Search Results

Search found 45316 results on 1813 pages for 'class literals'.

Page 982/1813 | < Previous Page | 978 979 980 981 982 983 984 985 986 987 988 989  | Next Page >

  • zend_db and join

    - by premtemp
    Hello, I am trying to understand how to use Zend_DB in my program but I have some problem. The class below (DatabaseService) work when I pass it a simple query. However, if I pass it it query with a join clause my page just hangs and not error is return. I cut and paste the qry in a query browesr and it is valid Any help would be great $SQL = "select name from mytable" $db = new DatabaseService($dbinfo) $db ->fetchall($SQL ) // works ----------------------------------------------------------- $SQL = "select count(*) as cnt from EndPoints join CallID on EndPoints.`CallID` = CallID.CallID where EndPoints.LastRegister >= '2010-04-21 00:00:01' and EndPoints.LastRegister <= '2010-04-21 23:59:59' " $db = new DatabaseService($dbinfo) $db ->fetchall($SQL ) // DOES NO WORK class DatabaseService { function DatabaseService($dbinfo,$dbname="") { try { $dbConfig = array( 'host' => $this->host, 'username' => $this->username, 'password' => $password, 'dbname' => $this->dbname ); $this->db = Zend_Db::factory($this->adapter, $dbConfig); Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultAdapter($this->db); } catch(Zend_Exception $e) { $this->error = $e->getMessage(); Helper::log($this->error); return false; } } public function connnect() { if($this->db !=null) { try { $this->db->getConnection(); return true; } catch (Zend_Exception $e) { $err = "FAILED ::".$e->getMessage()." <br />"; } } return false; } public function fetchall($sql) { $res= $this->db->fetchAll($sql); return $res; } }

    Read the article

  • Why onCreate() calling multiple times when i use Thread()?

    - by RajaReddy PolamReddy
    In my app i faced a problem with threads. i am using native code in my app. i try to load library and then calling native functions from the android code. 1. By using Threads() : PjsuaThread pjsuaThread = new PjsuaThread(); pjsuaThread.start(); thread code class PjsuaThread extends Thread { public void run() { if (pjsua_app.initApp() != 0) { // native function calling return; } else { } pjsua_app.startPjsua(ApjsuaActivity.CFG_FNAME); // native function calling finished = true; } When i use code like this, onCreate() function calling multiple times and able to load library and calling some functions properly, after some seconds onCreate calling again because of that it's crashing. 2. Using AsyncTask(): And also i used AsyncTask< for this requirement, it's crashing the application( crashing in lib code ). not able to open any functions class SipTask extends AsyncTask<Void, String, Void> { protected Void doInBackground(Void... args) { if (pjsua_app.initApp() != 0) { return null; } else { } pjsua_app.startPjsua(ApjsuaActivity.CFG_FNAME); finished = true; return null; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result) { super.onPostExecute(result); Log.i(TAG, "On POst "); } } What is annoying is that in most cases it is not the missing library, it's tried to able to load the lib crashing in between. any one know the reason ?

    Read the article

  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

    Read the article

  • how to make condition on selection of checkbox in user controler

    - by kumar
    I have a user control <input id="check" type="checkbox" /> <label>&nbsp;</label> <fieldset class="clearfix" id="fieldset-exception"> <legend>Student Information</legend> <div class="fiveper"> <label for="StudentID"> Exception ID: <span><%=Html.EditorFor(x => x.studentid)%></span> </label> <label for="Classroom"> Origination: <span><%=Html.EditorFor(model => model.Classroom)%></span> </label> <label for="Subject"> Age: <span><%=Html.EditorFor(model => model.subject)%></span> </label> </div> $('#btnAll').click(function() { $('#Details input[type=checkbox]').attr('checked', 'checked'); }); I am checking all checkboxes using above code but I need to make condition here that user need to select atleast one checkbox to do something? i have other button to go other page based on this checkbox checked? can anybody tell me how to check that and how to make that condition here? Thanks thanks

    Read the article

  • Emacs hide/show support for C++ triple-slash Doxygen markup?

