears that the difference is that, from a browser, the piece of the multipart request that contains a text input looks like this: -----------------------------7d93b4186074c Content-Disposition: form-data; name="field_name" test -----------------------------7d93b4186074c while from JMeter it looks like this: -----------------------------7d159c1302d0y0 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="field_name" Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit test -----------------------------7d159c1302d0y0 So apparently Rails sees the former and interprets it as a plain text value and treats it as a string, but sees the latter and saves it to a temp file. I have not been able to find a setting to convince JMeter not to send the additional headers in the multipart form for non-file fields. Is there a way to convince Rails to ignore those headers and treat the text/plain text as strings instead of text files? Or a quick way to put a filter in front of my controller that will strip the extra headers? Alternately, is there a better tool to load-test a Rails application that includes file upload?

    Read the article

  • DataGridViewColumn.DataPropertyName Property

    - by Captain Comic
    Hi I have a DataGridView control and I want to populate it with data. I use DataSource property // dgvDealAsset is DataGridView private void DealAssetListControl_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dgvDealAssets.AutoGenerateColumns = false; dgvDealAssets.DataSource = DealAssetList.Instance.Values.ToList(); } Now problem number one. The class of my collection does not contain only simple types that I can map to columns using DataPropertyName. This is the class that is contained in collection. class MyClass { public String Name; MyOtherClass otherclass; } class MyOtherClass { public String Name; } Now I am binding properties of MyClass to columns col1.DataPropertyName = "Name" // Ok col2.DataPropertyName = "otherclass" // Not OK - I will have empty cell The problem is that I want to display otherclass.Name field. But if I try to write col2.DataPropertyName = "otherclass.Name" I get empty cell. I tried to manually set the column private void DealAssetListControl_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dgvDealAssets.AutoGenerateColumns = false; dgvDealAssets.DataSource = DealAssetList.Instance.Values.ToList(); // iterate through rows and set the column manually foreach (DataGridViewRow row in dgvDealAssets.Rows) { row.Cells["Column2"].Value = ((DealAsset)row.DataBoundItem).otherclass.Name; } But this foreach cycle takes about minute to complete (2k elements). How to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Command-Line Parsing API from TestAPI library - Type-Safe Commands how to

    - by MicMit
    Library at http://testapi.codeplex.com/ Excerpt of usage from http://blogs.msdn.com/ivo_manolov/archive/2008/12/17/9230331.aspx A third common approach is forming strongly-typed commands from the command-line parameters. This is common for cases when the command-line looks as follows: some-exe COMMAND parameters-to-the-command The parsing in this case is a little bit more involved: Create one class for every supported command, which derives from the Command abstract base class and implements an expected Execute method. Pass an expected command along with the command-line arguments to CommandLineParser.ParseCommand – the method will return a strongly-typed Command instance that can be Execute()-d. // EXAMPLE #3: // Sample for parsing the following command-line: // Test.exe run /runId=10 /verbose // In this particular case we have an actual command on the command-line (“run”), which we want to effectively de-serialize and execute. public class RunCommand : Command { bool? Verbose { get; set; } int? RunId { get; set; } public override void Execute() { // Implement your "run" execution logic here. } } Command c = new RunCommand(); CommandLineParser.ParseArguments(c, args); c.Execute(); ============================ I don't get if we instantiate specific class before parsing arguments , what's the point of command line argument "run" which is very first one. I thought the idea was to instantiate and execute command/class based on a command line parameter ( "run" parameter becomes instance RunCommand class, "walk" becomes WalkCommand class and so on ). Can it be done with the latest version ?

