Search Results

Search found 53455 results on 2139 pages for 'domain value map'.

Page 105/2139 | < Previous Page | 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112  | Next Page >

  • Setting a form field's value during validation

    - by LaundroMat
    I read about this issue already, but I'm having trouble understanding why I can't change the value of a form's field during validation. I have a form where a user can enter a decimal value. This value has to be higher than the initial value of the item the user is changing. During clean(), the value that was entered is checked against the item's previous value. I would like to be able to re-set the form field's value to the item's initial value when a user enters a lower value. Is this possible from within the clean() method, or am I forced to do this in the view? Somehow, it doesn't feel right to do this in the view... (To make matters more complicated, the form's fields are built up dynamically, meaning I have to override the form's clean() method instead of using the clean_() method).

    Read the article

  • Staying anonymous while hosting your site?

    - by jamesCroft
    I don't mean anonymous surfing. I mean hosting and having your own domain and such. The reason is that my blog is about religious/political topics which may cause me trouble in the future. This is the domain I am working on: www.james-croft.com I know that using Whois search my name can come up: http://www.networksolutions.com/whois-search/james-croft.com The solution to that, as far as I understood, is to buy a privacy package from the domain registrar. in my case it is lucky register: http://i.stack.imgur.com/uvOdc.png Also hosting is a concern. I use the same hosting service for multiple websites. My question is this: Can my hosting be tracked and be used to identify me? Also: Are there other methods of finding out my identity from either Google Adsense or Amazon affiliate programs? I couldn't find any relevant articles online. If there is anything else that is relevant, please let me know. I appreciate any response.

    Read the article

  • Windows Server 2008 R2 DNS - One IP, multiple servers

    - by Blu Dragon
    I need opinions and examples on how to best to accomplish the setup I am looking for. I have a public-facing AD domain server with one public IP address. I have setup an external zone for example.com and I successfully have my own name servers pointing to it at ns0.example.com and ns1.example.com. I also have an internal zone for my private network at home.example.com. I am behind a router with the domain server in the DMZ. I want dev.example.com to be accessible from the outside world over https and to point to internal IP address 192.168.1.78. Likewise, I want www.example.com to be accessible from the outside world and point to internal IP address 192.168.1.79. Both dev and www servers are CentOS 5.6 VMs running inside of Hyper-V on the domain server (bad idea I know but I am limited on hardware atm). What is best way to achieve this? From what I have read and researched on Google, I may need to setup a reverse proxy but I am not sure how well that will work with SSL.

    Read the article

  • There are currently no logon servers available

    - by Ian Robinson
    I am running a Windows 7 laptop that is joined to my company's domain. When I installed Windows 7, I created an account for myself, joined to the domain, and it had been working quite well even though I'm physically remote most of the time, and not actually on the network. However, today I created a new local user account (non-admin) for my little brother. While he was using it, he decided he wanted to install a program, because his account is not an admin, he was prompted to enter Administrator credentials to allow the program to make changes to his computer. I entered my credentials, and this is the first time I ran into the error message: There are currently no logon servers available to service the logon request. I tried logging off and loggin back in, rebooting, etc etc, and no matter what, every time I try to authenticate as my "normal" domain account - I get that message. I can no longer access my computer as an administrator. I no longer know how to log in to my machine using any other account aside from my little brother's non-admin account. I don't have any other local accounts created, and the default local admin account was never enabled. I'd appreciate any ideas on how I can recover access to my account. Let me know if I can provide any more information. FYI - This is a similar question but not sure any of the answers help me in my case. http://serverfault.com/questions/71632/there-are-currently-no-logon-servers-available-to-service-the-logon-request

    Read the article

  • Windows 2003 DC to Windows 2008 R2 DC with same name and same IP

    - by TheCleaner
    Environment = Windows 2003 native domain with 8 DCs I've got an old domain controller that is running 2003, CA Enterprise role, DHCP, DNS, a few GPO scripts that point to shares on it, and some other minor functions. All our servers point to it as their primary DNS, and there's lots of references to its IP or name throughout the domain at this point (8+ years later). I really don't feel like manually changing all of this, it would be a pretty massive undertaking. I want to follow this guide: http://msmvps.com/blogs/acefekay/archive/2010/10/09/remove-an-old-dc-and-introduce-a-new-dc-with-the-same-name-and-ip-address.aspx to hopefully end up with basically an "in-place upgrade" so to say. I considered just doing a P2V of the box, but we don't really want to keep it around running 2003 to be honest. I also considered using a CNAME and adding a 2nd IP (the old one) but again, it seemed like it would be cleaner using the attached link. My actual question: Any gotchas or big caution signs when doing what the link suggests? Anyone gone down this road and have advice on how to proceed?