    - by jsyjr
    I use Doxygen's triple-slash syntax to markup my C++ code. There are two important cases which arise: 1) block markup comments which are the sole element on the line and may or may not begin flush left; e.g. class foo /// A one sentence brief description of foo. The elaboration can /// continue on for many lines. { ... }; void foo::bar /// A one sentence brief description of bar. The elaboration can /// continue on for many lines. () const { ... } 2) trailing markup comments which always follow some number of C++ tokens earlier on the first line but may still spill over onto subsequent lines; e.g. class foo { int _var1; ///< A brief description of _var1. int _var2; ///< A brief description of _var2 ///< requiring additional lines. } void foo::bar ( int arg1 ///< A brief description of arg1. , int arg2 ///< A brief description of arg2 ///< requiring additional lines. ) const { ... } I wonder what hide/show support exists to deal with these conventions. The most important cases are the block markup comments. Ideally I would like to be able to eliminate these altogether, meaning that I would prefer not to waste a line simply to indicate presence of a folded block markup comment. Instead I would like a fringe marker, a la http://www.emacswiki.org/emacs/hideshowvis.el /john

    Read the article

  • When clicking on ajax.actionlink in its oncomplete function I can't update the html of a div whith requested data

    - by Milka Salkova
    In one partial view I've got some ajax.ActionLinks which when clicked update the div 'importpartupdate' (they just updates the div whith new ajax.actionLinks with other routevalues). The problem is that when this update is competed I have to update another div - depending on which link is clicked . That's why in my OnComplete function of my ajax.ActionLink I make an ajax request to the action'GridViewLanguage' which returns me the partial view which should uodate this other div which claass .floatLanguage. So the first time when I click a link eeverything works correctly and my two divs are correctly updated. But the second time I click a new link it seems the the floatlanguuage div is not updated like somehow the browser is caching the previous info I don't know. \i tried with cache:false- nothing worked. @model MvcBeaWeb.GroupMenu <nav class="sidebar-nav"> <div class="divLeftShowMenu"> <ul> @{ if (Model != null) { foreach (MvcBeaDAL.WebServiceBeaMenu item in Model.MenuLeft) { <li> @Ajax.ActionLink(@item.SpecialWord, "ImportShow", new { id = Model.LanguageName, menuID = item.ID, articlegroupID = item.ArticlegroupID, counter = 1 }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "importPartUpdate", HttpMethod = "GET", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, OnComplete = "success("[email protected]+")" }, new { id=item.ID}) </li> } } } </ul> </div> </nav> <script> function success(ids) { var nocache = new Date().getTime(); jQuery.ajax({ url: '@Url.Action("GridLanguageView")/?menuID='+ids }).done(function (data) { $(".floatLanguage").replaceWith(data); alert(data); }); } </script>

    Read the article

  • Java applet wont run

    - by Courtney
    I am trying to get a Java applet to run properly when linked to an HTML page in Dreamweaver CC. I'm new to all this so please bear with me here. First I saved this code to a .java file //Triangle.java import java.awt.*; import java.applet.Applet; public class Triangle extends Applet { public void paint (Graphics g){ int bottomX=80; int bottomY=200; int base=100; int height=100; g.drawLine(bottomX,bottomY,bottomX+base,bottomY); g.drawLine(bottomX+base,bottomY,bottomX+base/2,bottomY-height); g.drawLine(bottomX+base/2,bottomY-height, bottomX,bottomY); } } I then compiled it entering javac Triangle.java After that, I inserted it into a Dreamwever page using: <html> <applet code=Triangle.class width=400 height=400 > </applet> </html> Now when I try and open the page in Chrome I get an error reading: UnsupportedClassVersionError Triangle: Unsupported major.minor version 52.0 This, as I have read, is an issue with using two incompatible Java versions? In my Java Control Panel it says I am using version 1.8.0_20 and my JDK is jdk1.8.0_20. Does anyone see anything super obvious that I am doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Getting the value of an input inside a td for each row with jQuery

