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• LINQ - Querying a list filtered via a Many-to-Many reltionship

  - by user118190

  Please excuse the context of my question for I did not know how to exactly word it. To not complicate things further, here's my business requirement: "bring me back all the Employees where they belong in Department "X". So when I view this, it will display all of the Employees that belong to this Department. Here's my environment: Silverlight 3 with Entity Framework 1.0 and WCF Data Services 1.0. I am able to load and bind all kinds of lists (simple), no problem. I don't feel that my environment matters and that's why I feel it is a LINQ question more than the technologies. My question is for scenarios where I have 3 tables linked, i.e. entities (collections). For example, I have this in my EDM: Employee--EmployeeProject--Project. Here's the table design from the Database: Employee (table1) ------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... EmployeeProject (table2) ------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) EmployeeID (FK) ProjectID (FK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... Project (table3) ------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... Here's the EDM design from Entity Framework: ------------------------ Employee (entity1) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects ------------------------ EmployeeProject (entity2) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- Employee Project ------------------------ Project (entity3) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects So far, I have only been able to do: var filteredList = Context.Employees .Where(e => e.EmployeeProjects.Where(ep => ep.Project.Name == "ProjectX")) NOTE: I have updated the syntax of the query after John's post. As you can see, I can only query, the related entity (EmployeeProjects). All I want is being able to filter to Project from the Employee entity. Thanks for any advice.

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• JQuery drag, drop and save via cookie - how to?

  - by RussP

  Sorry to be back folks, but you guys & girls seem to know much more about this than I do ... anyhow, here is my question/problem I want to use drag, drop, sort (the interface plugin does me even though I have read it's out of date? but have looked at UI and to be honest is not clear and to me appears heavier than interface?) Anyhow, how do I set a cookie to save positions from this: $(document).ready( function () { $('a.closeEl').bind('click', toggleContent); $('div.groupWrapper').Sortable( { accept: 'groupItem', helperclass: 'sortHelper', activeclass : 'sortableactive', hoverclass : 'sortablehover', handle: 'div.itemHeader', tolerance: 'pointer', onChange : function(ser) { }, onStart : function() { $.iAutoscroller.start(this, document.getElementsByTagName('body')); }, onStop : function() { $.iAutoscroller.stop(); } } ); } ); var toggleContent = function(e) { var targetContent = $('div.itemContent', this.parentNode.parentNode); if (targetContent.css('display') == 'none') { targetContent.slideDown(300); $(this).html('[-]'); } else { targetContent.slideUp(300); $(this).html('[+]'); } return false; }; var ser = function (s) { serial = $.SortSerialize(s); alert(serial.hash); }; which is the "standard" interface demo, PLUS How do I then get to read that cookie so that when I next visit the page the order is as I set it in the cookie? Hopefully from that I can work out the rest .......? Thanks for help in advance.

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• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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• node.js UDP data lost at high package rates

  - by koleto

  I am observing a significant data-lost on a UDP connection with node.js 0.6.18 and 0.8.0 . It appears at high packet rates about 1200 packet per second with frames about 1500 byte limit. Each data packages has a incrementing number so it easy to track the number of lost packages. var server = dgram.createSocket("udp4"); server.on("message", function (message, rinfo) { //~processData(message); //~ writeData(message, null, 5000); }).bind(10001); On the receiving callback I tested two cases I first saved 5000 packages in a file. The result ware no dropped packages. After I have included a data processing routine and got about 50% drop rate. What I expected was that the process data routine should be completely asynchronous and should not introduce dead time to the system, since it is a simple parser to process binary data in the package and to emits events to a further processing routine. It seems that the parsing routine introduce dead time in which the event handler is unable to handle each packets. At the low package rates (< 1200 packages/sec) there are no data lost observed! Is this a bug or I am doing something wrong?

