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  • Save output and exit code of command to files on windows

    - by poncha
    I want to run a command and save its output and its exit code, in different files. Here's what i am doing: cmd.exe /C command 1> %TEMP%\output.log 2> %TEMP%\error.log && echo %ERRORLEVEL% > %TEMP%\status || echo %ERRORLEVEL% > %TEMP%\status If i don't do output redirection (into %TEMP%\output.log and/or %TEMP%\error.log), then exit code is saved just fine. However, when i run the line as shown above more than once (just get back to previous line in command prompt and rerun it), i get 0 in %TEMP%\status regardless of the real exit code. What am i missing? Or maybe there's a better way of doing this?

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  • How does java permgen relate to code size

    - by brad
    I've been reading a lot about java memory management, garbage collecting et al and I'm trying to find the best settings for my limited memory (1.7g on a small ec2 instance) I'm wondering if there is a direct correlation between my code size and the permgen setting. According to sun: The permanent generation is special because it holds data needed by the virtual machine to describe objects that do not have an equivalence at the Java language level. For example objects describing classes and methods are stored in the permanent generation. To me this means that it's literally storing my class def'ns etc... Does this mean there is a direct correlation between my compiled code size and the permgen I should be setting? My whole app is about 40mb and i noticed we're using 256mb permgen. I'm thinking maybe we're using memory that could be better allocated to dynamic code like object instances etc...

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  • libvirt + ESX (HTTP response code 400 for call to 'Login')

    - by Coops
    I'm trying to connect to a vSphere cluster using the information from the libvirt documentation. $ virsh -c "vpx://[email protected]/dc1/dc1-cluster-e01/dc1-vsphere-e04/?no_verify=1" Enter root's password for 10.51.4.11: error: internal error HTTP response code 400 for call to 'Login' error: failed to connect to the hypervisor I seem to be able to establish a connection, but it fails with a "HTTP code 400". If I provide the incorrect password it fails with a 'login credentials' error, so it looks like I am getting a connection, but it's failing for another reason. Wireshark is no help as it's all done over SSL/TLS. Any thoughts folks? UPDATE: 15:21 28/02/11 FYI - I'm running libvirt-0.8.3 (the Ubuntu package recompiled with the ESX flag enabled). When I put virsh into debug mode it returns this: [snip] Enter root's password for 10.51.4.11: 15:19:09.011: debug : do_open:1249 : driver 3 ESX returned ERROR 15:19:09.011: debug : virUnrefConnect:294 : unref connection 0x98aa8f8 1 15:19:09.011: debug : virReleaseConnect:249 : release connection 0x98aa8f8 error: internal error HTTP response code 400 for call to 'Login' error: failed to connect to the hypervisor

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  • bash code in rc.local not excuting after bootup

    - by mrTomahawk
    Does anyone know why a system would not execute the script code within rc.local on bootup? I have a post configuration bash script that I want to run after the initial install of VMware ESX (Red Hat), and for some reason it doesn't seem to execute. I have the setup to log its start of execution and even its progress so that I can see how far it gets in case it fails at some point, but even when I look at that log, I am finding that didn't even started the execution of the script code. I already checked to see that script has execution permissions (755), what else should I be looking at? Here is the first few lines of my code: #!/bin/sh echo >> /tmp/configLog "" echo >> /tmp/configLog "Entering maintenance mode"

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  • HOw to secure whm/cpanel centos server from javascript malacious code virus

    - by Master
    Recently my sites index.php code was replaced some malacious javascript virus code. I really don't know how did that entered into that page. Today when i tried to download that file via ftp then antivirus gave me the warning. So it means it was not entered from my computer. Is there any way to install some antivirus on VPS server with centos 5 , cpanel/whm so that those code should not be allowed to add. also what is mod_security . will it be helpful.

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  • Where do you find the Bash source files of programs in Linux/Mac OSX?

    - by AndrewKS
    I am currently writing some convenience methods for my terminal in my bash_profile and am sure if what I am writing is "the best way". I figure a good way to verify whether what I'm doing is right or not would be to find some source code of more established programs and see how they do it. My question then is, where can I find this code on my Mac? An example is, with Macports installed, where is the source code that opens the port interactive console when I type nothing but "port" in my shell? (I added Linux in the title even though I am on a Mac because I assume the answer would be the same for both) Edit: The answer I am looking for is in terms of which directory relative to the programs will I find their unix scripts.