    - by Anne
    I am still having so many problems with this: function padTitles() { $('tr').each(function () { var tds = $(this).find('input'), text = tds.filter('[id^="TempRowKey_"]').val(), tdToPad = tds.filter('[id^="title_"]'), pad; if (/0\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 10; else if (/\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 35; else pad = 60; tdToPad.css('paddingLeft', pad); }); } Note: here is what I was using before. This worked when the value was not inside an input: var tds = $(this).find('td'), text = tds.filter('[id^="refKey_"]').text(), It is supposed to get the Value of the Inputs with id's that start with TempRowKey_ and then use these for padding. But the code does nothing. Here is my HTML: <tr id="row_1"> <td id="tempRowKey_1" > <input type="text" size="10" value="1.0.0" class="updatable" id="TempRowKey_1"> </td> <td id="title_1"> <input id="Title_1" class="updatable" type="text" value="zxxx" size="100" name="item.Title"> </td>. <td ... </tr> Is there some way I can test this. I can't get access to anything inside the jQuery block?

    Read the article

  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

    Read the article

  • Using the JPA Criteria API, can you do a fetch join that results in only one join?

    - by Shaun
    Using JPA 2.0. It seems that by default (no explicit fetch), @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) fields are fetched in 1 + N queries, where N is the number of results containing an Entity that defines the relationship to a distinct related entity. Using the Criteria API, I might try to avoid that as follows: CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<MyEntity> query = builder.createQuery(MyEntity.class); Root<MyEntity> root = query.from(MyEntity.class); Join<MyEntity, RelatedEntity> join = root.join("relatedEntity"); root.fetch("relatedEntity"); query.select(root).where(builder.equals(join.get("id"), 3)); The above should ideally be equivalent to the following: SELECT m FROM MyEntity m JOIN FETCH myEntity.relatedEntity r WHERE r.id = 3 However, the criteria query results in the root table needlessly being joined to the related entity table twice; once for the fetch, and once for the where predicate. The resulting SQL looks something like this: SELECT myentity.id, myentity.attribute, relatedentity2.id, relatedentity2.attribute FROM my_entity myentity INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity1 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity1.id INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity2 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity2.id WHERE relatedentity1.id = 3 Alas, if I only do the fetch, then I don't have an expression to use in the where clause. Am I missing something, or is this a limitation of the Criteria API? If it's the latter, is this being remedied in JPA 2.1 or are there any vendor-specific enhancements? Otherwise, it seems better to just give up compile-time type checking (I realize my example doesn't use the metamodel) and use dynamic JPQL TypedQueries.

    Read the article

  • Ruby & ActiveRecord: referring to integer fields by (uniquely mapped) strings

    - by JP
    While its not my application a simple way to explain my problem is to assume I'm running a URL shortener. Rather than attempt to try and figure out what the next string I should use as the unique section of the URL, I just index all my URLs by integer and map the numbers to strings behind the scenes, essentially just changing the base of the number to, let's say, 62: a-z + A-Z + 0-9. In ActiveRecord I can easily alter the reader for the url_id field so that it returns my base 62 string instead of the number being stored in the database: class Short < ActiveRecord::Base def url_id i = read_attribute(:convo) return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << CHARS[i.modulo(62)] i /= 62 end s end end but is there a way to tell ActiveRecord to accept Short.find(:first,:conditions=>{:url_id=>'Ab7'}), ie. putting the 'decoding' logic into my Short ActiveRecord class? I guess I could define my own def self.find_by_unique_string(string), but that feels like cheating somehow! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Under what circumstances will an entity be able to lazily load its relationships in JPA

    - by Mowgli
    Assuming a Java EE container is being used with JPA persistence and JTA transaction management where EJB and WAR packages are inside a EAR package. Say an entity with lazy-load relationships has just been returned from a JPQL search, such as the getBoats method below: @Stateless public class BoatFacade implements BoatFacadeRemote, BoatFacadeLocal { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "boats") private EntityManager em; @Override public List<Boat> getBoats(Collection<Integer> boatIDs) { if(boatIDs.isEmpty()) { return Collections.<Boat>emptyList(); } Query query = em.createNamedQuery("getAllBoats"); query.setParameter("boatID", boatIDs); List<Boat> boats = query.getResultList(); return boats; } } The entity: @Entity @NamedQuery( name="getAllBoats", query="Select b from Boat b where b.id in : boatID") public class Boat { @Id private long id; @OneToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private Gun mainGun; public Gun getMainGun() { return mainGun; } } Where will its lazy-load relationships be loadable (assuming the same stateless request): Same JAR: A method in the same EJB A method in another EJB A method in a POJO in the same EJB JAR Same EAR, but outside EJB JAR: A method in a web tier managed bean. A method in a web tier POJO. Different EAR: A method in a different EAR which receives the entity through RMI. What is it that restricts the scope, for example: the JPA transaction, persistence context or JTA transaction?

