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  • AutoMapper determine what to map based on generic type

    - by Daz Lewis
    Hi, Is there a way to provide AutoMapper with just a source and based on the specified mapping for the type of that source automatically determine what to map to? So for example I have a type of Foo and I always want it mapped to Bar but at runtime my code can receive any one of a number of generic types. public T Add(T entity) { //List of mappings var mapList = new Dictionary<Type, Type> { {typeof (Foo), typeof (Bar)} {typeof (Widget), typeof (Sprocket)} }; //Based on the type of T determine what we map to...somehow! var t = mapList[entity.GetType()]; //What goes in ?? to ensure var in the case of Foo will be a Bar? var destination = AutoMapper.Mapper.Map<T, ??>(entity); } Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Simplest one-to-many Map case in Hibernate doesn't work in MySQL

    - by Malvolio
    I think this is pretty much the simplest case for mapping a Map (that is, an associative array) of entities. @Entity @AccessType("field") class Member { @Id protected long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @MapKey(name = "name") private Map<String, Preferences> preferences = new HashMap<String, Preferences>(); } @Entity @AccessType("field") class Preferences { @ManyToOne Member member; @Column String name; @Column String value; } This looks like it should work, and it does, in HSQL. In MySQL, there are two problems: First, it insists that there be a table called Members_Preferences, as if this were a many-to-many relationship. Second, it just doesn't work: since it never populates Members_Preferences, it never retrieves the Preferences. [My theory is, since I only use HSQL in memory-mode, it automatically creates Members_Preferences and never really has to retrieve the preferences map. In any case, either Hibernate has a huge bug in it or I'm doing something wrong.]

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  • Bugs in scroll-follow with Google map (Firefox and Safari)

    - by earlyriser
    A scroll follow effect is when a part of the web design is always visible, even when the window is scrolled. There are animated and static versions of this. The animated is ok http://robertomartinez.info/cobra/index.html But I prefer the fixed version, however I have some bugs: http://robertomartinez.info/cobra/index_fixed.html -In Firefox, when you scroll the page, you will see a kind of vertical cut in the lorem ipsum text (below the HERE indication). This is caused by the image tiles of the map, then if you drag and drop the map, the cut will appear in another side. -In Safari, when you scroll the page, the div follows, but the map images stay in the same position. Do you have solutions for theses issues? Thanks.

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  • How do you search through a map?

    - by Jack Null
    I have a map: Map<String, String> ht = new HashMap(); and I would like to know how to search through it and find anything matching a particular string. And if it is a match store it into an arraylist. The map contains strings like this: 1,2,3,4,5,5,5 and the matching string would be 5. So for I have this: String match = "5"; ArrayList<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); Enumeration num= ht.keys(); while (num.hasMoreElements()) { String number = (String) num.nextElement(); if(number.equals(match)) { result.add(number); } }

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  • Client-side user custom CSS single file for overriding multiple domains

    - by Cawas
    This is for using in Safari, though it could probably be used on Firefox as well. In Chrome you have to add a plugin anyway (which generally allow for custom CSS per domain), and Opera already allows this to be done without needing any CSS. But while it's for customizing on the client-side, it's also a pure CSS question. So I'm using no plugins here. So, again, I got a custom CSS code (easily) working for all domains. Now I want to get specify CSS code for each domain. All with just 1 CSS file that's being loaded by Safari. Over the web and googling, I've found two ways to supposedly do this, but none actually worked. They're both documented on userstyles.com: @-moz-document domain("your-domain.com") { }. This would be perfect, since I can have several tags like that and just choose which style will be loaded for which domain. It just doesn't work. @namespace is quite confusing and I've tried every variation I could think of. None worked.

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  • How do I map nested generics in NHibernate

    - by Gluip
    In NHibernate you can map generics like this <class name="Units.Parameter`1[System.Int32], Units" table="parameter_int" > </class> But how can I map a class like this? Set<T> where T is a Parameter<int> like this Set<Parameter<int>> My mapping hbm.xml looking like this fails <class name="Set`1[[Units.Parameter`1[System.Int32], Units]],Units" table="settable"/> I simplified my mappings a little to get my point accross very clearly. Basically I want NHibernate to map generic class which has has generic type parameter. Want I understand from googling around is that NHibernate is not able to parse the name to the correct type in TypeNameParser.Parse() which result in the following error when adding the mapping to the configuration System.ArgumentException: Exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' was thrown. Parameter name: typeName@31 Anybody found a way around this limitation?