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  • MySQL query works in Workbench but gives error code 63 from PHP

    - by smund3
    I am making a poll system with PHP/MySQL and have made created a MySQL user for the system to use. However, whenever I try to run a query from PHP as that user, I get error code 63, which after some Googleing I found out means: OS error code 63: Out of streams resources If I make the PHP script use an almighty user instead, everything works fine, so it looks like it has something to do with permissions. I am using a non-persistent connection. I have Googled a lot but I haven't found anything even slightly relevant to this issue. What could cause this error? EDIT: Now it actually started giving me a different error: OS error code 65: Package not installed ...all I did was revert the script to using the poll user instead of the almighty one.

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  • Run single php code using multiple domains

    - by Acharya
    Hi all, I have a php code/site at xyz.com. Now I want to run the same site using multiple domains means when somebody open domain1.com, domain2.com ,domain4.com, so on urls, it should run the code/side that is at xyz.com I know one way to do this. I can host all these domains to the server where xyz.com is hosted so all domains will point to same peace of code/site. n above solution i need to hosted the domains manually. Is there any other way to do this as I want to add domains dynamically? Thanks in advance!

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  • Domain provider for all Country Code TLDs?

    - by 8k_of_power
    I find it very disturbing to buy some domains from one domain provider than when I have to buy a Country Code TLD that is not supported, I have to buy from another domain provider, and thus ending up having multiple domain providers for all my domains. I have looked at Gandi and GoDaddy. They both lack some Country Code TLDs the other one has. Is there domain providers that has all (or almost all) Country Code TLDs? If not, how do you guys do to get all (or almost all) domains under in one place? Also, it would be good if someone could suggest some of the big players of domain providing besides Gandi and GoDaddy, cause I'm new to the international domain market (have only used a couple in Sweden).

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  • Why have minimal user/handwritten code and do everything in XAML?

    - by Mrk Mnl
    I feel the MVVM community has become overzealous like the OO programmers in the 90's - it is a misnomer MVVM is synonymous with no code. From my closed StackOverflow question: Many times I come across posts here about someone trying to do the equivalent in XAML instead of code behind. Their only reason being they want to keep their code behind 'clean'. Correct me if I am wrong, but is not the case that: XAML is compiled too - into BAML - then at runtime has to be parsed into code anyway. XAML can potentially have more runtime bugs as they will not be picked up by the compiler at compile time - from incorrect spellings - these bugs are also harder to debug. There already is code behind - like it or not InitializeComponent(); has to be run and the .g.i.cs file it is in contains a bunch of code though it may be hidden. Is it purely psychological? I suspect it is developers who come from a web background and like markup as opposed to code. EDIT: I don't propose code behind instead of XAML - use both - I prefer to do my binding in XAML too - I am just against making every effort to avoid writing code behind esp in a WPF app - it should be a fusion of both to get the most out of it. UPDATE: Its not even Microsoft's idea, every example on MSDN shows how you can do it in both.

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  • Can too much abstraction be bad?

    - by m3th0dman
    As programmers I feel that our goal is to provide good abstractions on the given domain model and business logic. But where should this abstraction stop? How to make the trade-off between abstraction and all it's benefits (flexibility, ease of changing etc.) and ease of understanding the code and all it's benefits. I believe I tend to write code overly abstracted and I don't know how good is it; I often tend to write it like it is some kind of a micro-framework, which consists of two parts: Micro-Modules which are hooked up in the micro-framework: these modules are easy to be understood, developed and maintained as single units. This code basically represents the code that actually does the functional stuff, described in requirements. Connecting code; now here I believe stands the problem. This code tends to be complicated because it is sometimes very abstracted and is hard to be understood at the beginning; this arises due to the fact that it is only pure abstraction, the base in reality and business logic being performed in the code presented 1; from this reason this code is not expected to be changed once tested. Is this a good approach at programming? That it, having changing code very fragmented in many modules and very easy to be understood and non-changing code very complex from the abstraction POV? Should all the code be uniformly complex (that is code 1 more complex and interlinked and code 2 more simple) so that anybody looking through it can understand it in a reasonable amount of time but change is expensive or the solution presented above is good, where "changing code" is very easy to be understood, debugged, changed and "linking code" is kind of difficult. Note: this is not about code readability! Both code at 1 and 2 is readable, but code at 2 comes with more complex abstractions while code 1 comes with simple abstractions.