    Read the article

  • How to proxy calls to the instance of an object

    - by mr.b
    Edit: Changed question title from "Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?" - figured out it doesn't have much to do with actual question. Also edited question text. What I want to accomplish is to proxy calls to a an instance of an object methods, so I could log calls to any of its methods. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); // need to write log message like "method A called" pc.inner.B(); // need to write log message like "method B called" // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Method overloading would be most obvious solution (if it was supported in PHP way). By extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Setting up App Engine to receive email addresses with ids in the address

    - by Mark M
    I am writing an App Engine app that is supposed to receive emails in this form: [email protected] (someID is an alphanumeric ID that I generate). I have this in my web.xml thinking it would catch emails that start with 'addcontact.': <servlet> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.mycompany.server.AddNewContactServlet</servlet- class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/_ah/mail/addcontact.*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> However, both on my dev machine and on google's servers email is not received. On the dev machine I get this message (I get a similar error in the deployed log) Message send failure HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /_ah/mail/ [email protected]. Reason: NOT_FOUND I can receive email at fully specified addresses or when I use /_ah/mail/* The google documentation made me believe it was possible to include partial email addresses in web.xml. Am I not using the wildcard correctly? Does the period have something to do with it? Can this be done somehow?

    Read the article

  • Child elements changing opacity with parent Image

    - by mitch
    I have a <div> element which has a background image. On top of that I have some text that is hidden but when the user hovers over the <div> element that text will show and the <div> opacity will lower. My problem is when you hover over the div all elements inside that change opacity as well. I have looked through stackoverflow to see if anyone has the same problem but all i found were answers that had RGBA using background colors (not images). Here is my css: .pic{ background-image:url(http://www.granitesportsinstitute.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/Green-Sea-Turtle-150x150.jpg); -webkit-transition: all .3s ease-in-out; -moz-transition: all .3s ease-in-out; -o-transition: all .3s ease-in-out; transition: all .3s ease-in-out; } .textstuff{ visibility:hidden; } .pic:hover .textstuff{ visibility:visible; color:black; } .pic:hover{ filter: alpha(opacity=30); -moz-opacity: 0.3; -khtml-opacity: 0.3; opacity: 0.3; } HTML HERE: <div class="pic" style="height:150px;width:150px;"> <div class="textstuff">this is text</div> </div>

    Read the article

  • MVC Validator.TryValidateObject does not validate custom atrribute, validateAllProperties = true

    - by nealsu
    When calling Validator.TryValidateObject with validateAllProperties = true my custom validation attribute does not get triggered. The ValidationResult does not contain an entry for my erroneous property value. Below is the model, attribute and code used to test this. //Model public class Model { [AmountGreaterThanZero] public int? Amount { get; set; } } //Attribute public sealed class AmountGreaterThanZero: ValidationAttribute { private const string errorMessage = "Amount should be greater than zero."; public AmountGreaterThanZero() : base(errorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return errorMessage; } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { if (value != null) { if ((int)value <= 0) { var message = FormatErrorMessage(validationContext.DisplayName); return new ValidationResult(message); } } return null; } } //Validation Code var container = new Container(); container.ModelList = new List<Model>() { new Model() { Amount = -5 } }; var validationContext = new ValidationContext(container, null, null); var validationResults = new List<ValidationResult>(); var modelIsValid = Validator.TryValidateObject(container, validationContext, validationResults, true); Note: That the validation works fine and ValidationResult returns with correct error message if I use the TryValidateProperty method.