    Read the article

  • how to show avg of employees salary in a NSTextField using NSArrayController and cocoa bindings

    - by Miraaj
    Hi all, I am new to cocoa bindings so I tried to make a simple application which will simply calculate avg of employees salary and display it in a text field, using cocoa bindings. I followed these steps: Made the model class : Person with one property for now - @property (readwrite, assign) int salary; In the application delegate class I initialized a mutable array : personArray with certain objects like this: Person *person1 = [[Person alloc] init]; person1.salary = 5000; Person *person2 = [[Person alloc] init]; person2.salary = 15000; Person *person3 = [[Person alloc] init]; person3.salary = 7000; Person *person4 = [[Person alloc] init]; person4.salary = 9000; Person *person5 = [[Person alloc] init]; person5.salary = 11000; personArray= [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:person1, person2, person3, person4, person5,nil]; In IB I dropped a NSArrayController object, set its mode as Class - Person, added key salary in attribute pane. Then in bindings pane, binded contents array to ApplicationDelegate class with model key path set to self.personArray. Dropped a NSTextField on window. Binded its value to ArrayController object. Assigned controller key as - arrangedObjects. Assigned Model key path to @avg.salary When I executed the application I found no value being displayed in the text field. Can anyone suggest me where I may be wrong? Thanks, Miraaj

    Read the article

  • How do I hook into the action method for an iPad popover toolbar button?

    - by Elisabeth
    Hi, I am using the split view template to create a simple split view that has, of course, a popover in Portrait mode. I'm using the default code generated by template that adds/removes the toolbar item and sets the popover controller and removes it. These two methods are splitViewController:willShowViewController:... and splitViewController:willHideViewController:... I'm trying to figure out how to make the popover disappear if the user taps on the toolbar button while the popover is displayed. You can make the popover disappear without selecting an item if you tap anywhere outside the popover, but I would also like to make it disappear if the user taps the button again. Where I'm stuck is this: there doesn't seem to be an obvious, easy way to hook into the action for the toolbar button. I can tell, using the debugger, that the action that's being called on the button is showMasterInPopover. And I am new to working with selectors programmatically, I admit. Can I somehow write an action and set it on the toolbar item without overriding the action that's already there? e.g. add an action that calls the one that's there now? Or would I have to write an action that shows/hides the popover myself (behavior that's being done behind the scenes presumably by the split view controller now???). Or am I missing an easy way to add this behavior to this button without changing the existing behavior that's being set up for me? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Redirect to new page if cookie doesn't exist or if the value of cookie is 'false'

    - by liquilife
    I have a DOB 'Are you over 18' script which when the form is filled out, validates if they are over 18 or not for a tobacco site I am working on. When this form is filled it stores a cookie 'ageCheck' with a value of either true or false. I'm having some issues with a bit of javascript which is stored on all the pages to determine if they can view the page or if they need to be redirected to the verification page. The javascript is supposed to set a div ID to 'display:block' if passed and if no cookie is found OR the cookie value is false is supposed to redirect them to the age verification page. However, it's just not working. I see the cookies are set correctly. Below is my code.. any help is appreciated. <script> document.body.onload = function() { var ageCheck = getCookie('ageCheck'); if ('true' == ageCheck) { document.getElementById('content').style.display = ''; } else { document.location = '/ageCheck.html'; } } function getCookie(c_name) { if (document.cookie.length > 0) { c_start = document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if (c_start != -1) { c_start = c_start + c_name.length + 1; c_end = document.cookie.indexOf(";", c_start); if (c_end == -1) c_end = document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } </script>

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation Plugin: Validating Checkboxes with Different Names

    - by Michael
    I have a set of 4 checkboxes, all with different names, and require that at least 1 is checked. I know there are a few posts on here already trying to answer this question. The solution that seems to be most logical to me is the answer posted on Question 1734840, but I can't seem to get it working! What's wrong with my code? Or any other new coding ideas to get this working? I have set the class on all of them to 'require-one'. My jQuery code is $(document).ready(function(){ $("#itemForm").validate({ highlight: function(element, errorClass, validClass) { $(element).addClass(errorClass).removeClass(validClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.name + "]") .addClass("radioerror"); }, unhighlight: function(element, errorClass, validClass) { $(element).removeClass(errorClass).addClass(validClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.name + "]") .removeClass("radioerror"); }, rules: { 'require-one': { required : { depends: function(element) { var allBoxes = $('.require-one'); if (allBoxes.filter(':checked').length == 0) { if (allBoxes.eq(element).length != 0) { return true; } } return false; } } } , }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { if ( element.is("#other_descrip") ) error.appendTo("#othererror" ); if ( element.is("#itemlist") ) error.appendTo("#itemerror" ); } }); });

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 3 - How to "refresh" a DataGrid content?