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  • Using xsl:character-map on text nodes only

    - by jramos95
    I am trying to create a generic stylesheet that can convert all Latin characters in Unicode to uppercase ASCII characters. Using <xsl:character-map> works well except for one thing: namespaces. The character map converts all of my namespaces to upper case, which I do not want. Is there a way to utilize a character map to do what I want to all the other nodes while leaving the namespaces untouched? I see the disable-output-escaping attribute might be an option, but I haven't been able to make it work.

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  • problme with javascript map/object

    - by akshay
    I am using javascript map to store keys and values.Later on I check if specified key is present in map or not, but it sometimes gives correct result but sometimes it dont.I tried to print the map using console.log(mapname), it shows all keys, but i i try to check if some specified key is presnt sometimes it gives wrong answer. Am using following code: //following code is called n times in loop with different/same vales of x myMap : new Object(); var key = x ; //populated dynamically actually myMap[key] ="dummyval"; if(myIdMap[document.getElementById("abc").value.trim()]!=null) alert('present' ); else alert('not present'); What can be the possible problem?

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  • Perl array and hash manipulation using map

    - by somebody
    I have the following test code use Data::Dumper; my $hash = { foo => 'bar', os => 'linux' }; my @keys = qw (foo os); my $extra = 'test'; my @final_array = (map {$hash->{$_}} @keys,$extra); print Dumper \@final_array; The output is $VAR1 = [ 'bar', 'linux', undef ]; Shouldn't the elements be "bar, linux, test"? Why is the last element undefined and how do I insert an element into @final_array? I know I can use the push function but is there a way to insert it on the same line as using the map command? Basically the manipulated array is meant to be used in an SQL command in the actual script and I want to avoid using extra variables before that and instead do something like: $sql->execute(map {$hash->{$_}} @keys,$extra);

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  • Adapting Map Iterators Using STL/Boost/Lambdas

    - by John Dibling
    Consider the following non-working code: typedef map<int, unsigned> mymap; mymap m; for( int i = 1; i < 5; ++i ) m[i] = i; // 'remove' all elements from map where .second < 3 remove(m.begin(), m.end(), bind2nd(less<int>(), 3)); I'm trying to remove elements from this map where .second < 3. This obviously isn't written correctly. How do I write this correctly using: Standard STL function objects & techniques Boost.Bind C++0x Lambdas I know I'm not eraseing the elements. Don't worry about that; I'm just simplifying the problem to solve.

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  • C++ a map to a 2 dimensional vector

    - by user1701545
    I want to create a C++ map where key is, say, int and value is a 2-D vector of double: map myMap; suppose I filled it and now I would like to update the second vector mapped by each key (for example divide each element by 2). How would I access that vector iteratively? The "itr-second[0]" syntax in the statement below is obviously wrong. What would be the right syntax for that action? for(std::map<in, vector<vector<double> > > itr = myMap.begin(); itr != myMap.end();++itr) { for(int i = 0;i < itr->second[0].size();++i) { itr->second[0][i] /= 2; } } thanks, rubi

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  • Java Map question

    - by user552961
    I have one Map that contains some names and numbers Map<String,Integer> abc = new TreeMap<String,Integer>(); It works fine. I can put some values in it but when I call it in different class it gives me wrong order. For example: I putted abc.put("a",1); abc.put("b",5); abc.put("c",3); some time it returns the order (b,a,c) and some time (a,c,b). What is wrong with it? Is there any step that I am missing when I call this map?

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  • In JPA, a Map of embeddable values, that have an embedded entity used as the key

    - by Schmuli
    I'm still new to JPA (and Hibernate, which I'm using as my provider), so maybe this just can't be done, but anyway... Consider the following code: @Entity class Root { @Id private long id; private String name; @ElementCollection private Map<ResourceType, Resource> resources; ... } @Entity class ResourceType { @Id private long id; private String name; } @Embeddable class Resource { private ResourceType resourceType; private long value; } In the database, there is a collection table, 'Root_resources', that stores the values of the map, but the resource type appears twice (actually, the resource type ID does), once as the KEY of the map, and once as part of the value. Is there a way, similar to, say, the @MapKey annotation, to indicate that the key is one of the columns of the value (i.e. embedded)?

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  • Can't compile std::map sorting, why?