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• How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

  - by quakkels

  Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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• problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

  - by Spiderman

  in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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• Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

  - by johncatfish

  Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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• WSACONNREFUSED when connecting to server

  - by Robert Mason

  I'm currently working on a server. I know that the client side is working (I can connect to www.google.com on port 80, for example), but the server is not functioning correctly. The socket has socket()ed, bind()ed, and listen()ed successfully and is on an accept loop. The only problem is that accept() doesn't seem to work. netstat shows that the server connection is running fine, as it prints the PID of the server process as LISTENING on the correct port. However, accept never returns. Accept just keeps running, and running, and if i try to connect to the port on localhost, i get a 10061 WSACONNREFUSED. I tried looping the connection, and it just keeps refusing connections until i hit ctrl+c. I put a breakpoint directly after the call to accept(), and no matter how many times i try to connect to that port, the breakpoint never fires. Why is accept not accepting connections? Has anyone else had this problem before? Known: [breakpoint0] if ((new_fd = accept(sockint, NULL, NULL)) == -1) { throw netlib::error("Accept Error"); //netlib::error : public std::exception } else { [breakpoint1] code...; } breakpoint0 is reached (and then continued through), no exception is thrown, and breakpoint1 is never reached. The client code is proven to work. Netstat shows that the socket is listening. If it means anything, i'm connecting to 127.0.0.1 on port 5842 (random number). The server is configured to run on 5842, and netstat confirms that the port is correct.

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• JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

  - by rattaman

  Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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• How does Backbone.js connect View to Model

  - by William Sham

  I am trying to learn backbone.js through the following example. Then I got stuck at the point ItemView = Backbone.View.extend why you can use this.model.get? I thought this is referring to the instance of ItemView that would be created. Then why would ItemView has a model property at all?!! (function($){ var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ defaults: { part1: 'hello', part2: 'world' } }); var List = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item }); var ItemView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'li', initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render'); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).html('<span>'+this.model.get('part1')+' '+this.model.get('part2')+'</span>'); return this; } }); var ListView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: $('body'), events: { 'click button#add': 'addItem' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'addItem', 'appendItem'); this.collection = new List(); this.collection.bind('add', this.appendItem); this.counter = 0; this.render(); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).append("<button id='add'>Add list item</button>"); $(this.el).append("<ul></ul>"); _(this.collection.models).each(function(item){ appendItem(item); }, this); }, addItem: function(){ this.counter++; var item = new Item(); item.set({ part2: item.get('part2') + this.counter }); this.collection.add(item); }, appendItem: function(item){ var itemView = new ItemView({ model: item }); $('ul', this.el).append(itemView.render().el); } }); var listView = new ListView(); })(jQuery);

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• XML Decryption Bug (referencing issue)

  - by OrangePekoe

  Hi, Needing some explanation of what exactly the decryption is doing, in addition to some help on solving the problem. Currently, when a portion of XML is encrypted, and then decrypted, the DOM appears to work correctly. We can see the element is encrypted and then see it return back once it is decrypted. Our problem lies when a user tries to change data in that same element after decryption has occurred. When a user changes some settings, data in the XML should change. However, if the user attempts to change an XML element that has been decrypted the changes are not reflected in the DOM. We have a reference pointer to the XML element that is used to bind the element to an object. If you encrypt the node and then decrypt it, the reference pointer now points to a valid orphaned XML element that is no longer part of the DOM. After decryption, there will be 2 copies of the XML element. One in the DOM as expected (though will not reflect new changes), and one orphaned element in memory that is still referenced by our pointer. The orphaned element is valid (reflects new changes). We can see that this orphaned element is owned by the DOM, but when we try to return its parent, it returns null. The question is: Where did this orphaned xml element come from? And how can we get it to correctly append (replace old data) to the DOM? The code resembles: public static void Decrypt(XmlDocument Doc, SymmetricAlgorithm Alg) { if (Doc == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Doc"); if (Alg == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Alg"); XmlElement encryptedElement = Doc.GetElementsByTagName("EncryptedData")[0] as XmlElement; if (encryptedElement == null) { throw new XmlException("The EncryptedData element was not found."); } EncryptedData edElement = new EncryptedData(); edElement.LoadXml(encryptedElement); EncryptedXml exml = new EncryptedXml(); byte[] rgbOutput = exml.DecryptData(edElement, Alg); exml.ReplaceData(encryptedElement, rgbOutput); }