    - by Josimari Martarelli
    I have the following scenery: 1 using System; 2 using System.Windows; 3 using System.Windows.Controls; 4 using System.Windows.Documents; 5 using System.Windows.Ink; 6 using System.Windows.Input; 7 using System.Windows.Media; 8 using System.Windows.Media.Animation; 9 using System.Windows.Shapes; 10 using System.Collections.Generic; 11 12 namespace refresh 13 { 14 public partial class MainPage : UserControl 15 { 16 17 List c = new List(); 18 19 public MainPage() 20 { 21 // Required to initialize variables 22 InitializeComponent(); 23 c.Add(new Customer{ _nome = "Josimari", _idade = "29"}); 24 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Wesley", _idade = "26"}); 25 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Renato",_idade = "31"}); 26 27 this.dtGrid.ItemsSource = c; 28 } 29 30 private void Button_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) 31 { 32 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Maiara",_idade = "18"}); 33 } 34 35 } 36 37 public class Customer 38 { 39 public string _nome{get; set;} 40 public string _idade{get; set;} 41 } 42 } Where, dtGrid is my DataGrid control... The Question is: How to get the UI Updated after adding one more register to my list. I get to solve it setting the DataGrid's Item Source to "" and then setting to the list of Customer objects again, like that: 1 private void Button_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) 2 3 { 4 5 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Maiara",_idade = "18"}); 6 7 this.dtGrid.ItemsSource=""; 8 9 this.dtGrid.ItemsSource=c; 10 11 } 12 Is there a way to get the UI updated or the datagrid's itemsSource refreshed automatically after updating, altering or deleting an item from the list c ? Thank you, Josimari Martarelli

    Read the article

  • Cookies not present after using XMLHttpRequest

    - by Joe B
    I'm trying to make a bookmarklet to download videos off of YouTube, but I've come across a little problem. To detect the highest quality video available, I use a sort of brute force method, in which I make requests using the XMLHttpRequest object until a 404 isn't returned (I can't do it until a 200 ok is returned because YouTube redirects to a different server if the video is available, and the cross-domain policy won't allow me to access any of that data). Once a working URL is found, I simply set window.location to the URL and the download should start, right? Wrong. A request is made, but for reasons unknown to me, the cookies are stripped and YouTube returns a 403 access denied. This does not happen if the XML requests aren't made before it, i.e. if I just set the window.location to the URL everything works fine, it's when I do the XMLHttpRequest that the cookies aren't sent. It's hard to explain so here's the script: var formats = ["37", "22", "35", "34", "18", ""]; var url = "/get_video?video_id=" + yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['video_id'] + "&t=" + (unescape(yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['t'])) + "&fmt="; for (var i = 0; i < formats.length; i++) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest; xmlhttp.open("HEAD", url + formats[i], false); xmlhttp.send(null); if (xmlhttp.status != 404) { document.location = url + formats[i]; break } } That script does not send the cookies after setting the document.location and thus does not work. However, simply doing this: document.location = /get_video?video_id=" + yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['video_id'] + "&t=" + (unescape(yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['t'])) DOES send the cookies along with the request, and does work. The only downside is I can't automatically detect the highest quality, I just have to try every "fmt" parameter manually until I get it right. So my question is: why is the XMLHttpRequest object removing cookies from subsequent requests? This is the first time I've ever done anything in JS by the way, so please, go easy on me. ;)