    - by Vincenzo
    This is my code: map<string, int> errs; struct Compare { bool operator() (map<string, int>::const_iterator l, map<string, int>::const_iterator r) { return ((*l).second < (*r).second); } } comp; sort(errs.begin(), errs.end(), comp); Can't compile. This is what I'm getting: no matching function for call to ‘sort(..’ Why so? Can anyone help? Thanks!

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  • SQL SERVER – Solution of Puzzle – Swap Value of Column Without Case Statement

    - by pinaldave
    Earlier this week I asked a question where I asked how to Swap Values of the column without using CASE Statement. Read here: SQL SERVER – A Puzzle – Swap Value of Column Without Case Statement. I have proposed 3 different solutions in the blog posts itself. I had requested the help of the community to come up with alternate solutions and honestly I am stunned and amazed by the qualified entries. I will be not able to cover every single solution which is posted as a comment, however, I would like to for sure cover few interesting entries. However, I am selecting 5 solutions which are different (not necessary they are most optimal or best – just different and interesting). Just for clarity I am involving the original problem statement here. USE tempdb GO CREATE TABLE SimpleTable (ID INT, Gender VARCHAR(10)) GO INSERT INTO SimpleTable (ID, Gender) SELECT 1, 'female' UNION ALL SELECT 2, 'male' UNION ALL SELECT 3, 'male' GO SELECT * FROM SimpleTable GO -- Insert Your Solutions here -- Swap value of Column Gender SELECT * FROM SimpleTable GO DROP TABLE SimpleTable GO Here are the five most interesting and different solutions I have received. Solution by Roji P Thomas UPDATE S SET S.Gender = D.Gender FROM SimpleTable S INNER JOIN SimpleTable D ON S.Gender != D.Gender I really loved the solutions as it is very simple and drives the point home – elegant and will work pretty much for any values (not necessarily restricted by the option in original question ‘male’ or ‘female’). Solution by Aneel CREATE TABLE #temp(id INT, datacolumn CHAR(4)) INSERT INTO #temp VALUES(1,'gent'),(2,'lady'),(3,'lady') DECLARE @value1 CHAR(4), @value2 CHAR(4) SET @value1 = 'lady' SET @value2 = 'gent' UPDATE #temp SET datacolumn = REPLACE(@value1 + @value2,datacolumn,'') Aneel has very interesting solution where he combined both the values and replace the original value. I personally liked this creativity of the solution. Solution by SIJIN KUMAR V P UPDATE SimpleTable SET Gender = RIGHT(('fe'+Gender), DIFFERENCE((Gender),SOUNDEX(Gender))*2) Sijin has amazed me with Difference and Soundex function. I have never visualized that above two functions can resolve the problem. Hats off to you Sijin. Solution by Nikhildas UPDATE St SET St.Gender = t.Gender FROM SimpleTable St CROSS Apply (SELECT DISTINCT gender FROM SimpleTable WHERE St.Gender != Gender) t I was expecting that someone will come up with this solution where they use CROSS APPLY. This is indeed very neat and for sure interesting exercise. If you do not know how CROSS APPLY works this is the time to learn. Solution by mistermagooo UPDATE SimpleTable SET Gender=X.NewGender FROM (VALUES('male','female'),('female','male')) AS X(OldGender,NewGender) WHERE SimpleTable.Gender=X.OldGender As per author this is a slow solution but I love how syntaxes are placed and used here. I love how he used syntax here. I will say this is the most beautifully written solution (not necessarily it is best). Bonus: Solution by Madhivanan Somehow I was confident Madhi – SQL Server MVP will come up with something which I will be compelled to read. He has written a complete blog post on this subject and I encourage all of you to go ahead and read it. Now personally I wanted to list every single comment here. There are some so good that I am just amazed with the creativity. I will write a part of this blog post in future. However, here is the challenge for you. Challenge: Go over 50+ various solutions listed to the simple problem here. Here are my two asks for you. 1) Pick your best solution and list here in the comment. This exercise will for sure teach us one or two things. 2) Write your own solution which is yet not covered already listed 50 solutions. I am confident that there is no end to creativity. Reference: Pinal Dave (http://blog.SQLAuthority.com) Filed under: PostADay, SQL, SQL Authority, SQL Function, SQL Puzzle, SQL Query, SQL Server, SQL Tips and Tricks, T SQL, Technology

