Search Results

Search found 49860 results on 1995 pages for 'reference type'.

Page 1205/1995 | < Previous Page | 1201 1202 1203 1204 1205 1206 1207 1208 1209 1210 1211 1212  | Next Page >

  • best way to set up a VM for development (regarding performance)

    - by raticulin
    I am trying to set up a clean vm I will use in many of my devs. Hopefully I will use it many times and for a long time, so I want to get it right and set it up so performance is as good as possible. I have searched for a list of things to do, but strangely found only older posts, and none here. My requirements are: My host is Vista 32b, and guest is Windows2008 64b, using Vmware Workstation. The VM should also be able to run on a Vmware ESX I cannot move to other products (VirtualBox etc), but info about performance of each one is welcomed for reference. Anyway I guess most advices would apply to other OSs and other VM products. I need network connectivity to my LAN Guest will run many java processes, a DB and perform lots of file I/O What I have found so far is: HOWTO: Squeeze Every Last Drop of Performance Out of Your Virtual PCs: it's and old post, and about Virtual PC, but I guess most things still apply (and also apply to vmware). I guess it makes a difference to disable all unnecessary services, but the ones mentioned in 1 seem like too few, I specifically always disable Windows Search. Any other service I should disable?

    Read the article

  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

    Read the article

  • Debug NAudio MP3 reading difference?

    - by Conrad Albrecht
    My code using NAudio to read one particular MP3 gets different results than several other commercial apps. Specifically: My NAudio-based code finds ~1.4 sec of silence at the beginning of this MP3 before "audible audio" (a drum pickup) starts, whereas other apps (Windows Media Player, RealPlayer, WavePad) show ~2.5 sec of silence before that same drum pickup. The particular MP3 is "Like A Rolling Stone" downloaded from Amazon.com. Tested several other MP3s and none show any similar difference between my code and other apps. Most MP3s don't start with such a long silence so I suspect that's the source of the difference. Debugging problems: I can't actually find a way to even prove that the other apps are right and NAudio/me is wrong, i.e. to compare block-by-block my code's results to a "known good reference implementation"; therefore I can't even precisely define the "error" I need to debug. Since my code reads thousands of samples during those 1.4 sec with no obvious errors, I can't think how to narrow down where/when in the input stream to look for a bug. The heart of the NAudio code is a P/Invoke call to acmStreamConvert(), which is a Windows "black box" call which I can't think how to error-check. Can anyone think of any tricks/techniques to debug this?

    Read the article

  • Drupal: Template Files, Modules and Content Types for Advanced Theme

    - by theandym
    Intro I am in the process of trying to convert my first HTML/CSS design into a theme for Drupal. I have used ModX for quite a few designs and appreciate the ability to create different page templates and custom variables to be assigned to those templates. However I seem to be having some issues making the transition. The site I am working on theming in Drupal is for a real estate agent. Each page/section will have a different set of content associated with it and will need to display only that content. For example, there will be a page for current listings, each of which will be formatted by a custom content type. However, when I call the content on the home page (or on other pages) I do not want to see this listing data. Layout The layout of the site and the regions associated with each page/section is as follows: Home Spotlight Featured 1 Featured 2 About Spotlight Bios - Profiles of each agent (each will be a node with name, contact info, pic, etc) listed on the page; multiple nodes listed Sidebar Listings Spotlight Listings - Profiles of properties (each will be a node with locations, basic info, pic, etc) listed on the page; multiple nodes listed Sidebar Services Spotlight Content - general paragraph text area Sidebar News/Blog News/Blog Items - List of stories with summaries and links to full article Sidebar Each page/section will use the same header and footer. Issue I have done some reading on Drupal, custom content types (and CCK), Views, and Pathauto. However I have not been able to get a clear picture of how to put it all together to accomplish what I am attempting. What I really would like to know is which modules to use, how best to use them, which elements I need to use where, and what template files I should be using to theme the elements I need to use. Any help or reference to useful resources would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net HttpModule List<> content