    Read the article

  • WCF for a shared data access

    - by Audrius
    Hi all, I have a little experience with WCF and would like to get your opinion/suggestion on how the following problem can be solved: A web service needs to be accessible from multiple clients simultaneously and service needs to return a result from a shared data set. The concrete project I'm working on has to store a list of IP addresses/ranges. This list will be queried by a bunch of web servers for a validation purposes and we speak of a couple of thousand or more queries per minute. My initial draft approach was to use Windows service as a WCF host with service contract implementing class that is decorated with ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple) that has a list object and a custom locking for accessing it. So basically I have a WCF service singleton with a list = shared data - multiple clients. What I do not like about it is that data and communication layers are merged into one and performance wise this doesn't feel "right". What I really really (- want is Windows service running an instance of IP list holding container class object, a second service running WCF service contract implementation and a way the latter querying the former in a nice way with a minimal blocking. Using another WCF channel would not really take me far away from the initial draft implementation or would it? What approach would you take? Project is still in a very early stage so complete design re-do is not out of question. All ideas are appreciated. Thanks! UPDATE: The data set will be changed dynamically. Web service will have a separate method to add IP or IP range and on top of that there will be a scheduled task that will trigger data cleanup every 10-15 minutes according to some rules. UPDATE 2: a separate benchmark project will be kicked up that should use MSSQL as a data backend (instead on in-memory list).

    Read the article

  • Attached event triggering if event is same as current event

    - by Psytronic
    I have a button which start/stops a timer. When I click it, I remove the current event handler, and attach the opposite one. Ie, click "Stop", and the "Start" function is attached for the next click. However in IE (7), not sure about 8. The newly attached event is also triggering after the original function is finished: Lifeline in IE7: Button pushed -- "Stop" function begins -- "Stop" function removed -- "Start" function attached -- "Stop" function finishes -- "Start" function is called. I know it's to do with the attaching event bit, because If I remove it, the Start event doesn't fire. This seems a bit odd, as I have the same situation in the "Start" function, ie, "Start" removed, "Stop" called. But this doesn't seem to cause an infinite loop, thankfully. if(btn.attachEvent){ btn.detachEvent("onclick", stop); btn.attachEvent("onclick", start); }else if(btn.addEventListener){ btn.removeEventListener("click", stop, true); btn.addEventListener("click", start , true); } It all works fine in FF and Chrome. I have switched the order of attach/detach, just to see if it makes a difference, but it doesn't. Addendum Sorry, and no answers involving jQuery, Protoype et al. Its not something I want to integrate for this project.

    Read the article

  • MySQL stored procedure, handling multiple cursors and query results

    - by Tirithen
    How can I use two cursors in the same routine? If I remove the second cursor declaration and fetch loop everthing works fine. The routine is used for adding a friend in my webapp. It takes the id of the current user and the email of the friend we want to add as a friend, then it checks if the email has a corresponding user id and if no friend relation exists it will create one. Any other routine solution than this one would be great as well. DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS addNewFriend; DELIMITER // CREATE PROCEDURE addNewFriend(IN inUserId INT UNSIGNED, IN inFriendEmail VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN DECLARE tempFriendId INT UNSIGNED DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempId INT UNSIGNED DEFAULT 0; DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM users WHERE email = inFriendEmail; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur; REPEAT FETCH cur INTO tempFriendId; UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE cur; DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT user_id FROM users_friends WHERE user_id = tempFriendId OR friend_id = tempFriendId; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur; REPEAT FETCH cur INTO tempId; UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE cur; IF tempFriendId != 0 AND tempId != 0 THEN INSERT INTO users_friends (user_id, friend_id) VALUES(inUserId, tempFriendId); END IF; SELECT tempFriendId as friendId; END // DELIMITER ;

    Read the article

  • Horizontal menu vertical padding on anchor tag doesn't take affect

    - by Levi
    I am wondering why in the following example the top and bottom padding has no affect on the anchor tag while the left and right does? <ul id="nav"> <li><a href="#">One</a></li> <li><a href="#">Two</a></li> <li><a href="#">Three</a></li> <li><a href="#">Four</a></li> <li><a href="#">Five</a></li> </ul> #nav{ list-style:none; } #nav li{ border:1px solid #666; display:inline; /*If you do it this way you need to set the top and bottom padding to be the same here as under #nav li a padding:8px 0; */ } #nav li a{ padding:8px 16px; } Example: Link So my main question is, why does the top and bottom padding not have an effect on the list items while the left and right do? I did try this out with a float instead of a display:inline on the list item and it worked as I expected it to. So I guess if I had a secondary question it would be what is the difference between a float:left; and a display:inline? I was reading the float spec and it sounds like a float is still a box online inline so somewhat like inline-block? I appreciate any input, this isn't really something I need to know to finish a project or anything, but I would like to know why. Thanks Levi