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  • Need Sharepoint like modal pop-up window

    - by Srikanth
    I need to show Sharepoint 2010 like pop-up window when clicked on a link in grid view. Once the modal pop-up displayed and user selected the Save button data base should be updated with given values in pop-up. How can I get this. Any Idea. As of now I am using below code to get it but no idea how to pass the values to Database once clicked on the button in pop-up Note: As of now I am not adding the gridview code here as I wanted to achieve it first with sample html then wanted to do with grid view. Java Script function openDialog() { var options = { html: divModalDialogContent, // ID of the HTML tag // or HTML content to be displayed in modal dialog width: 600, height: 300, title: "My First Modal Dialog", dialogReturnValueCallback: dialogCallbackMethod, // custom callback function allowMaximize: true, showClose: true }; SP.UI.ModalDialog.showModalDialog(options); } //Results displayed if 'OK' or 'Cancel' button is clicked if the html content has 'OK' and 'Cancel' buttons function onDialogClose(dialogResult, returnValue) { if (dialogResult == SP.UI.DialogResult.OK) { alert('Ok!'); } if (dialogResult == SP.UI.DialogResult.cancel) { alert('Cancel'); } } // Custom callback function after the dialog is closed function dialogCallbackMethod() { alert('Callback method of modal dialog!'); } HTML <div id="divModalDialogContent"> Hello World! <input type="button" value="OK"onclick="SP.UI.ModalDialog.commonModalDialogClose(SP.UI.DialogResult.OK, 'Ok clicked'); return false;" class="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" /> <input type="button" value="Cancel"onclick="SP.UI.ModalDialog.commonModalDialogClose(SP.UI.DialogResult.cancel, 'Cancel clicked'); return false;" class="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnClicked" Text="Clicked" onclick="btnClicked_Click" /> <input type="button" value="Open" onclick="openDialog()" /> How can I call db upon clicking 'clicked' button in pop-up. Also I need to send parameters to pop-up Thanks in advance

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  • Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

    - by jordan.baucke
    I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

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  • Database structure - is mySQL the right choice?

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, We are currently planning the database structure of a quite complex e-commerce web app that has flexibility as it's main cornerstone. Our app features a large amount of data (products) and we have run into a slight headache trying to keep performance high without compromizing normalization rules in the database, or leaving our highly beloved flexibility concept behind when integrating product options (also widely known as product attributes or parameters). Based on various references and sources available, we have made up lists on pros and cons of all major and well known database patterns to solve this. After comparing these, we have come up with two final alternatives: EAV (Entity-attribute-value model) : Pros: Database is used for all sorting. Cons: All related queries will include a number of joins between multiple tables in order to complete the collection of data. SLOB (Serialized LOB, also known as Facade?) : Pros: Very flexible. Keeping the number of necessary joins low compared to a EAV design pattern. Easy to update/add/remove data from each product. Cons: All sorting will be done by the application instead of the database. Will use lots of performance (memory?) when big datasets is processed by a large number of users. Our main questions: Which pattern/structure would you use, or maybe even a different solution? Is there better databases besides mySQL available nowadays to accomplish what we want? Thanks a lot! Reference: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/695752/product-table-many-kinds-of-product-each-product-has-many-parameters

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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • How to embed multiple jQuery line of code in custom HtmlHelpers ASP.NET MVC

    - by embarus
    I 've tried to create my own HTML Helper which work fine for my need but I can't embed many lines of jQuery code in my extension HtmlHelpers class. I've tried @ literal for jQuery code I doesn't work or I need to escape every line of code that I thing I not good for multiple line of code. I don't know if there is another way to achieve this problem like << Therefore, I need to include jQuery plugin file and put implement script after HTML tag. I find it would be convenience if I could put every in HTML helper and put a single line of code in aspx page for example <%= Html.ParentChildSelectList(string parentName, string childName, IEnumerable parentViewData, IEnumerable childViewData, int parentSize, in childSize) % The following code is the way that I used now. the .aspx page Category model.CategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% model.SubcategoryID,"subcategory") % model.SubcategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.sarapadchang.parentChildSelectList( { parentId : "CategoryID" , childId : "SubcategoryID", actionName : "GetSubcategoryList", controllerName : "Json" } ); </script> I put in head tag to include ParentChildSelectList.js the following code for ParentChildSelectList.js (function($) { $.sarapadchang = { parentChildSelectList: function(options) { // $("#CategoryID option").click(function() $("#" + options.parentId).find("option").click(function() { $("#" + options.childId).empty(); //clear data $("#" + options.childId).append('<option>loading...</option>'); $.post("/" + options.controllerName + "/" + options.actionName + "/" + $(this).attr('value'), "", function(data) { var html = ""; $.each(data, function(index, entry) { html += '<option value="' + entry['Value'] + '">' + entry['Text'] + '</option>'; } ); $("#" + options.childId).empty() $("#" + options.childId).append(html); }, "json"); //end getJson }); })(jQuery); To illustrate you, I've attached simple solution, please follow this link. http://www.thaileaguefc.net/ParentChildSelectList.rar Please accept my apologies if my English is difficult to understand. I am looking forward to hearing from you. Your faithfully, Theeranit