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  • How can a developer realize the full value of his work [closed]

    - by Jubbat
    I, honestly, don't want to work as a developer in a company anymore after all I have seen. I want to continue developing software, yes, but not in the way I see it all around me. And I'm in London, a city that congregates lots of great developers from the whole world, so it shouldn't be a problem of location. So, what are my concerns? First of all, best case scenario: you are paying managers salary out of yours. You are consistently underpaid by making up for the average manager negative net return plus his whole salary. Typical scenario. I am a reasonably good developer with common sense who cares for readable code with attention to basic principles. I have found way too often, overconfident and arrogant developers with a severe lack of common sense. Personally, I don't want to follow TDD or Agile practices like all the cool kids nowadays. I would read about them, form my own opinion and take what I feel is useful, but don't follow it sheepishly. I want to work with people who understand that you have to design good interfaces, you absolutely have to document your code, that readability is at the top of your priorities. Also people who don't have a cargo cult mentality too. For instance, the same person who asked me about design patterns in a job interview, later told me that something like a List of Map of Vector of Map of Set (in Java) is very readable. Why would someone ask me about design patterns if they can't even grasp encapsulation? These kind of things are the norm. I've seen many examples. I've seen worse than that too, from very well paid senior devs, by the way. Every second that you spend working with people with such lack of common sense and clear thinking, you are effectively losing money by being terribly inefficient with your time. Yet, with all these inefficiencies, the average developer earns a high salary. So I tried working on my own then, although I don't like the idea. I prefer healthy exchange of opinions and ideas and task division. I then did a bit of online freelancing for a while but I think working in a sweatshop might be more enjoyable. Also, I studied computer engineering and you are in an environment in which your client will presume you don't have any formal education because there is no way to prove it. Again, you are undervalued. You could try building a product, yes. But, of course, luck is a big factor. I wonder if there is a way to work in something you can do well, software development, and be valued for the quality of your work and be paid accordingly, and where you and only you get fairly paid for the value you generate. I know that what I have written seems somehow unlikely but I strongly feel this way. Hopefully someone will understand me and has already figured this out. I don't think I'm alone in this kind of feeling.

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  • Why does ping flooding a domain name freezes and not a direct ip address

    - by CYREX
    I am wondering why, when ping flooding a domain, the ping flood freezes after a couple of seconds then continues and this freeze, unfreeze continues until i stop the ping flood. When i do the same using the ip it does not freeze. NEVER. i did for example sudo ping -f IP (It does not freeze) then i did sudo ping -f DomainName (It freezes after a couple of seconds) Why does ping flooding an IP not freezes and ping flooding the same place using the domain name does freeze. EDIT - What i mean about freezing is that the behavior of the ping flood should send a ping and create a dot (.) for each ping but also remove each dot (.) after receiving the echo request. Looks something like this: .......... <-- This means you just send 10 ping requests. If the requests are answer, for each request answer a dot is removed. The freeze happens when this is sending or receiving. The dots will stay there frozen, like is not receiving or sending any packets. For the PING FLOOD. I do not mean in the evil way of flooding a place, i mean in the testing way. To test the performance/speed of the request send and answered of the ping requests. If you send a ping flood to google's IP for about 10 seconds you would have send about 1000 packets.but if you do it to google's domain name (google.com) it will create the freeze am talking about. IMPORTANT - Do not confuse with flooding a site with ping of death attacks.

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  • XP machines on Domain not reporting WMI Data in a 2003 Server Environment

    - by Az
    I am running into a very quirky issue and I hope someone out there can help. We use a monitoring program for several networks we oversee that is WMI data dependent for a great deal of it's functionality. The Windows 2000 Professional workstations, as well as the 2003 servers in our network report WMI data fine, the Windows XP professional machines will not let me view them from within the WMI snap in for MMC (they return a Win32: Access Denied) error. I am of course logged in with an account with domain admin privileges on the domain controller when I attempt it. DCOM is enabled in component services, and the remote security option is set to allow as well. If we remove the machine from the domain and rejoin it, some workstations will show up as WMI enabled temporarily and then when I try to access them again later I get the access denied error again out of the blue. Hoping someone out there has had a similar problem or they have advice. I have had this problem with the firewall turned on or off. Thanks for your time! -Az

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  • wget not working with domain on local machine