    Read the article

  • Referencing .NET Assembly in VB6 won't work

    - by dretzlaff17
    I wrote a .net assembly using c# to perform functions that will be used by both managed and unmanaged code. I have a VB6 project that now needs to use the assembly via COM. I created my .net assembly, made sure that ComVisible is set to true and that it is registered for COM interop via project properties. public class MyClass [ComVisible(true)] public string GetResponse() { return "Testing Response" } } I build the assembly and copied the file into a folder. TestInterop.dll I then run a batch file to register the assembly tool to register the object for COM. cd C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\ regasm "c:\Program Files\TestApp\TestInterop.dll" /tlb:TestInterop.tlb I open a new VB6 application and reference TestInterop.dll In VB6 I write the following code and it compiles. Dim obj as TestInterop.MyClass Set obj = new TestInterop.MyClass Dim strTest as string strTest = obj.GetRespose() When I run the program it errors on the obj.GetResponse() line. Run-time error' -2147024894 (80070002'): Automation error The system cannot find the file specified Also, the intellesense does not work on obj. I had to type the GetResponse method. Is this normal? Does anyone have any clue what could be wrong or what steps I missed. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • iPhone - return from an NSOperation

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I am using a subclass of NSOperation to do some background processes. I want the operation to be cancelled when the user clicks a button. Here's what my NSOperation subclass looks like - (id)init{ self = [super init]; if(self){ //initialization code goes here _isFinished = NO; _isExecuting = NO; } return self; } - (void)start { if (![NSThread isMainThread]) { [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(start) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; return; } [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; _isExecuting = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; //operation goes here } - (void)finish{ //releasing objects here [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isFinished"]; _isExecuting = NO; _isFinished = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isFinished"]; } - (void)cancel{ [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isCancelled"]; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isCancelled"]; [self finish]; } And this is how I am adding objects of this class to a queue and listening for KVO notifications operationQueue = [[NSOperationQueue alloc] init]; [operationQueue setMaxConcurrentOperationCount:5]; [operationQueue addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"operations" options:0 context:&OperationsChangedContext]; - (void)observeValueForKeyPath:(NSString *)keyPath ofObject:(id)object change:(NSDictionary *)change context:(void *)context { if (context == &OperationsChangedContext) { NSLog(@"Queue size: %u", [[operationQueue operations] count]); } else { [super observeValueForKeyPath:keyPath ofObject:object change:change context:context]; } } To cancel an operation (on a button click for instance), I tried calling -cancel but it doesn't make a difference. Also tried calling -finish but even that doesn't change anything. Every time I add an operation to the queue, the queue size only increases. finish is called (checked using NSLog statements) but it doesn't really end the operation. I'm still not very confident I'm doing this right Can someone please tell me where I am going wrong? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • POSIX AIO Library and Callback Handlers

    - by Charles Salvia
    According to the documentation on aio_read/write, there are basically 2 ways that the AIO library can inform your application that an async file I/O operation has completed. Either 1) you can use a signal, 2) you can use a callback function I think that callback functions are vastly preferable to signals, and would probably be much easier to integrate into higher-level multi-threaded libraries. Unfortunately, the documentation for this functionality is a mess to say the least. Some sources, such as the man page for the sigevent struct, indicate that you need to set the sigev_notify data member in the sigevent struct to SIGEV_CALLBACK and then provide a function handler. Presumably, the handler is invoked in the same thread. Other documentation indicates you need to set sigev_notify to SIGEV_THREAD, which will invoke the callback handler in a newly created thread. In any case, on my Linux system (Ubuntu with a 2.6.28 kernel) SIGEV_CALLBACK doesn't seem to be defined anywhere, but SIGEV_THREAD works as advertised. Unfortunately, creating a new thread to invoke the callback handler seems really inefficient, especially if you need to invoke many handlers. It would be better to use an existing pool of threads, similar to the way most network I/O event demultiplexers work. Some versions of UNIX, such as QNX, include a SIGEV_SIGNAL_THREAD flag, which allows you to invoke handlers using a specified existing thread, but this doesn't seem to be available on Linux, nor does it seem to even be a part of the POSIX standard. So, is it possible to use the POSIX AIO library in a way that invokes user handlers in a pre-allocated background thread/threadpool, rather than creating/destroying a new thread everytime a handler is invoked?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server PIVOT with multiple X-axis columns