    Read the article

  • My nameserver isn't registered?

    - by jflory7
    My problem is that I am trying to set my domain's nameservers to the nameservers of my dedicated server. My domain is hosted by Namecheap, and everytime I try to input the two nameservers for my private server, one of them is rejected for being unregistered. My dedicated server's control panel is managed through Parallels Plesk 11.5, and the nameservers provided to me are one from the actual provider, OVH (sdns1.ovh.ca), and the other is an actual unique nameserver that points directly to my specific dedicated server. Previously, for another domain I own, I was successfully able to get Namecheap to take the nameserver without an error, so I know this is possible. I know that it works for one of my other domains. After being redirected by Namecheap to contact the server provider, I called OVH and they said it was something I would have to do myself. One interesting detail the OVH representative mentioned was that he saw that my port 53 was closed, which is the port that handles DNS. The only problem is that I have no idea or knowledge as how to open this port back up. So, my final question is how can I get this nameserver working in Namecheap to point to my dedicated server? If you need any more details, feel free to ask for clarification.

    Read the article

  • Windows Server 2008 (x64): Wont boot past bios page

    - by WebSolProv
    Happy New Year, Since a month or so ago I inherited responsibility for small network administration for my sins. The domain controller (yes there is only one, and yes I know it is best practice to have two even in a small domain setup) went down overnight and I have been trying all day to get it back up and running. Unfortunately this machine also administers our entire ActiveDirectory setup: 1) It goes thru the BIOS without any errors, nothing whatsoever 2) It gets into the “select safe mode, safe mode with networking, normal” etc and if you select either of the safe mode options it loads a few files then reboots. If you select normal it just runs for a bit (doesn’t get to the windows splash screen) and then reboots again. 3) If you select windows repair, it asks for an image to repair too: however it would appear that none was taken that can be used (!!) or one is not being shown. 4) I have tried repairing the boot sector and the boot configuration using Bootrec.exe, both which it says were completed successfully but still it doesn’t work. 5) I have tried swapping the drives into another server to rule out hardware and that didn’t work either so clearly it’s the OS. 6) I have tried running chkdsk which ran fine, and also memory check which was also fine. We do have another machine on the network that was installed as a DC so when we decommission the current infrastructure but when I try and "promote" this to the lead DC then I get “you cannot modify domain or trust information because a PDC emulator cannot be contacted" so I am unable to replicare the ActiveDirectory details. If anyone can think of any direction I should follow it would be greatly appreciated, Thanks, Alex

    Read the article

  • The Function Works But Reports this.refresh() is not a function

    - by ren1999
    I get this.refresh() is not a function in the error log every time I use this function but it works fine. Also, when I click on this function for the first time, this.value=undefined. When I click the function again in this form and every other form, the value populates just fine with the previous value. What could I be doing wrong? How do I write this function more efficiently? I still don't quite understand how to use this.value to capture and store a value within an array. Please notice that I added ---- where there should be a '----<' to be able to display the code. function askGender(x) {response="----select class=widgetstyle onClick=_setGender(this.value)----option value=FemaleFemale----option value=MaleMale"; characters[x].setGender(response); if(this.gender!=0) {response=this.gender; this.gender=0; characters[x].setGender(response); } } function _setGender(x) {this.gender=x; this.refresh(); }