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• Regarding the ViewModel

  - by mizipzor

  Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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• Gridview looses ItemTemplate after columns are removed

  - by Middletone

  I'm trying to bind a datatable to a gridview where I've removed some of the autogenerated columns in the code behind. I've got two template columns and it seems that when I alter the gridview in code behind and remove the non-templated columns that the templates loose the controls that are in them. Using the following as a sample, "Header A" will continue to be visible but "Header B" will dissapear after removing any columsn that are located at index 2 and above. I'm creating columns in my codebehind for the grid as a part of a reporting tool. If I don't remove the columns then there doesn't seem to be an issue. <asp:GridView ID="DataGrid1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="10" GridLines="Horizontal"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Header A" > <ItemTemplate > Text A </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> Header B </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> Text B </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> For i = 2 To DataGrid1.Columns.Count - 1 DataGrid1.Columns.RemoveAt(2) Next EDIT So from what I've read this seems to be a problem that occurs when the grid is altered. Does anyone know of a good workaround to re-initialize the template columns or set them up again so that when the non-template columns are removed that hte templates don't get removed as well?

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• doesn't parse xml when it's a single node

  - by tag

  my script.php returns this XML <all> <item> <field1>value1</field1> <field2>value2</field2> </item> <item> <field1>value1</field1> <field2>value2</field2> </item> </all> The HTTPService uses the default resultFormat="object" but I don't declare it since it's the default. Then I bind it to a List dataProvider="{getDataHTTP.lastResult.all.item}" I get no problems when the number of item returned is more than 1. But when it's only 1 item I get an error cannot convert XMLList to mx.collections.IList. I tried different solutions including trying to cast it as XMLListCollection but it still gives an error for single items. Does anyone know of a way to possibly solve this?

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• 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

  - by Panindra

  i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

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• Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

  - by mmoris

  Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

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• Python : How to close a UDP socket while is waiting for data in recv ?

  - by alexroat

  Hello, let's consider this code in python: import socket import threading import sys import select class UDPServer: def __init__(self): self.s=None self.t=None def start(self,port=8888): if not self.s: self.s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) self.s.bind(("",port)) self.t=threading.Thread(target=self.run) self.t.start() def stop(self): if self.s: self.s.close() self.t.join() self.t=None def run(self): while True: try: #receive data data,addr=self.s.recvfrom(1024) self.onPacket(addr,data) except: break self.s=None def onPacket(self,addr,data): print addr,data us=UDPServer() while True: sys.stdout.write("UDP server> ") cmd=sys.stdin.readline() if cmd=="start\n": print "starting server..." us.start(8888) print "done" elif cmd=="stop\n": print "stopping server..." us.stop() print "done" elif cmd=="quit\n": print "Quitting ..." us.stop() break; print "bye bye" It runs an interactive shell with which I can start and stop an UDP server. The server is implemented through a class which launches a thread in which there's a infinite loop of recv/*onPacket* callback inside a try/except block which should detect the error and the exits from the loop. What I expect is that when I type "stop" on the shell the socket is closed and an exception is raised by the recvfrom function because of the invalidation of the file descriptor. Instead, it seems that recvfrom still to block the thread waiting for data even after the close call. Why this strange behavior ? I've always used this patter to implements an UDP server in C++ and JAVA and it always worked. I've tried also with a "select" passing a list with the socket to the xread argument, in order to get an event of file descriptor disruption from select instead that from recvfrom, but select seems to be "insensible" to the close too. I need to have a unique code which maintain the same behavior on Linux and Windows with python 2.5 - 2.6. Thanks.