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  • Ruby: what is the pitfall in this simple code excerpt that tests variable existence

    - by zipizap
    I'm starting with Ruby, and while making some test samples, I've stumbled against an error in the code that I don't understand why it happens. The code pretends to tests if a variable finn is defined?() and if it is defined, then it increments it. If it isn't defined, then it will define it with value 0 (zero). As the code threw an error, I started to decompose it in small pieces and run it, to better trace where the error was comming from. The code was run in IRB irb 0.9.5(05/04/13), using ruby 1.9.1p378 First I certify that the variable finn is not yet defined, and all is ok: ?> finn NameError: undefined local variable or method `finn' for main:Object from (irb):134 from /home/paulo/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin/irb:15:in `<main>' >> Then I certify that the following inline-condition executes as expected, and all is ok: ?> ((defined?(finn)) ? (finn+1):(0)) => 0 And now comes the code that throws the error: ?> finn=((defined?(finn)) ? (finn+1):(0)) NoMethodError: undefined method `+' for nil:NilClass from (irb):143 from /home/paulo/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin/irb:15:in `<main>' I was expecting that the code would not throw any error, and that after executing the variable finn would be defined with a first value of 0 (zero). But instead, the code thows the error, and finn get defined but with a value of nil. >> finn => nil Where might the error come from?!? Why does the inline-condition work alone, but not when used for the finn assignment? Any help apreciated :)

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  • Rails: constraint violation on create but not on update

    - by justinbach
    Note: This is a "railsier" (and more succinct) version of this question, which was getting a little long. I'm getting Rails behavior on a production server that I can't replicate on the development server. The codebases are identical save for credentials and caching settings, and both are powered by Oracle 10g databases with identical schema (but different data). My Rails application contains a user model, which has_one registration; registration in turn has_and_belongs_to_many company_ownerships through a registration_ownerships table. Upon registering, users fill out data pertinent to all three models, including a series of checkboxes indicating what registration_ownerships might apply to their account. On the dev server, the registration process is seamless, no matter what data is entered. On production, however, if users check off any of the company ownership fields before submitting their registration, Oracle complains about a constraint violation on the primary key of the company_ownerships table (which is a two-field key based on company_ownership_id and registration_id) and users get the standard Rails 500 error screen. In every case, I've verified that no conflicting record on these two fields exists in the production database, so I don't know why the constraint is getting violated. To further confuse things, if a user registers without listing any ownerships and later goes back and modifies their account to reflect ownership data (which is done through the same interface), the application happily complies with their request and Oracle is well-behaved (this is both on production and dev). I've spent the past couple days trying to figure out what might be causing this problem and am reaching the end of my wits. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!

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  • searching for a programming platform with hot code swap

    - by Andreas
    I'm currently brainstorming over the idea how to upgrade a program while it is running. (Not while debugging, a "production" system.) But one thing that is required for it, is to actually submit the changed source code or compiled byte code into the running process. Pseudo Code var method = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("Method1"); var content = //get it from a database (bytecode or source code) SELECT content FROM methods WHERE id=? AND version=? method.SetContent(content); At first, I want to achieve the system to work without the complexity of object-orientation. That leads to the following requirements: change source code or byte code of function drop functions add new functions change the signature of a function With .NET (and others) I could inject a class via an IoC and could thus change the source code. But the loading would be cumbersome, because everything has to be in an Assembly or created via Emit. Maybe with Java this would be easier? The whole ClassLoader is replacable, I think. With JavaScript I could achieve many of the goals. Simply eval a new function (MyMethod_V25) and assign it to MyClass.prototype.MyMethod. I think one can also drop functions somehow with "del" Which general-purpose platform can handle such things?

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded'

    - by user3604227
    I am using ExtJS4 with Java servlets. I am following the MVC architecture for ExtJS. I am trying a simple example of displaying a border layout but it doesnt work and I get the following error in ext-all.js in the javascript console: Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded' Here is my code: app.js Ext.Loader.setConfig({ enabled : true }); Ext.application({ name : 'IN', appFolder : 'app', controllers : [ 'Items' ], launch : function() { console.log('in LAUNCH-appjs'); Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { items : [ { xtype : 'borderlyt' } ] }); } }); Items.js (controller) Ext.define('IN.controller.Items', { extend : 'Ext.app.Controller', views : [ 'item.Border' ], init : function() { this.control({ 'viewport > panel' : { render : this.onPanelRendered } }); }, onPanelRendered : function() { console.log('The panel was rendered'); } }); Border.js (view) Ext.define('IN.view.item.Border',{extend : 'Ext.layout.container.Border', alias : 'widget.borderlyt', title : 'Border layout' , autoShow : true, renderTo : Ext.getBody(), defaults : { split : true, layout : 'border', autoScroll : true, height : 800, width : 500 }, items : [ { region : 'north', html : "Header here..", id : 'mainHeader' }, { region : 'west', width : 140, html : "Its West..", }, { region : 'south', html : "This is my temp footer content", height : 30, margins : '0 5 5 5', bodyPadding : 2, id : 'mainFooter' }, { id : 'mainContent', collapsible : false, region : 'center', margins : '5', border : true, } ] }); The folder structure for the Webcontent is as follows: WebContent app controller Items.js model store view item Border.js ext_js resources src ext_all.js index.html app.js Can someone help me resolve this error? Thanks in advance