    - by test
    We have created an http module that loads data on initialize into a list, and uses that list on every endrequest event of application. However we got a null reference exception on the module at endRequest event complaining that the content is null. Yet we are sure that at module initialization we have put non-null objects correctly. How is this possible? Any ideas? Thanks in advance. The place where i fill the data into the list what named as "Pages" : using (SqlDataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (reader.Read()) { LandingPageDetails details = new LandingPageDetails(); details.DomainId = Convert.ToInt32(reader["DomainId"]); details.PageId = Convert.ToInt32(reader["TrackingPageId"]); details.PageAddress = Convert.ToString(reader["PageAddress"]); if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(details.PageAddress)) { Pages.Add(details); } } } // Find the related record on EndRequesst event LandingPageDetails result = Pages.Find ( delegate(LandingPageDetails current) { return current.PageAddress.Equals(url, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase); } ); The line what we get the error return current.PageAddress.Equals(url, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase); "current" is the null object P.S : It works properly, but one day later contents become null. Possibly, there is something wrong on IIS. Our server is Windows 2003, IIS 6.0

    Read the article

  • Replace System.Net.Mail.MailMessage with manually created message and send it

    - by DEH
    I am trying to send emails that will bounce to a known mailbox. I plan to use VERP. Unfortunately the System.Net.Mail.MailMessage object does not allow me to precisely set the From: and Sender: headers within my email - it forces the values so that the resulting email contains the phrase 'on behalf of', and does not allow me fine control over the relevant mime headers. I therefore plan to manually write mime email messages directly to the pickup directory so that I can independently control the From and Sender headers. My dev box is a Vista box and therefore does not have an SMTP server. I would like to configure the dev box so that I have an SMTP server running on it. I can then turn off the SMTP server, write messages to the pickup dir, then turn on the SMPT server and see how the individual emails that I have written will behave (some delivered, some bounced to a bounce handler on a different email domain, as dictated by the Sender). Two questions: 1. Can anyone recommend an SMTP server that will monitor a pickup directory? 2. If I set headers as follows; From:[email protected]; Sender:[email protected] then the recipient will see the email as having come from [email protected] ( and won't see any reference to [email protected]), but if the mail bounces then the NDR will be sent to [email protected]). It's a real pain to have to do this, but I can't see any way of using System.Net.Mail.MailMessage without it messing up my headers.

    Read the article

  • Join + IEqualityComparer<T> and HashCode

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Im writing my own LINQ reference but Im getting troubles with some of the more complicated operators implementations. There is a Join implementation that takes a IEqualityComparer Im getting just crazy. Im trying to understand it first before I write (obviously) Image this two lists: List<string> initials = new List<string> {"A", "B", "C", "D", "E"}; List<string> words = new List<string> {"Ant", "Crawl", "Pig", "Boat", "Elephant", "Arc"}; Nothing weird here. I want to join both lists by the Initial, something like: Initial=A Word=Ant Initial=A Word=Arc Initial=B Word=Boat ... I need a comparator, I wrote this: public class InitialComparator : IEqualityComparer<string> { public bool Equals(string x, string y) { return x.StartsWith(y); } public int GetHashCode(string obj) { return obj[0].GetHashCode(); } } The Join itself: var blah = initials.Join(words, initial => initial, word => word, (initial, word) => new {Initial = initial, Word = word}, new InitialComparator()); It's the first time Im using HashCodes, after a good session of debugging I see that every word go to the comparator and look at its HashCode, if another word has the same HashCode it calls equals. Since I want to compare just the initial I though that I just need the first letter Hash (Am I wrong?) The thing is that this is not working correctly. Its says that "Ant" and "Arc" are equals, Ok, its comparing every word in the same list or not, But it adds only the last word it finds, in this case Arc, ignoring Ant and Ant is equals to "A" too... If I put "Ant" and "Ant" it add both. In short, What is the way of doing something like that? I know that Im doing something wrong. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 / ASP.NET 3.5 / C# -- issues with intellisense, references, and builds

    - by goober
    Hey all, Hoping you can help me -- the strangest thing seems to have happened with my VS install. System config: Windows 7 Pro x64, Visual Studio 2008 SP1, C#, ASP.NET 3.5. I have two web site projects in a solution. I am referencing NUnit / NHibernate (did this by right-clicking on the project and selecting "Add Reference". I've done this for several projects in the past). Things were working fine but recently stopped working and I can't figure out why. Intellisense completely disappears for any files in my App_Code directory, and none of the references are recognized (they are recognized by any file in the root directory of the web site project. Additionally, pretty simple commands like the following (in Page_Load) fail (assume TextBox1 is definitely an element on the page): if (Page.IsPostBack) { str test1; test1 = TextBox1.Text; } It says that all the page elements are null or that it can't access them. At first I thought it was me, but due to the combination of issues, it seems to be Visual Studio itself. I've tried clearing the temp directories & rebuilding the solution. I've also tried tools -- options -- text editor settings to ensure intellisense is turned on. I'd appreciate any help you can give! Thanks, Sean