    Read the article

  • Background image is not displaying in IE6 and IE7

    - by saorabh
    I Have 3 divs HTML MARKUP <div class="top-content-wrapper"></div> <div id="content-wrapper"> </div> <div class="bottom-content-wrapper"> </div> Applied CSS on .top-content-wrapper { background:url("img/white-box-top-bg.gif") no-repeat scroll left top transparent; height:10px; margin:0 auto; padding:0 30px; width:686px; } #content-wrapper { background:url("img/white-box-middle-bg.gif") repeat-y scroll left top transparent; margin:0 auto; padding:10px 25px 70px; width:696px; } .bottom-content-wrapper { background:url("img/white-box-bottom-bg.gif") no-repeat scroll left top transparent; height:53px; margin:0 auto; padding:0 30px; width:686px; } In all major browsers its working fine but in IE6 and iE7 the background is not displaying please help me. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • nServiceBus registering subscribers but subscribers not receiving messages

    - by Rob Ellis
    My subscriber queue isn't picking up messages. The only unusual aspect to this is that the publisher is receiving messages which are generated from a website (and then a class library) which are then WCF'd to the publisher who publishes on behalf of the website/class library. If I remove the publisher's <add Messages=""> then I get an error saying the publisher doesn't know where to route the messages. Help! I've almost cut'n'pasted the WcfIntegration and PubSub samples, so I don't know why it isn't working! PUBLISHER: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="RSApp_InputQueue" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress="" ForwardReceivedMessagesTo=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Messages" Endpoint="RSApp_InputQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> SUBSCRIBER: <!-- SUBSCRIBER --> <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="RSApp_SubscriberQueue" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress="" ForwardReceivedMessagesTo=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Messages" Endpoint="RSApp_InputQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig>

    Read the article

  • C++ creating generic template function specialisations

    - by Fire Lancer
    I know how to specialise a template function, however what I want to do here is specialise a function for all types which have a given method, eg: template<typename T> void foo(){...} template<typename T, if_exists(T::bar)>void foo(){...}//always use this one if the method T::bar exists T::bar in my classes is static and has different return types. I tried doing this by having an empty base class ("class HasBar{};") for my classes to derive from and using boost::enable_if with boost::is_base_of on my "specialised" version. However the problem then is that for classes that do have bar, the compiler cant resolve which one to use :(. template<typename T> typename boost::enable_if<boost::is_base_of(HasBar, T>, void>::type f() {...} I know that I could use boost::disable_if on the "normal" version, however I do not control the normal version (its provided by a third party library and its expected for specialisations to be made, I just don't really want to make explicit specialisations for my 20 or so classes), nor do I have that much control over the code using these functions, just the classes implementing T::bar and the function that uses it. Is there some way to tell the compiler to "always use this version if possible no matter what" without altering the other versions?

    Read the article

  • Which C++ Standard Library wrapper functions do you use?

    - by Neil Butterworth
    This question, asked this morning, made me wonder which features you think are missing from the C++ Standard Library, and how you have gone about filling the gaps with wrapper functions. For example, my own utility library has this function for vector append: template <class T> std::vector<T> & operator += ( std::vector<T> & v1, const std::vector <T> & v2 ) { v1.insert( v1.end(), v2.begin(), v2.end() ); return v1; } and this one for clearing (more or less) any type - particularly useful for things like std::stack: template <class C> void Clear( C & c ) { c = C(); } I have a few more, but I'm interested in which ones you use? Please limit answers to wrapper functions - i.e. no more than a couple of lines of code.

    Read the article

  • Converting a soap message to a document using wssj

    - by ellander
    I have been supplied with a jar file that should enable me to connect to a 3rd party system. When I run the necessary class I get an error which states that the namespace for the prefix "SOAPENV" has not been declared. Using jad I have decompiled the class files to try suss out what is going on and the error seems to occur when a soap message is being converted to a document. Unfortunately I don't know much about wssj. Can anyone suggest what the problem might be? I'm wondering if it's an incompatibility issue as it's not a recently created jar file and the decompiled code looks different to all the examples I can find. For example, in this section the examples have addNamesSpaceDeclaration rather than addAttribute... MessageFactory factory = MessageFactory.newInstance(); SOAPFactory sf = SOAPFactory.newInstance(); SOAPMessage msg = factory.createMessage(); MimeHeaders headers = msg.getMimeHeaders(); headers.addHeader("Content-Type", "text/xml"); SOAPEnvelope env = msg.getSOAPPart().getEnvelope(); env.addAttribute(sf.createName("xmlns:xsi"), "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance");

    Read the article

  • Hibernate saveOrUpdate fails when I execute it on empty table.