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  • iPhone OS: Why is my managedModelObject not complying with Key Value Coding?

    - by nickthedude
    Ok so I'm trying to build this stat tracker for my app and I have built a data model object called statTracker that keeps track of all the stuff I want it to. I can set and retrieve values using the selectors, but if I try and use KVC (ie setValue: forKey: ) everything goes bad and says my StatTracker class is not KVC compliant: valueForUndefinedKey:]: the entity StatTracker is not key value coding-compliant for the key "timesLauched".' 2010-05-18 15:55:08.573 here's the code that is triggering it: NSArray *statTrackerArray = [[NSArray alloc] init]; statTrackerArray = [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] getStatTracker]; NSNumber *number1 = [[NSNumber alloc] init]; number1 = [NSNumber numberWithInt:(1 + [[(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"timesLauched"] intValue])]; [(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] setValue:number1 forKey:@"timesLaunched" ]; NSError *error; if (![[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"error writing to db"); } Not sure if this is enough code for you folks let me know what you need if you do need more. This would be so sweet if I could use KVC because I could then abstract all this stat tracking stuff into a single method call with a string argument for the value in question. At least that is what I hope to accomplish here. I'm actually now understanding the power of KVC but now I'm just trying to figure out how to make it work. Thanks! Nick

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  • (x86) Assembler Optimization

    - by Pindatjuh
    I'm building a compiler/assembler/linker in Java for the x86-32 (IA32) processor targeting Windows. High-level concepts of a "language" (in essential a Java API for creating executables) are translated into opcodes, which then are wrapped and outputted to a file. The translation process has several phases, one is the translation between languages: the highest-level code is translated into the medium-level code which is then translated into the lowest-level code (probably more than 3 levels). My problem is the following; if I have higher-level code (X and Y) translated to lower-level code (x, y, U and V), then an example of such a translation is, in pseudo-code: x + U(f) // generated by X + V(f) + y // generated by Y (An easy example) where V is the opposite of U (compare with a stack push as U and a pop as V). This needs to be 'optimized' into: x + y (essentially removing the "useless" code) My idea was to use regular expressions. For the above case, it'll be a regular expression looking like this: x:(U(x)+V(x)):null, meaning for all x find U(x) followed by V(x) and replace by null. Imagine more complex regular expressions, for more complex optimizations. This should work on all levels. What do you suggest? What would be a good approach to optimize in these situations?

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  • How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

    - by Michael Haren
    A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

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  • Rails nested models and data separation by scope

    - by jobrahms
    I have Teacher, Student, and Parent models that all belong to User. This is so that a Teacher can create Students and Parents that can or cannot log into the app depending on the teacher's preference. Student and Parent both accept nested attributes for User so a Student and User object can be created in the same form. All four models also belong to Studio so I can do data separation by scope. The current studio is set in application_controller.rb by looking up the current subdomain. In my students controller (all of my controllers, actually) I'm using @studio.students.new instead of Student.new, etc, to scope the new student to the correct studio, and therefore the correct subdomain. However, the nested User does not pick up the studio from its parent - it gets set to nil. I was thinking that I could do something like params[:student][:user_attributes][:studio_id] = @student.studio.id in the controller, but that would require doing attr_accessible :studio_id in User, which would be bad. How can I make sure that the nested User picks up the same scope that the Student model gets when it's created? student.rb class Student < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :studio belongs_to :user, :dependent => :destroy attr_accessible :user_attributes accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :reject_if => :all_blank end students_controller.rb def create @student = @studio.students.new @student.attributes = params[:student] if @student.save redirect_to @student, :notice => "Successfully created student." else render :action => 'new' end end user.rb class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :studio accepts_nested_attributes_for :studio attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation, :remember_me, :studio_attributes devise :invitable, :database_authenticatable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable end

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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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