    Read the article

  • what exactly is the danger of an uninitialized pointer in C

    - by akh2103
    I am trying get a handle on C as I work my way thru Jim Trevor's "Cyclone: A safe dialect of C" for a PL class. Trevor and his co-authors are trying to make a safe version of C, so they eliminate uninitialized pointers in their language. Googling around a bit on uninitialized pointers, it seems like un-initialized pointers point to random locations in memory. It seems like this alone makes them unsafe. If you reference an un-itilialized pointer, you jump to an unsafe part of memory. Period. But the way Trevor talks about them seems to imply that it is more complex. He cites the following code, and explains that when the function FrmGetObjectIndex dereferences f, it isn’t accessing a valid pointer, but rather an unpredictable address — whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated. What does Trevor mean by "whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated"? Are "un-initialized" pointers initialized to random locations in memory by default? Or does their "random" behavior have to do with the memory allocated for these pointers getting filled with strange values (that are then referenced) because of unexpected behavior on the stack. Form *f; switch (event->eType) { case frmOpenEvent: f = FrmGetActiveForm(); ... case ctlSelectEvent: i = FrmGetObjectIndex(f, field); ... }

    Read the article

  • How do I correctly modify a custom cocoa framework?

    - by Septih
    Hello, I'm working with the very-useful ID3 framework in my cocoa project. There's one tiny thing I'd like to modify in it, but I can't seem to get the changes I've made to apply to the built framework. The source code provided with the framework comes with an Xcode project, so I've opened that up and for testings sake put an NSLog(@"hello"); in. It's definetly in a place where it will be called and there are other NSLog() calls in the framework that show up so it's not just console output being supressed. To build the framework once modified I've first cleaned the build folder, made sure that it's actually removed the files, and then built it. Then in the Xcode project I'm using the framework in, I've deleted the old reference and added a new one to the framework that's freshly built. Running my project with the newly build framework doesn't call the modified framework code. I've tried with both the Development and Deployment builds that are part of the framework Xcode project. My gut instinct is that the executable that the framework code is compiled into is being cached somehow. But as I'm fairly unfamiliar with the workings of frameworks, I'm not really sure where to look.

    Read the article

  • Optimizing drawing on UITableViewCell

    - by Brian
    I am drawing content to a UITableViewCell and it is working well, but I'm trying to understand if there is a better way of doing this. Each cell has the following components: Thumbnail on the left side - could come from server so it is loaded async Title String - variable length so each cell could be different height Timestamp String Gradient background - the gradient goes from the top of the cell to the bottom and is semi-transparent so that background colors shine through with a gloss It currently works well. The drawing occurs as follows: UITableViewController inits/reuses a cell, sets needed data, and calls [cell setNeedsDisplay] The cell has a CALayer for the thumbnail - thumbnailLayer In the cell's drawRect it draws the gradient background and the two strings The cell's drawRect it then calls setIcon - which gets the thumbnail and sets the image as the contents of the thumbnailLayer. If the image is not found locally, it sets a loading image as the contents of the thumbnailLayer and asynchronously gets the thumbnail. Once the thumbnail is received, it is reset by calling setIcon again & resets the thumbnailLayer.contents This all currently works, but using Instruments I see that the thumbnail is compositing with the gradient. I have tried the following to fix this: setting the cell's backgroundView to a view whose drawRect would draw the gradient so that the cell's drawRect could draw the thumbnail and using setNeedsDisplayInRect would allow me to only redraw the thumbnail after it loaded --- but this resulted in the backgroundView's drawing (gradient) covering the cell's drawing (text). I would just draw the thumbnail in the cell's drawRect, but when setNeedsDisplay is called, drawRect will just overlap another image and the loading image may show through. I would clear the rect, but then I would have to redraw the gradient. I would try to draw the gradient in a CAGradientLayer and store a reference to it, so I can quickly redraw it, but I figured I'd have to redraw the gradient if the cell's height changes. Any ideas? I'm sure I'm missing something so any help would be great.

    Read the article

  • Microsoft Detours - DetourUpdateThread?