    Read the article

  • Can't view database on SQL Server 2008 with domain user

    - by abatishchev
    I created a login for a domain user (domain admin) and added it to role serveradmin, but after logging in I still can't list databases getting next error: The database MyDB is not accessible. (ObjectExplorer) Program Location: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.DatabaseNavigableItem.get_CanGetChildren() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.NavigableItem.GetChildren(IGetChildrenRequest request) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ExplorerHierarchyNode.BuildChildren(WaitHandle quitEvent) How can I fix that?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Postbacks and HtmlHelper Controls ignoring Model Changes

    - by Rick Strahl
    So here's a binding behavior in ASP.NET MVC that I didn't really get until today: HtmlHelpers controls (like .TextBoxFor() etc.) don't bind to model values on Postback, but rather get their value directly out of the POST buffer from ModelState. Effectively it looks like you can't change the display value of a control via model value updates on a Postback operation. To demonstrate here's an example. I have a small section in a document where I display an editable email address: This is what the form displays on a GET operation and as expected I get the email value displayed in both the textbox and plain value display below, which reflects the value in the mode. I added a plain text value to demonstrate the model value compared to what's rendered in the textbox. The relevant markup is the email address which needs to be manipulated via the model in the Controller code. Here's the Razor markup: <div class="fieldcontainer"> <label> Email: &nbsp; <small>(username and <a href="http://gravatar.com">Gravatar</a> image)</small> </label> <div> @Html.TextBoxFor( mod=> mod.User.Email, new {type="email",@class="inputfield"}) @Model.User.Email </div> </div>   So, I have this form and the user can change their email address. On postback the Post controller code then asks the business layer whether the change is allowed. If it's not I want to reset the email address back to the old value which exists in the database and was previously store. The obvious thing to do would be to modify the model. Here's the Controller logic block that deals with that:// did user change email? if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(oldEmail) && user.Email != oldEmail) { if (userBus.DoesEmailExist(user.Email)) { userBus.ValidationErrors.Add("New email address exists already. Please…"); user.Email = oldEmail; } else // allow email change but require verification by forcing a login user.IsVerified = false; }… model.user = user; return View(model); The logic is straight forward - if the new email address is not valid because it already exists I don't want to display the new email address the user entered, but rather the old one. To do this I change the value on the model which effectively does this:model.user.Email = oldEmail; return View(model); So when I press the Save button after entering in my new email address ([email protected]) here's what comes back in the rendered view: Notice that the textbox value and the raw displayed model value are different. The TextBox displays the POST value, the raw value displays the actual model value which are different. This means that MVC renders the textbox value from the POST data rather than from the view data when an Http POST is active. Now I don't know about you but this is not the behavior I expected - initially. This behavior effectively means that I cannot modify the contents of the textbox from the Controller code if using HtmlHelpers for binding. Updating the model for display purposes in a POST has in effect - no effect. (Apr. 25, 2012 - edited the post heavily based on comments and more experimentation) What should the behavior be? After getting quite a few comments on this post I quickly realized that the behavior I described above is actually the behavior you'd want in 99% of the binding scenarios. You do want to get the POST values back into your input controls at all times, so that the data displayed on a form for the user matches what they typed. So if an error occurs, the error doesn't mysteriously disappear getting replaced either with a default value or some value that you changed on the model on your own. Makes sense. Still it is a little non-obvious because the way you create the UI elements with MVC, it certainly looks like your are binding to the model value:@Html.TextBoxFor( mod=> mod.User.Email, new {type="email",@class="inputfield",required="required" }) and so unless one understands a little bit about how the model binder works this is easy to trip up. At least it was for me. Even though I'm telling the control which model value to bind to, that model value is only used initially on GET operations. After that ModelState/POST values provide the display value. Workarounds The default behavior should be fine for 99% of binding scenarios. But if you do need fix up values based on your model rather than the default POST values, there are a number of ways that you can work around this. Initially when I ran into this, I couldn't figure out how to set the value using code and so the simplest solution to me was simply to not use the MVC Html Helper for the specific control and explicitly bind the model via HTML markup and @Razor expression: <input type="text" name="User.Email" id="User_Email" value="@Model.User.Email" /> And this produces the right result. This is easy enough to create, but feels a little out of place when using the @Html helpers for everything else. As you can see by the difference in the name and id values, you also are forced to remember the naming conventions that MVC imposes in order for ModelBinding to work properly which is a pain to remember and set manually (name is the same as the property with . syntax, id replaces dots with underlines). Use the ModelState Some of my original confusion came because I didn't understand how the model binder works. The model binder basically maintains ModelState on a postback, which holds a value and binding errors for each of the Post back value submitted on the page that can be mapped to the model. In other words there's one ModelState entry for each bound property of the model. Each ModelState entry contains a value property that holds AttemptedValue and RawValue properties. The AttemptedValue is essentially the POST value retrieved from the form. The RawValue is the value that the model holds. When MVC binds controls like @Html.TextBoxFor() or @Html.TextBox(), it always binds values on a GET operation. On a POST operation however, it'll always used the AttemptedValue to display the control. MVC binds using the ModelState on a POST operation, not the model's value. So, if you want the behavior that I was expecting originally you can actually get it by clearing the ModelState in the controller code:ModelState.Clear(); This clears out all the captured ModelState values, and effectively binds to the model. Note this will produce very similar results - in fact if there are no binding errors you see exactly the same behavior as if binding from ModelState, because the model has been updated from the ModelState already and binding to the updated values most likely produces the same values you would get with POST back values. The big difference though is that any values that couldn't bind - like say putting a string into a numeric field - will now not display back the value the user typed, but the default field value or whatever you changed the model value to. This is the behavior I was actually expecting previously. But - clearing out all values might be a bit heavy handed. You might want to fix up one or two values in a model but rarely would you want the entire model to update from the model. So, you can also clear out individual values on an as needed basis:if (userBus.DoesEmailExist(user.Email)) { userBus.ValidationErrors.Add("New email address exists already. Please…"); user.Email = oldEmail; ModelState.Remove("User.Email"); } This allows you to remove a single value from the ModelState and effectively allows you to replace that value for display from the model. Why? While researching this I came across a post from Microsoft's Brad Wilson who describes the default binding behavior best in a forum post: The reason we use the posted value for editors rather than the model value is that the model may not be able to contain the value that the user typed. Imagine in your "int" editor the user had typed "dog". You want to display an error message which says "dog is not valid", and leave "dog" in the editor field. However, your model is an int: there's no way it can store "dog". So we keep the old value. If you don't want the old values in the editor, clear out the Model State. That's where the old value is stored and pulled from the HTML helpers. There you have it. It's not the most intuitive behavior, but in hindsight this behavior does make some sense even if at first glance it looks like you should be able to update values from the model. The solution of clearing ModelState works and is a reasonable one but you have to know about some of the innards of ModelState and how it actually works to figure that out.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in ASP.NET  MVC   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