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• PHP mail() function not delivering mail

  - by Ryan Jones

  Hi there, I have a slight problem. I am using a working script (works on my testing account - shared server) to send a mail through PHP using the mail() function. I just got a dedicated server, and I haven't been able to get the function to work. I've spent the last 10 or so hours reading various documentations on BIND (for the SPF record), dovecot, sendmail and postfix trying various things to get this to work. There is clearly something that I am missing. So we know the PHP code works fine. All the headers are fine everything. We know this as it's a direct copy from my testing account. So the problem must arise somewhere in the server config. The path to sendmail is correct, and sendmail is (apparently) working fine. I've set up the script to now deliver "Sent" or "Error" based on the boolean result from the PHP mail() function. That is: if(mail($blah,$blah,$blah,$blah,$blah)) { echo "Sent"; } else { echo "Error";} And the result ALWAYS comes up as "Sent" - however, the email never arrives. Can someone suggest things to check, as I'm completely new to this (24 hours or so!). Thanks in advance. Ryan

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• Focus-dependent text change for TextBoxes in WPF

  - by Simon

  Hey there. I'm writing an application in WPF using the MVVM-pattern and will really often use TextBoxes. I don't want to use labels for the user to know user what the text box is for, i.e. I don't want something like this: <TextBlock> Name: </TextBlock> <TextBox /> Instead, I would like the TextBox to contain its own label. Statically, you would express it like this: <TextBox>Name</TextBox> If the cursor is displayed in the textbox, i.e. the TextBox gains focus, I want the description text to disappear. If the TextBox is left empty and it loses the focus, the description text should be shown again. It's similar to the search textbox of StackOverflow or the one of Firefox. (please tell me if your not sure what I mean). One TextBox's label may change at runtime, dependending on e.g. a ComboBox's selected element or a value in my ViewModel. (It's like in Firefox's search TextBox, if you select google from the search engins' menu, the TextBox's label changes to "Google", if you select "Yahoo" its set to "Yahoo"). Thus I want to be able to bind the label's content. Consider that I may already have a Binding on the Text-Property of the TextBox. How can implement such a behaviour and make it reusable for any of my TextBox's? Code is welcome but not needed; a description of what to do is enough. Thank you in advance.

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• Image swap with a javascript onclick dropdown menu

  - by AzzyDude

  So I've got this code that has an image and when you click it a dropdown menu appears. Pretty simple. The code works fine but I'm trying to incorporate an image swap on click and I'm having difficulty. Here's the HTML and the JS (there's some CSS too, but I'll leave that out): HTML: <div id="header"> <dl class="dropdown"> <dt><a href="#"><img src="images/cogwheel_btn.png"/></a></dt> <dd> <ul> <li><a href="#">Favorites</a></li> <li><a href="#">History</a></li> </ul> </dd> </dl> </div> JS: $(document).ready(function() { $(".dropdown img.flag").addClass("flagvisibility"); $(".dropdown dt a").click(function() { $(".dropdown dd ul").toggle(); }); $(".dropdown dd ul li a").click(function() { var text = $(this).html(); $(".dropdown dt a span").html(text); $(".dropdown dd ul").hide(); $("#result").html("Selected value is: " + getSelectedValue("sample")); }); function getSelectedValue(id) { return $("#" + id).find("dt a span.value").html(); } $(document).bind('click', function(e) { var $clicked = $(e.target); if (!$clicked.parents().hasClass("dropdown")) $(".dropdown dd ul").hide(); }); $("#flagSwitcher").click(function() { $(".dropdown img.flag").toggleClass("flagvisibility"); }); });? I've tried adding lines like ("dt").empty(); and then ("dt").html("new_image") but it causes the dropdown functionality to stop working. Anyone any ideas?