    - by pault543
    Hi, I have a few quick questions about the Microsoft Detours Library. I have used it before (successfully), but I just had a thought about this function: LONG DetourUpdateThread(HANDLE hThread); I read elsewhere that this function will actually suspend the thread until the transaction completes. This seems odd since most sample code calls: DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); Anyway, apparently this function "enlists" threads so that, when the transaction commits (and the detours are made), their instruction pointers are modified if they lie "within the rewritten code in either the target function or the trampoline function." My questions are: When the transaction commits, is the current thread's instruction pointer going to be within the DetourTransactionCommit function? If so, why should we bother enlisting it to be updated? Also, if the enlisted threads are suspended, how can the current thread continue executing (given that most sample code calls DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread());)? Finally, could you suspend all threads for the current process, avoiding race conditions (considering that threads could be getting created and destroyed at any time)? Perhaps this is done when the transaction begins? This would allow us to enumerate threads more safely (as it seems less likely that new threads could be created), although what about CreateRemoteThread()? Thanks, Paul For reference, here is an extract from the simple sample: // DllMain function attaches and detaches the TimedSleep detour to the // Sleep target function. The Sleep target function is referred to // through the TrueSleep target pointer. BOOL WINAPI DllMain(HINSTANCE hinst, DWORD dwReason, LPVOID reserved) { if (dwReason == DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH) { DetourTransactionBegin(); DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); DetourAttach(&(PVOID&)TrueSleep, TimedSleep); DetourTransactionCommit(); } else if (dwReason == DLL_PROCESS_DETACH) { DetourTransactionBegin(); DetourUpdateThread(GetCurrentThread()); DetourDetach(&(PVOID&)TrueSleep, TimedSleep); DetourTransactionCommit(); } return TRUE; }

    Read the article

  • Silverlight - Get the ItemsControl of a DataTemplate

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have a Silverlight application that is using a DataGrid. Inside of that DataGrid I have a DataTemplate that is defined like the following: <Grid x:Name="myGrid" Tag="{Binding}" Loaded="myGrid_Loaded"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding MyItems}" Tag="{Binding}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" Width="138"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Type}" /> <TextBox x:Name="myTextBox" TextChanged="myTextBox_TextChanged" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </Grid> When a user enters text into the TextBox, I have an event (myTextBox_TextChanged) that must be fired at this point. When that event gets fired, I would like to get the ItemsControl element that is the container for this TextBox. How do I get that ItemsControl from my event handler? Please note: Because the ItemsControl is in the DataTemplate of DataGrid, I don't believe I can just add an x:Name and reference it from my code-behind. Or is there a way to do that? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • testing if constructor in constructor chain

    - by Delan Azabani
    I'm attempting to implement a GTK+ inspired widget toolkit for the web in JavaScript. One of the constructor chains goes gtk.widget => gtk.container => gtk.bin => gtk.window Every gtk.widget has a showAll method, which, if and only if the widget is a gtk.container or derivative (such as gtk.bin or gtk.window), will recursively show the children of that widget. Obviously, if it isn't a gtk.container or derivative, we shouldn't do anything because the widget in question can't contain anything. For reference, here is my inheritance function; it's probably not the best, but it's a start: function inherit(target, parent) { target.prototype = new parent; target.prototype.constructor = target; } I know that I can check for the direct constructor like this: if (this.constructor === gtk.container) ... However, this only tests for direct construction and not, say, if the object is a gtk.bin or gtk.window. How can I test whether gtk.container is somewhere up in the constructor chain?

    Read the article

  • Flex 3: should I provide prepared data to my component or make it to process data before display?

    - by grapkulec
    I'm starting to learn a little Flex just for fun and maybe to prove that I still can learn something new :) I have some idea for a project and one of its parts is a tree component which could display data in different ways depending on configuration. The idea There is list of objects having properties like id, date, time, name, description. And sometimes list should be displayed like this: first level: date second level: time third level: name and sometimes like this: first level: year second level: month third level: day fourth level: time and name By level I mean level of nesting of course. So, we can have years, that have months, that have days, that have hours and so forth. The problem What could be the best way to do it? I mean, should I prepare data for different ways of nesting outside of component or even outside of flex? I can do it at web service level in C# where I plan to have database access layer and send to flex nice and ready to display XML or array of objects. But I wonder if that won't cause additional and maybe unneccessary network traffic. I tried to hack some code in my component to convert my data objects into XML or ArrayCollection but I don't know enough of Flex and got stuck on elimination of duplicates or getting specific data by some key value. Usually to do such things I have STL with maps, sets and vectors and I find Flex arrays and even Dictionary a little bit confusing (I've read language reference and googled without any significant luck). The question So, to sum things up: should I give my tree component data prepared just for chosen type of display or should I try to do it internally inside component (or some helper class written in ActionScript)?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