    - by user568829
    Basically - I have some PHP scripts that need to be run as cron jobs. Lets say the script needing to be run is: http://admin.somedomain.com/cron_jobs/get_stats If I run the script from the local machine it gives me a 404 Not Found error. So I entered the following into /etc/hosts XX.XX.XX.45 admin.somedomain.com Now wget works fine from the local machine to that domain. However when I restart Apache that domain no longer works. Here is the config for that site in /etc/apache2/sites-available NameVirtualHost XX.XX.XX.45:80 <VirtualHost XX.XX.XX.45:80> ServerName admin.somedomain.com DocumentRoot /var/www/admin.somedomain.com/ <Directory "/var/www/admin.somedomain.com"> allowoverride all Options Indexes order deny,allow allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/admin.somedomain.com-error_log CustomLog /var/log/apache2/admin.somedomain.com-access_log combined </VirtualHost> It just goes to the default site config showing "It Works". If I take out that setting in /etc/hosts and restart apache the website at that domain works fine again. Can anyone point me in the right direction here? Thanks

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  • How can I erase the traces of Folder Redirection from the Default Domain Policy

    - by bruor
    I've taken over from an IT outsourcer and have found a struggle now that we're starting a migration to windows 7. Someone decided that they would setup Folder redirection in the Default Domain Policy. I've since configured redirection in another policy at an OU level. No matter what I do, the windows 7 systems pick up the Default Domain Policy folder redirection settings only. I keep getting entries in the event log showing that the previously redirected folders "need to be redirected" with a status of 0x80000004. From what I can tell this just means that it's redirecting them locally. Is there a way I can wipe that section of the GPO clean so it's no longer there? I'm hesitant to try to reset the default domain policy to complete defaults. ***UPDATE 6-26 I found that the following condition occurred and was causing the grief here. I've already implemented the new policies for clients, and for some reason, XP was working great, 7 was refusing to process. The DDP was enforced. Because of this, and the fact that the folder redirection policies were set to redirect back to the local profile upon removal, it was forcing clients to pick up it's "redirect to local" settings. Requirements for to recreate the issue. -Create a new test OU and policy. -Create some folder redirection settings, set them to redirect to local upon removal -Remove settings on that GPO -Refresh your view of the GPO and check the settings. -You'll notice that the settings show "not configured" entries for folder redirection. -Enforce this GPO -Create another sub-OU -Create a GPO linked to this sub-ou and configure some folder redirection settings. -Watch as the enforced GPOs "not configured" setting overrides the policy you just defined. I've had to relink the DDP to all OU's that have "block inheritance" enabled, and disable the "enforced" option on the DDP as a workaround. I'd love to re-enable enforcement of the DDP, but until I can erase the traces of folder redirection settings from the DDP, I think I'm stuck.

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  • Stop Windows Domain Environment Caching Old Passwords?

    - by Daryl Gill
    I have noticed on my domain environment; the old Administrator password (before password expire).. The client machines have cached the old password and have the ability to bypass the new password by entering the old one..? I have noticed on my domain environment; the old Administrator password (before password expire).. The client machines have cached the old password and have the ability to bypass the new password by entering the old one..? Basically; I'm running a UAC enabled domain, which needs the administrator password to continue basic stuff; installations and such. The password for the administrator account has been changed due to expiration of said accounts password. By accident a fellow administrator typed the old password and still bypassed the UAC with what should have been the incorrect password. Is this a bug with the environment? or something that needs to be tweaked in the server sided settings? Is this a bug with the environment? or something that needs to be tweaked in the server sided settings?

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  • Windows Server 2003 SBS domain in multiple sites

    - by E3 Group
    We have about 25 employees in our current office and are looking to open up another office in another capital city housing about 15 employees. In our current office, we are running a domain hosted by a 2003 SBS server and I've been tasked by the boss to expand our infrastructure to the new office in the cheapest way possible (cheapest way in the short run that is, because my boss doesn't think more than 6 months ahead). So I'm looking to get a second hand server and have it run Server 2003 Std with exchange server 2003. These are the things that it needs to do: Replicate shared folders that are hosted in the parent LAN. Deliver emails hosted in the parent Exchange Server Somehow link up with the parent domain controller and push the AD to the remote site I'm pretty sure 3 is impossible but the DC would be available if a VPN connection is present, right? On that note, would I be looking at hardware VPN connections? I'm not sure how to deploy the new site as this is my first time doing it and i'm making it especially difficult for myself, seeing as the AD and DC is on an SBS server. Would I first start by establishing a VPN connection and then joining the new server to the domain? Will things 'just work' if I install exchange onto the new server and point outlooks to it? and how would I be able to replicate shared folders?