    - by Vladimir
    I'm try to insert or update db record with following code: Category category = new Category(); category.setName('catName'); category.setId(1L); categoryDao.saveOrUpdate(category); When there is a category with id=1 already in database everything works. But if there is no record with id=1 I got following exception: org.hibernate.StaleStateException: Batch update returned unexpected row count from update [0]; actual row count: 0; expected: 1: Here is my Category class setters, getters and constructors ommited for clarity: @Entity public class Category { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; private String name; @ManyToOne private Category parent; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Category> categories = new ArrayList<Category>(); } In the console I see this hibernate query: update Category set name=?, parent_id=? where id=? So looks like hibernates tryis to update record instead of inserting new. What am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Choosing right control for list of items

    - by prostynick
    I am new to WPF and MVVM. In my ViewModel I have collection of items, for example: class Item { string Title {get; set;} string Description {get; set;} } I would like to create a view, so at the beginning I would have: Title1 Title2 Title3 If user click on one of title it will expand to show description, eg: Title1 Description1 Title2 Title3 If user click on other title, there will be two expanded items: Title1 Description1 Title2 Description2 Title3 This is probably very similar to Expander control and maybe I could use it, but I am doing it other way, to learn something new. What control should I use for this purpose? Should that be ItemsControl or maybe ListBox? I imagine, that if I use ItemsControl, I should probably extend my Item class to have something like bool IsExpanded and bind UI item visibility to that value. But maybe I could use ListBox and somehow bind UI item visibility to... Yeah, to what? :) How could I do such a simple thing?

    Read the article

  • Why junit ComparisonFailure is not used by assertEquals(Object, Object) ?

    - by Philippe Blayo
    In Junit 4, do you see any drawback to throw a ComparisonFailure instead of an AssertionError when assertEquals(Object, Object) fails ? assertEquals(Object, Object) throws a ComparisonFailure if both expected and actual are String an AssertionError if either is not a String @Test(expected=ComparisonFailure.class ) public void twoString() { assertEquals("a String", "another String"); } @Test(expected=AssertionError.class ) public void oneString() { assertEquals("a String", new Object()); } The two reasons why I ask the question: ComparisonFailure provide far more readable way to spot the differences in dialog box of eclipse or Intellij IDEA (FEST-Assert throws this exception) Junit 4 already use String.valueOf(Object) to build message "expected ... but was ..." (format method invoqued by Assert.assertEquals(message, Object, Object) in junit-4.8.2): static String format(String message, Object expected, Object actual) { ... String expectedString= String.valueOf(expected); String actualString= String.valueOf(actual); if (expectedString.equals(actualString)) return formatted + "expected: " + formatClassAndValue(expected, expectedString) +" but was: " + formatClassAndValue(actual, actualString); else return formatted +"expected:<"+ expectedString +"> but was:<"+ actualString +">"; Isn't it possible in assertEquals(message, Object, Object) to replace fail(format(message, expected, actual)); by throw new ComparisonFailure(message, formatClassAndValue(expectedObject, expectedString), formatClassAndValue(actualObject, actualString)); Do you see any compatibility issue with other tool, any algorithmic problem with that... ?

    Read the article

  • How to optimalize my game calendar in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I've implemented a simple calendar (message system) for my game which consists from: 1) List<Event> calendar; 2) public class Event { /// <summary> /// When to process the event /// </summary> public Int64 when; /// <summary> /// Which object should process the event /// </summary> public GameObject who; /// <summary> /// Type of event /// </summary> public EventType what; public int posX; public int posY; public int EventID; } 3) calendar.Add(new Event(...)) The problem with this code is that even thought the number of messages is not excessise per second. It allocates still new memory and GC will once need to take care of that. The garbage collection may lead to a slight lag in my game and therefore I'd like to optimalize my code. My considerations: To change Event class in a structure - but the structure is not entirely small and it takes some time to copy it wherever I need it. Reuse Event object somehow (add queue with used events and when new event is needed I'll just take from this queue). Does anybody has other idea how to solve the problem? Thanks for suggestions!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 978 979 980 981 982 983 984 985 986 987 988 989  | Next Page >