    Read the article

  • ISA Server 2006 SP1 :: Allow unauthenticated users (non domain users) access to external (internet)

    - by Klaptrap
    Now that we have applied an internal to external rule blocking all users access to the internet, other than those users in a whitelist, we have the obvious issue of non authenticated users, not on our domain, i.e.; domain-less guests not being able to access the internet. Other than configuring each machine to use our alternative gateway - which would require a member of IT to be onsite everytime a guest arrives - can this be done through ISA adn AD?

    Read the article

  • Cross-Domain calls using JavaScript in SharePoint Apps

    - by Sahil Malik
    SharePoint, WCF and Azure Trainings: more information Sounds simple enough right? You’ve probably done $.ajax, and jsonp? Yeah all that doesn’t work in SharePoint. The main reason being, those calls need to work under the app’s credentials. So instead here is what a SharePoint app does, It downloads a file called ~hostweburl/_layouts/15/SPRequestExecutor.js. This file creates an IFrame in your page which then downloads a file called ~appweburl/_layouts/15/AppWebproxy.aspx Then all calls that look like the below, are routed via AppWebProxy and run on the server under the apps identity. 1: var executor = new SP.RequestExecutor(this.appweburl); 2: var url = this.appweburl + "/_api/SP.AppContextSite(@target)/web?" + "@target='" + this.hostweburl + Read full article ....