    - by HeavenCore
    Take the following example data: Payroll Forname Surname Month Year Amount 0000001 James Bond 3 2011 144.00 0000001 James Bond 6 2012 672.00 0000001 James Bond 7 2012 240.00 0000001 James Bond 8 2012 1744.50 0000002 Elvis Presley 3 2011 1491.00 0000002 Elvis Presley 6 2012 189.00 0000002 Elvis Presley 7 2012 1816.50 0000002 Elvis Presley 8 2012 1383.00 How would i PIVOT this on the Year + Month (eg: 201210) but preserve Payroll, Forename & Surname as seperate columns, for example, the above would become: Payroll Forename Surname 201103 201206 201207 201208 0000001 James Bond 144.00 672.00 240.00 1744.50 0000002 Elvis Presley 1491.00 189.00 1816.50 1383.00 I'm assuming that because the Year + Month names can change then i will need to employ dynamic SQL + PIVOT - i had a go but couldnt even get the code to parse, nevermind run - any help would be most appreciated! Edit: What i have so far: INSERT INTO #tbl_RawDateBuffer ( PayrollNumber , Surname , Forename , [Month] , [Year] , AmountPayable ) SELECT PayrollNumber , Surname , Forename , [Month] , [Year] , AmountPayable FROM RawData WHERE [Max] > 1500 DECLARE @Columns AS NVARCHAR(MAX) DECLARE @StrSQL AS NVARCHAR(MAX) SET @Columns = STUFF((SELECT DISTINCT ',' + QUOTENAME(CONVERT(VARCHAR(4), c.[Year]) + RIGHT('00' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(2), c.[Month]), 2)) FROM #tbl_RawDateBuffer c FOR XML PATH('') , TYPE ).value('.', 'NVARCHAR(MAX)'), 1, 1, '') SET @StrSQL = 'SELECT PayrollNumber, ' + @Columns + ' from ( select PayrollNumber , CONVERT(VARCHAR(4), [Year]) + RIGHT(''00'' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(2), [Month]), 2) dt from #tbl_RawDateBuffer ) x pivot ( sum(AmountPayable) for dt in (' + @Columns + ') ) p ' EXECUTE(@StrSQL) DROP TABLE #tbl_RawDateBuffer

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX Character Encoding Problem

    - by Salty
    Hi everyone, I'm currently coding a French website. There's a schedule page, where a link on the side can be used to load another day's schedule. http://aquate.us/film/horaire.html (At the moment, only the links for November 13th and November 14th work) Here's the JS I'm using to do this: <script type="text/javascript"> function load(y) { $.get(y,function(d) { $("#replace").html(d); mod(); }); } function mod() { $("#dates a").click(function() { y = $(this).attr("href"); load(y); return false; }); } mod(); </script> The actual AJAX works like a charm. My problem lies with the response to the request. Because it is a French website, there are many accented letters. I'm using the ISO-8859-15 charset for that very reason. However, in the response to my AJAX request, the accents are becoming ?'s because the character encoding seems to be changed back to UTF-8. How do I avoid this? I've already tried adding some PHP at the top of the requested documents to set the character set: <?php header('Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15'); ?> But that doesn't seem to work either. Any thoughts? Also, while any of you are looking here...why does the rightmost column seem to become smaller when a new page is loaded, causing the table to distort and each <li> within the <td> to wrap to the next line? Cheers