    Read the article

  • Package caption Error: Continued 'figure' after 'table'

    - by Eduardo
    Hello I am having a problem with the numbering of figures using Latex, I am getting this error message: Package caption Error: Continued 'figure' after 'table' This is my code: \begin{table} \centering \subfloat[Tabla1\label{tab:Tabla1}]{ \small \begin{tabular}{ | c | c | c | c | c |} \hline \multicolumn{5}{|c|}{\textbf{Tabla 1}} \\ \hline ... ... \end{tabular} } \qquad \subfloat[Tabla2\label{tab:Tabla2}]{ \small \begin{tabular}{ | c | c | c | c | c |} \hline \multicolumn{5}{|c|}{\textbf{Tabla 2}} \\ \hline ... ... \end{tabular} } \caption{These are tables} \label{tab:Tables} \end{table} \begin{figure} \centering \subfloat[][Figure 1]{\label{fig:fig1}\includegraphics[width = 14cm]{fig1}} \qquad \subfloat[][Figure 2]{\label{fig:fig2}\includegraphics[width = 14cm]{fig2}} \end{figure} \begin{figure}[t] \ContinuedFloat \subfloat[][Figure 2]{\label{fig:fig3}\includegraphics[width = 14cm]{fig3}} \caption{Those are figures} \label{fig:Figures} \end{figure} \newpage What I want to do, it is to have this configuration: Table Table Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Since Figure 1 and Figure 2 are too big to fit vertically I want the Figure 3 to be alone in another page that's why I have the \ContinuedFloat. Externally looks fine but the problem is the numbering, I am getting for the Figures the number 5.2, that is the same number that a Figure I have before (The correct number should be 5.3). However if I try to reference the figures: \ref{fig:fig1}, \ref{fig:fig2} y \ref{fig:fig2} I get: 5.3a, 5.3b y 5.2c The two first right the last one wrong. I have been stuck with this for hours any ideas?. Thans a lot in advance

    Read the article

  • How are Scala closures transformed to Java objects?

    - by iguana
    I'm currently looking at closure implementations in different languages. When it comes to Scala, however, I'm unable to find any documentation on how a closure is mapped to Java objects. It is well documented that Scala functions are mapped to FunctionN objects. I assume that the reference to the free variable of the closure must be stored somewhere in that function object (as it is done in C++0x, e.g.). I also tried compiling the following with scalac and then decompiling the class files with JD: object ClosureExample extends Application { def addN(n: Int) = (a: Int) => a + n var add5 = addN(5) println(add5(20)) } In the decompiled sources, I see an anonymous subtype of Function1, which ought to be my closure. But the apply() method is empty, and the anonymous class has no fields (which could potentially store the closure variables). I suppose the decompiler didn't manage to get the interesting part out of the class files... Now to the questions: Do you know how the transformation is done exactly? Do you know where it is documented? Do you have another idea how I could solve the mystery?

    Read the article

  • Java: Is clone() really ever used? What about defensive copying in getters/setters?

    - by GreenieMeanie
    Do people practically ever use defensive getters/setters? To me, 99% of the time you intend for the object you set in another object to be a copy of the same object reference, and you intend for changes you make to it to also be made in the object it was set in. If you setDate(Date dt) and modify dt later, who cares? Unless I want some basic immutable data bean that just has primitives and maybe something simple like a Date, I never use it. As far as clone, there are issues as to how deep or shallow the copy is, so it seems kind of "dangerous" to know what is going to come out when you clone an Object. I think I have only used clone() once or twice, and that was to copy the current state of the object because another thread (ie another HTTP request accessing the same object in Session) could be modifying it. Edit - A comment I made below is more the question: But then again, you DID change the Date, so it's kind of your own fault, hence whole discussion of term "defensive". If it is all application code under your own control among a small to medium group of developers, will just documenting your classes suffice as an alternative to making object copies? Or is this not necessary, since you should always assume something ISN'T copied when calling a setter/getter?

    Read the article

  • deepcopy and python - tips to avoid using it?