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• Telerik RadGrid: grid clientside pagination

  - by ram

  I have a web service which returns me some data,I am massaging this data and using this as datasource for my radgrid (telerik). The datasource is quite large, and would like to paginate it. I found couple of problems when I paginate it in the server side I have to bind the grid again for pagination, which essentially means I have to make a call to WS again to get the data. This is an expensive call for me. I would rather forgo the benefits of pagination and would display all the results in the same page, except for it would be a bit clumsy During the postback RadGrid1.Items.Count happens to be the number of items getting paginated (25- in my case) which is expected as all the items in the datasource are not getting bound. This of course is not an issue. The real issue is that we have some checkboxes which get checked based on some business condition. We add this to our business object/DB later. So if the user has not navigated all the pages, these "checked" items do not get added as pagination limits the "Items" in the grid to those which get bound for that particular page index. My Thoughts: I would rather have some sort of client side pagination, where we can hide/show contents than going to the server and doing a databind every time. Though it will return all the results, the UI will not be clumsy and the grid would have "all the items" during postback Is there a way to do it ? If it were a regular asp.net gridView, can someone point me to a good article which would serve my purpose Ram PS: who else think radgrid is crazy ? (unfortunately I did not make this choice)

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• Slider with buttons. How to improve?

  - by Kalinin

  I need to make slider. I have content (which should shift horizontally) and two buttons - "right" and "left". If you press the button and hold it, the content starts to move (in the appropriate direction). If you not hold the button, then the movement stops. This behavior is copies the behavior of usual window scrollbar. I wrote code: var animateTime = 1, offsetStep = 5; //event handling for buttons "left", "right" $('.bttR, .bttL') .mousedown(function() { scrollContent.data('loop', true).loopingAnimation($(this)); }) .bind("mouseup mouseout", function(){ scrollContent.data('loop', false); }); $.fn.loopingAnimation = function(el){ if(this.data('loop') == true){ var leftOffsetStr; leftOffsetInt = parseInt(this.css('marginLeft').slice(0, -2)); if(el.attr('class') == 'bttR') leftOffsetStr = (leftOffsetInt - offsetStep).toString() + 'px'; else if(el.attr('class') == 'bttL') leftOffsetStr = (leftOffsetInt + offsetStep).toString() + 'px'; this.animate({marginLeft: leftOffsetStr}, animateTime, function(){ $(this).loopingAnimation(el); }) } return this; } But it does have a few things that I do not like: Always call the function animation (loopingAnimation) - I think that this is an extra load (not good). When moving content he "twitches and trembling" - (it's not pretty). How can I solve this problem more elegantly and without the drawbacks of my code?

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• Listening socket

  - by hoodoos

  I got a strange problem, I never actually expirienced this before, here is the code of the server (client is firefox in this case), the way I create it: _Socket = new Socket( AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp ); _Socket.Bind( new IPEndPoint( Settings.IP, Settings.Port ) ); _Socket.Listen( 1000 ); _Socket.Blocking = false; the way i accept connection: while( _IsWorking ) { if( listener.Socket.Poll( -1, SelectMode.SelectRead ) ) { Socket clientSocket = listener.Socket.Accept(); clientSocket.Blocking = false; clientSocket.SetSocketOption( SocketOptionLevel.Tcp, SocketOptionName.NoDelay, true ); } } So I'm expecting it hang on listener.Socket.Poll till new connection comes, but after first one comes it hangs on poll forever. I tried to poll it constantly with smaller delay, let's say 10 microseconds, then it never goes in SelectMode.SelectRead. I guess it maybe somehow related on client's socket reuse? Maybe I don't shutdown client socket propertly and client(firefox) decides to use an old socket? I disconnect client socket this way: Context.Socket.Shutdown( SocketShutdown.Both ); // context is just a wrapper around socket Context.Socket.Close(); What may cause that problem?

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• What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

  - by Rubens Farias

  It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

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• C# function called after dependency property have been set

  - by mizipzor

  My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

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