    Read the article

  • MVC Html.textbox/dropdown/whatever won't refresh on postback

    - by Cynthia
    OK, let's start with the Html.Textbox. It is supposed to contain text read from a file. The file read is based on what the user picks from a dropdown list. The first time it is fine. The user picks a value from the dropdown list. The controller uses that value to read some text from a file, and returns that text to the view via the view model. Everything is fine. THen the user picks another value from the dropdown list. The controller reads a new value from a file and returns it via the view model. Debugging to the LINE BEFORE THE HTML.TEXTBOX is set in the view shows that the model contains the correct value. However, the textbox itself still shows the PREVIOUS value when the page displays! If I switch from Html.Textbox to a plain input, type="text" html control, everything works fine. That's not so hard, but the same thing happens with my dropdown list -- I can't set the selected value in code. It always reverts to whatever was chosen last. Rendering a "select" tag with a dynamically-generated option list is a pain. I would love to be able to use Html.Dropdown. What am I missing here?? This is such a simple thing in webforms!

    Read the article

  • Did I find a bug in WriteableBitmap when using string literals

    - by liserdarts
    For performance reasons I'm converting a large list of images into a single image. This code does exactly what I want. Private Function FlattenControl(Control As UIElement) As Image Control.Measure(New Size(1000, 1000)) Control.Arrange(New Rect(0, 0, 1000, 1000)) Dim ImgSource As New Imaging.WriteableBitmap(1000, 1000) ImgSource.Render(Control, New TranslateTransform) ImgSource.Invalidate Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = ImgSource Return Img End Function I can add all the images into a canvas pass the canvas to this function and I get back one image. My code to load all the images looks like this. Public Function BuildTextures(Layer As GLEED2D.Layer) As FrameworkElement Dim Container As New Canvas For Each Item In Layer.Items If TypeOf Item Is GLEED2D.TextureItem Then Dim Texture = CType(Item, GLEED2D.TextureItem) Dim Url As New Uri(Texture.texture_filename, UriKind.Relative) Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = New Imaging.BitmapImage(Url) Container.Children.Add(Img) End If Next Return FlattenControl(Container) End Function The GLEED2D.Layer and GLEED2D.TextureItem classes are from the free level editor GLEED2D (http://www.gleed2d.de/). The texture_filename on every TextureItem is "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" This works just fine, but it's just a proof of concept. What I really need to do (among other things) is have the path to the image hard coded. If I replace Texture.texture_filename in the code above with the string literal "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" the images do not appear in the final merged image. I can add a breakpoint and see that the WriteableBitmap has all of it's pixels as 0 after the call to Invalidate. I have no idea how this could cause any sort of difference, but it gets stranger. If I remove the call to FlattenControl and just return the Canvas instead, the images are visible. It's only when I use the string literal with the WriableBitmap that the images do not appear. I promise you that the value in the texture_filename property is exactly "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png". I'm using Silverlight 3 and I've also reproduced this in Silverlight 4. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Right way to dispose Image/Bitmap and PictureBox

    - by kornelijepetak
    I am trying to develop a Windows Mobile 6 (in WF/C#) application. There is only one form and on the form there is only a PictureBox object. On it I draw all desired controls or whatever I want. There are two things I am doing. Drawing custom shapes and loading bitmaps from .png files. The next line locks the file when loading (which is an undesired scenario): Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap("file.png"); So I am using another way to load bitmap. public static Bitmap LoadBitmap(string path) { using (Bitmap original = new Bitmap(path)) { return new Bitmap(original); } } This is I guess much slower, but I don't know any better way to load an image, while quickly releasing the file lock. Now, when drawing an image there is method that I use: public void Draw() { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(240,320); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); // draw something with Graphics here. g.Clear(Color.Black); g.DrawImage(Images.CloseIcon, 16, 48); g.DrawImage(Images.RefreshIcon, 46, 48); g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.Black), 0, 100, 240, 103); pictureBox.Image = bmp; } This however seems to be some kind of a memory leak. And if I keep doing it for too long, the application eventually crashes. Therefor, I have X questions: 1.) What is the better way for loading bitmaps from files without locking the file? 2.) What objects needs to be manually disposed in the Draw() function (and in which order) so there's no memory leak and no ObjectDisposedException throwing? 3.) If pictureBox.Image is set to bmp, like in the last line of the code, would pictureBox.Image.Dispose() dispose only resources related to maintaining the pictureBox.Image or the underlying Bitmap set to it?