    - by blackkettle
    Hi, I have a very simple python routine that involves cycling through a list of roughly 20,000 latitude,longitude coordinates and calculating the distance of each point to a reference point. def compute_nearest_points( lat, lon, nPoints=5 ): """Find the nearest N points, given the input coordinates.""" points = session.query(PointIndex).all() oldNearest = [] newNearest = [] for n in xrange(nPoints): oldNearest.append(PointDistance(None,None,None,99999.0,99999.0)) newNearest.append(obj2) #This is almost certainly an inappropriate use of deepcopy # but how SHOULD I be doing this?!?! for point in points: distance = compute_spherical_law_of_cosines( lat, lon, point.avg_lat, point.avg_lon ) k = 0 for p in oldNearest: if distance < p.distance: newNearest[k] = PointDistance( point.point, point.kana, point.english, point.avg_lat, point.avg_lon, distance=distance ) break else: newNearest[k] = deepcopy(oldNearest[k]) k += 1 for j in range(k,nPoints-1): newNearest[j+1] = deepcopy(oldNearest[j]) oldNearest = deepcopy(newNearest) #We're done, now print the result for point in oldNearest: print point.station, point.english, point.distance return I initially wrote this in C, using the exact same approach, and it works fine there, and is basically instantaneous for nPoints<=100. So I decided to port it to python because I wanted to use SqlAlchemy to do some other stuff. I first ported it without the deepcopy statements that now pepper the method, and this caused the results to be 'odd', or partially incorrect, because some of the points were just getting copied as references(I guess? I think?) -- but it was still pretty nearly as fast as the C version. Now with the deepcopy calls added, the routine does it's job correctly, but it has incurred an extreme performance penalty, and now takes several seconds to do the same job. This seems like a pretty common job, but I'm clearly not doing it the pythonic way. How should I be doing this so that I still get the correct results but don't have to include deepcopy everywhere?

    Read the article

  • Object doesn't support property or method 'transformNode' in Internet Explorer 10 (Windows 8)

    - by John Chapman
    I am having some JavaScript issues that seem to only occur in Internet Explorer 10 on Windows 8 (IE 7, 8, and 9 all work fine). The basic jist of what I am doing is getting XML and XSL from a web service and then transforming them in JavaScript to render on the page using the Sys.Net.XMLDOM object. XMLDOM = Sys.Net.XMLDOM; var xsl = // XSL gotten from somewhere else var xmlString = // XML gotten from somewhere else as a string... var xml = new XMLDOM(xmlString); var content = xml.transformNode(xsl); When I use the above code in IE 10, I get: Object doesn't support property or method 'transformNode' Any ideas on why Internet Explorer 10 is doing this? EDIT I have also tried this: xmldoc = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.DOMDocument"); xmldoc.async = false; xmldoc.load(xml); xsldoc = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.DOMDocument"); xsldoc.async = false; xsldoc.load(xsl); var content = xmldoc.transformNode(xsldoc); Which works in all previous versions of IE, but in IE 10 I get: Reference to undeclared namespace prefix: 'atom'.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

    Read the article

  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Does HttpListener work well on Mono?

    - by billpg
    Hi everyone. I'm looking to write a small web service to run on a small Linux box. I prefer to code in C#, so I'm looking to use Mono. I don't want the overhead of running a full web server or Mono's version of ASP.NET. I'm thinking of having a single process with a thread dealing with each client connection. Shared memory between threads instead of a database. I've read a little on Microsoft's version of HttpListener and how it works with the Http.sys driver. Alas, Mono's documentation on this class is just the automated class interface with no discussion of how it works under the hood. (Linux doesn't have Http.sys, so I imagine it's implemented substantially differently.) Could anyone point me towards some resources discussing this module please? Many thanks, Bill, billpg.com (A little background to my question for the interested.) Some time ago, I asked this question, interested in keeping a long conversation open with lots of back-and-forth. I had settled on designing my own ad-hoc protocol, but people I spoke to really wanted a REST interface, even at the cost of the "Okay, send your command now" signal. So, I wondered about running ASP.NET on a Linux/Mono server, but stumbled upon HttpListener. This seemed ideal, as each "conversation" could run in a separate thread. The thread that calls HttpListener in a loop can look for which thread each incomming connection is for and pass the reference to that thread. The alternative for an ASP.NET driven service, would be to have the ASPX code pick up the state from a database, and write back the new state when it finishes. Yes, it would work, but that's a lot of overhead.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1201 1202 1203 1204 1205 1206 1207 1208 1209 1210 1211 1212  | Next Page >