    Read the article

  • permanently map a network drive osx leopard

    - by kevyn
    I want to have a mapped drive in OSX which points to my NAS - however I've found that I have to do it after every single reboot. I'm a mac noob, so would like to just have the drive mapped at all times like windows does, but instead each time I reboot and forget to map the drive, I accidentally open itunes and find no music as it's all stored on my NAS! is there a simple way of doing this? have I missed something really silly?

    Read the article

  • Seeking htaccess help: Converting multiple subdomains (both http and https) to www.domain.com using .htaccess

    - by Joshua Dorkin
    I've been trying to get an answer to this question on other forums (the folks at SuperUser thought this was the place I needed to post) and via my connections, but I haven't gotten very far. Hopefully you guys can help me find an answer: I've got a dozen old subdomains that have been indexed by Google. These have been indexed as both http AND https. I've managed to redirect all the subdomains properly, provided they are not https, but can't get any of the https subdomains to property redirect. Here's the code I'm using: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^subdomain1.mysite.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mysite.com/$1 [R=301,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^subdomain2.mysite.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mysite.com/$1 [R=301,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^subdomain3.mysite.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mysite.com/$1 [R=301,L] This works great until someone goes to: https://subdomain2.mysite.com$ which is not redirected back to http://www.mysite.com$ How can I get this to work? Additionally, I'm guessing there is an easier way to make it happen than setting up a dozen pairs of Rewrite conditions/rewrite rule? Is there any way to do this in just a few lines, including one where I list all the subdomains? I'd actually also like to redirect everything on https://www.mysite.com$ to http://www.mysite.com$ except for 3 folders These are mysite.com/secure, mysite.com/store, mysite.com/user -- is there any good way to add this to the htaccess file? Any suggestions would be great! Thank you in advance for any help.

    Read the article

  • ISA Server 2006 SP1 :: Allow unauthenticated users (non domain users) access to external (internet)

    - by Klaptrap
    Now that we have applied an internal to external rule blocking all users access to the internet, other than those users in a whitelist, we have the obvious issue of non authenticated users, not on our domain, i.e.; domain-less guests not being able to access the internet. Other than configuring each machine to use our alternative gateway - which would require a member of IT to be onsite everytime a guest arrives - can this be done through ISA adn AD?

    Read the article

  • Code excavations, wishful invocations, perimeters and domain specific unit test frameworks

    One of the talks I did at QCON London was about a subject that Ive come across fairly recently , when I was building SilverUnit a pure unit test framework for silverlight objects that depend on the silverlight runtime to run. It is the concept of cogs in the machine when your piece of code needs to run inside a host framework or runtime that you have little or no control over for testability related matters. Examples of such cogs and machines can be: your custom control running inside silverlight...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

    Read the article

  • Apache2 URL Rewrite - Second-Level-Domain to the end of URL

    - by Acryl
    i have a site "example.com" and also many other domains like "example1.com", "example2.de", etc. I want that every Second-Level-Domain is rewritten in the following way: example.com/domainredirect=example1.com (when you open example1.com) and example.com/domainredirect=example2.de (when you open example2.de) So the original Second-Level-Domain should be rewritten after "example.com/domainredirect=" Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Create a sub domain for each user

    - by Avinash
    I am working on one site, in which i need to create a sub domain for each user. For e.g, my xite: www.demo.com And user name is :: Mark then sub domain for that user will be as below, mark.demo.com I need to know that what is the proper way to do like the above. I am running on PHP. Thanks, Avinash

    Read the article

  • apache2: Could not reliably determine the server's fully qualified domain name

    - by Joseph Silvashy
    I've never encountered this error before. And secondly I'd like to know how you folks debug your apache configurations. apache2: Could not reliably determine the server's fully qualified domain name, using 127.0.0.1 for ServerName In my Virtual Host configuration I do have these lines: ServerName example.com ServerAlias www.example.com (of course it has my actual info in there) So I guess my question is, why wouldn’t apache be able to determine my fully qualified domain name?