    Read the article

  • MS AJAX Library 4.0 Sys.create.dataView

    - by azamsharp
    One again Microsoft poor documentation has left me confused. I am trying to use the new features of the .NET 4.0 framework. I am using the following code to populate the Title and Director but it keeps getting blank. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.components.dataContext,Sys.scripts.WebServices], function () { Sys.create.dataView("#moviesView", { dataProvider: "MovieService.svc", fetchOperation: "GetMovies", autoFetch: true }); }); </script> And here it the HTML code: <ul id="moviesView"> <li> {{Title}} - {{Director}} </li> </ul> IS THIS THE LATEST URL TO Start.js file. Here is the Ajax-Enabled WCF Service: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class MovieService { [OperationContract] public Movie GetMovies() { return new Movie() { Title = "SS", Director = "SSSSS" }; } } [DataContract] public class Movie { [DataMember] public string Title { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Director { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • AjaxControlToolkit TabContainer with weird rendering behavior

    - by sohum
    I've built a web application that contains a page that uses the AjaxControlToolkit's TabContainer/TabPanel objects. I've developed a custom stylesheet, as well. I'm developing using Visual Studio 2010. The following is the behavior of my application: VS2010 Development Server (localhost:XXXXX): Works as expected with the custom stylesheet. Local IIS: The TabContainer rendered but the stylesheet wasn't applied. I fixed this by doing a CTRL+F5. It seems that IIS caches stylesheets pretty aggressively. Remote Server: The TabContainer and TabPanel are completely hidden. Looking at the HTML, all of them have their visibility set to hidden. The way I got my files onto my remote server were as follows (I haven't yet set up WebDAV or remote publishing because the server is a Windows 7 box and as far as I am aware does not support FrontPage Extensions): The entire solution is under source code control (SVN). Checked in all pending changes (including projects, aspx files, css, AjaxControlToolkit binaries) Synced on the server. Rebuilt everything on server. Deployed to local IIS on server (which is externally accessible). Both on the local IIS on the server and the development server on the server, the TabContainers are completely hidden. Looking at the SVN status on the server project, only the "AjaxControlToolkit.dll" is under source-code control. All the locale-specific DLLs are not on the server. Could this be a potential issue? I'm not sure what's going on and would appreciate any help. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Maintaing JTextArea scroll position

    - by Sami
    I have a JScrollPane with a JTextArea set as its view port. I update the (multi line) text shown on the JTextArea continously about once a second. Each time the text updates, JScrollPane goes all the way to the bottom of the text. Instead, I'd like to figure out the line number that is currently shown as the first line in the original text, and have that line be the first line shown when the text has been updated (or if the new text doesn't have that many lines, then scroll all the way to the bottom). My first attempt of doing this was to get the current caret position, figure the line based on that, and then set the text area to show that line: int currentPos = textArea.getCaretPosition(); int currentLine = 0; try { for(int i = 0; i < textArea.getLineCount(); i++) { if((currentPos >= textArea.getLineStartOffset(i)) && (currentPos < gameStateTextArea.getLineEndOffset(i))) { currentLine = i; break; } } } catch(Exception e) { } textArea.setText(text); int newLine = Math.min(currentLine, textArea.getLineCount()); int newOffset = 0; try { newOffset = textArea.getLineStartOffset(newLine); } catch(Exception e) { } textArea.setCaretPosition(newOffset); This was almost acceptable for my needs, but requires the user to click inside the text area to change the caret position, so that the scrolling will maintain state (which isn't nice). How would I do this using the (vertical) scroll position instead ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 984 985 986 987 988 989 990 991 992 993 994 995  | Next Page >