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  • In spite of correct DNS, Exchange sending to wrong destination server for single outbound domain

    - by beporter
    My company uses an SBS 2003 server and makes use of Exchange to host our own email. We also have a linux server hosting domains for some of our clients. In order for us to send to those clients, we had internal DNS set up to shadow the client domains to provide "correct" MX records inside our network. For example, public DNS for a domain abc.com might point to 1.2.3.4, but internally we have MX records set up to route mail for abc.com to 172.16.0.4, which is the linux email server. This setup was entirely functional; this is just back story. We've recently moved one of our client domains from our internal linux server to an external email provider. When we did that, we naturally deleted our internal shadow DNS records so our Exchange server would fetch correct (public) DNS records and route mail out to the new external host. This has NOT had any effect on Exchange though. Even after rebooting the Exchange server and completely flushing the DNS cache (nslookups on the Exchange machine itself correctly resolve to the new external address) Exchange still attempts to deliver messages for the domain to our internal server! Exchange correctly routes to all other internal and external domains when sending email. Somehow Exchange is trying to deliver to a machine that by all accounts it has no business trying to use for just this one domain. Is there a DNS cache that Exchange uses internally? Is there a way to flush that internal cache? What else could I be missing?

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  • Seizing naming master from child domain server

    - by meera
    when I am trying to seize the role from my child domain server the naming master I get the following error fsmo maintenance: seize naming master Attempting safe transfer of domain naming FSMO before seizure. ldap_modify_sW error 0x34(52 (Unavailable). Ldap extended error message is 000020AF: SvcErr: DSID-03210380, problem 5002 (UN AVAILABLE), data 8438 Win32 error returned is 0x20af(The requested FSMO operation failed. The current FSMO holder could not be contacted.) ) Depending on the error code this may indicate a connection, ldap, or role transfer error. Transfer of domain naming FSMO failed, proceeding with seizure ... Server "win-fb20ixk90mu" knows about 5 roles Schema - CN=NTDS Settings,CN=WIN-3918XHC5STU,CN=Servers,CN=Default-First-Site-Na me,CN=Sites,CN=Configuration,DC=HCL,DC=com Naming Master - CN=NTDS Settings,CN=WIN-FB20IXK90MU,CN=Servers,CN=Default-First- Site-Name,CN=Sites,CN=Configuration,DC=HCL,DC=com PDC - CN=NTDS Settings,CN=WIN-FB20IXK90MU,CN=Servers,CN=Default-First-Site-Name, CN=Sites,CN=Configuration,DC=HCL,DC=com RID - CN=NTDS Settings,CN=WIN-FB20IXK90MU,CN=Servers,CN=Default-First-Site-Name, CN=Sites,CN=Configuration,DC=HCL,DC=com Infrastructure - CN=NTDS Settings,CN=WIN-FB20IXK90MU,CN=Servers,CN=Default-First -Site-Name,CN=Sites,CN=Configuration,DC=HCL,DC=com

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  • SQL Server 2008 R2 Error 15401 when trying to add a domain user

    - by Alice
    I am trying to add a domain user. I am doing the following. Expand Security Right click on Logins Select New Login... Login name select search Click on location and select entire directory Type username Click checkname The name goes underlined and add some more info Click OK Click OK I then get the following error: I have found http://support.microsoft.com/kb/324321. The Login does exist There is no Duplicate security identifiers Authentication failure I don't think is happening as I can browse AD Case sensitivity should not be the problem as I am doing the checkname and it is correcting it. Not a Local account Name resolution again I can see the AD I have rebooted the server (VM) and the issue is still happening. Any ideas? Edit I have also: Domain member: Digitally encrypt secure channel data (when possible) – Disable this policy Domain member: Digitally sign secure channel data (when possible) – Disable this policy Rebooted server http://talksql.blogspot.com/2009/10/windows-nt-user-or-group-domainuser-not.html Edit 2 I have also: Digitally encrypt or sign secure channel data (always)- Disabled Rebooted Edit 3 Since the question have moved site I no longer haves access to comment etc... I have checked the dns on the server to a machine where it is working. The DNS servers are the same on both...

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