    Read the article

  • Adding a 2008 R2 DC to a SBS2003 R2 domain

    - by ITGuy24
    I am planning on adding a Windows Server 2008 R2 box as a second domain controller for a client running an SBS 2003 R2 domain and have two questions. Are there any "gotchya's" involved in doing this, or do I just run ad and forest prep, promote the 2008 R2 box? How would CALs work with this setup? Would I need SBS 2008 CALs, Server 2008 CALs or would the old SBS 2003 CALs cover this setup? My thinking is I will only need Server 2008 CALs

    Read the article

  • Some thoughts on email hosting for one’s own domain

    - by jamiet
    I have used the same email providers for my own domains for a few years now however I am considering moving over to a new provider. In this email I’ll share my current thoughts and hopefully I’ll get some feedback that might help me to decide on what to do next. What I use today I have three email addresses that I use primarily (I have changed the domains in this blog post as I don’t want to give them away to spammers): [email protected] – My personal account that I give out to family and friends and which I use to register on websites [email protected]  - An account that I use to catch email from the numerous mailing lists that I am on [email protected] – I am a self-employed consultant so this is an account that I hand out to my clients, my accountant, and other work-related organisations Those two domains (jtpersonaldomain.com & jtworkdomain.com) are both managed at http://domains.live.com which is a fantastic service provided by Microsoft that for some perplexing reason they never bother telling anyone about. It offers multiple accounts (I have seven at jtpersonaldomain.com though as already stated I only use two of them) which are accessed via Outlook.com (formerly Hotmail.com) along with usage reporting plus a few other odds and sods that I never use. Best of all though, its totally free. In addition, given that I have got both domains hosted using http://domains.live.com I can link my various accounts together and switch between them at Outlook.com without having to login and logout: N.B. You’ll notice that there are two other accounts listed there in addition to the three I already mentioned. One is my mum’s account which helps me provide IT support/spam filtering services to her and the other is the donation account for AdventureWorks on Azure. I find that linking feature to be very handy indeed. Finally, http://domains.live.com is the epitome of “it just works”. I set up jtworkdomain.com at http://domains.live.com over three years ago and I am pretty certain I haven’t been back there even once to administer it. Proposed changes OK, so if I like http://domains.live.com so much why am I considering changing? Well, I earn my corn in the Microsoft ecosystem and if I’m reading the tea-leaves correctly its looking increasingly likely that the services that I’m going to have to be familiar with in the future are all going to be running on top of and alongside Windows Azure Active Directory and Office 365 respectively. Its clear to me that Microsoft’s are pushing their customers toward cloud services and, like it or lump it, data integration developers like me may have to come along for the ride. I don’t think the day is too far off when we can log into Windows Azure SQL Database (aka SQL Azure), Team Foundation Service, Dynamics etc… using the same credentials that are currently used for Office 365 and over time I would expect those things to get integrated together a lot better – that integration will be based upon a Windows Azure Active Directory identity. This should not come as a surprise, in my opinion Microsoft’s whole enterprise play over the past 15 or 20 years can be neatly surmised as “get people onto Windows Server and Active Directory then upsell from there” – in the not-too-distant-future the only difference is that they’re trying to do it in the cloud. I want to get familiar with these services and hence I am considering moving jtworkdomain.com onto Office 365. I’ll lose the convenience of easily being able to switch to that account at Outlook.com and moreover I’ll have to start paying for it (I think it’ll be about fifty quid a year – not a massive amount but its quite a bit more than free) but increasingly this is beginning to look like a move I have to make. So that’s where my head is at right now. Anyone have any relevant thoughts or experiences to share? Please let me know in the comments below. @Jamiet

    Read the article

  • Setup Domain with Amazon EC2

    - by saturngod
    I have domain from name.com and I want to add in Amazon EC2 server. I got Public DNS ec2-xxx-xx-x-xxx.compute-1.amazonaws.com Can I add A-Record in this DNS ? When I add Elastic IPs , I can't use ssh and public DNS. So, how to connect domain to Amazon EC2 ?

    Read the article

  • Connect root domain name to dyndns?

    - by user36175
    Is there any way to connect the root of a domain name to a dyndns account? This question reveals how to get www.whatever.com to point to dyndns, but is there a way to get whatever.com itself to point to it? The domain is registered with GoDaddy if that matters.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112  | Next Page >