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• SQL Server becomes slow after restart

  - by Tobi DM

  We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

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• Django sitemap intermittent www

  - by Jen Z

  The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

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• Why do I get two clicked or released signals when using a custom slot for a QPushButton ?

  - by Chris

  here's the main code at first I thought is was the message box but setting a label instead has the same effect. #include <time.h> #include "ui_mainwindow.h" #include <QMessageBox> class MainWindow : public QWidget, private Ui::MainWindow { Q_OBJECT public: MainWindow(QWidget *parent = 0); void makeSum(void); private: int r1; int r2; private slots: void on_pushButton_released(void); }; MainWindow::MainWindow(QWidget *parent) : QWidget(parent) { setupUi(this); } void MainWindow::on_pushButton_released(void) { bool ok; int a = lineEdit->text().toInt(&ok, 10); if (ok) { if (r1+r2==a) { QMessageBox::information( this, "Sums","Correct!" ); } else { QMessageBox::information( this, "Sums","Wrong!" ); } } else { QMessageBox::information( this, "Sums","You need to enter a number" ); } makeSum(); } void MainWindow::makeSum(void) { r1 = rand() % 10 + 1; r2 = rand() % 10 + 1; label->setText(QString::number(r1)); label_3->setText(QString::number(r2)); } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { srand ( time(NULL) ); QApplication app(argc, argv); MainWindow mw; mw.makeSum(); mw.show(); return app.exec(); } #include "main.moc"

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• Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

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• Dynamcally resizing an open Accordion

  - by alavers

  I have an Accordion and the height of its content can be dynamically resized. I would like to see the Accordion dynamically respond to the child item's height, but I'm having trouble doing this. <lt:Accordion Name="MyAccordion" SelectionMode="ZeroOrOne" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <lt:AccordionItem Name="MyAccordionItem" Header="MyAccordion" IsSelected="True" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Grow" Click="Grow"/> <Button Content="Shrink" Click="Shrink"/> <TextBox Name="GrowTextBox" Text="GrowTextBox" Height="400" Background="Green" SizeChanged="GrowTextBox_SizeChanged"/> </StackPanel> </lt:AccordionItem> </lt:Accordion> private void Grow(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height += 100; } private void Shrink(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height -= 100; } private void GrowTextBox_SizeChanged(object sender, System.Windows.SizeChangedEventArgs e) { MyAccordion.UpdateLayout(); MyAccordionItem.UpdateLayout(); } Mind you, if I collapse and then re-open the accordion, it takes shape just the way I want, but I'd like this resizing to occur immediately when the child resizes. I feebly attempted to fix this by adding a SizeChanged event handler that calls UpdateLayout() on the Accordion and AccordionItem, but this doesn't have any visual effect. I can't figure out where proper resizing takes place inside the Accordion control. Does anyone have an idea?

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• Extracting shell script from parameterised Hudson job

  - by Jonik

  I have a parameterised Hudson job, used for some AWS deployment stuff, which in one build step runs certain shell commands. However, that script has become sufficiently complicated that I want to "extract" it from Hudson to a separate script file, so that it can easily be versioned properly. The Hudson job would then simply update from VCS and execute the external script file. My main question is about passing parameters to the script. I have a Hudson parameter named AMI_ID and a few others. The script references those params as if they were environment variables: echo "Using AMI $AMI_ID and type $TYPE" Now, this works fine inside Hudson, but not if Hudson calls an external script. Could I somehow make Hudson set the params as environment variables so that I don't need to change the script? Or is my best option to alter the script to take command line parameters (and possibly assign those to named variables for readability: ami_id=$1; type=$2; ... )? I tried something like this but the script doesn't get correctly replaced values: export AMI_ID=$AMI_ID export TYPE=$TYPE external-script.sh # this tries to use e.g. $AMI_ID Bonus question: when the script is inside Hudson, the "console output" will contain both the executed commands and their output. This is extremely useful for debugging when something goes wrong with a build! For example, here the line starting with "+" is part of the script and the following line its output: + ec2-associate-address -K pk.pem -C cert.pem 77.125.116.139 -i i-aa3487fd ADDRESS 77.125.116.139 i-aa3487fd When calling an external script, Hudson output will only contain the latter line, making debugging harder. I could cat the script file to stdout before running it, but that's not optimal either. In effect, I'd like a kind of DOS-style "echo on" for the script which I'm calling from Hudson - anyone know a trick to achieve this?

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• C: 8x8 -> 16 bit multiply precision guaranteed by integer promotions?

  - by craig-blome

  I'm trying to figure out if the C Standard (C90, though I'm working off Derek Jones' annotated C99 book) guarantees that I will not lose precision multiplying two unsigned 8-bit values and storing to a 16-bit result. An example statement is as follows: unsigned char foo; unsigned int foo_u16 = foo * 10; Our Keil 8051 compiler (v7.50 at present) will generate a MUL AB instruction which stores the MSB in the B register and the LSB in the accumulator. If I cast foo to a unsigned int first: unsigned int foo_u16 = (unsigned int)foo * 10; then the compiler correctly decides I want a unsigned int there and generates an expensive call to a 16x16 bit integer multiply routine. I would like to argue beyond reasonable doubt that this defensive measure is not necessary. As I read the integer promotions described in 6.3.1.1, the effect of the first line shall be as if foo and 10 were promoted to unsigned int, the multiplication performed, and the result stored as unsigned int in foo_u16. If the compiler knows an instruction that does 8x8-16 bit multiplications without loss of precision, so much the better; but the precision is guaranteed. Am I reading this correctly? Best regards, Craig Blome

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• jQuery: change content of <option> elements

  - by piquadrat

  I have a select widget with a couple of AJAX enhancements. <select id="authors"> <option value="1">Foo Bar</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">Bar Baz</option> </select> Now, if the selected option changes, I want to change the "content" ("Foo Bar" and "Bar Baz" in the example). How can I do that with jQuery? I tried the following, but obviously, it doesn't work. $('#authors').change(function(){ $('#authors option[selected=selected]').html('new content'); }); /edit: to clarify, the selector '#authors option[selected=selected]' works fine, it selects the correct option DOM element. But .html('new content') does nothing. 2nd edit: OK, this is embarassing. I tried my code in Chrome's JavaScript console, where it didn't have any effect. After jAndy clearly demonstrated that it works in jsFiddle, I tried it in the FireBug console, and there it works. Lesson learned :-)

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• Simulating 3D 'cards' with just orthographic rendering

  - by meds

  I am rendering textured quads from an orthographic perspective and would like to simulate 'depth' by modifying UVs and the vertex positions of the quads four points (top left, top right, bottom left, bottom right). I've found if I make the top left and bottom right corners y position be the same I don't get a linear 'skew' but rather a warped one where the texture covering the top triangle (which makes up the quad) seems to get squashed while the bottom triangles texture looks normal. I can change UVs, any of the four points on the quad (but only in 2D space, it's orthographic projection anyway so 3D space won't matter much). So basically I'm trying to simulate perspective on a two dimensional quad in orthographic projection, any ideas? Is it even mathematically possible/feasible? ideally what I'd like is a situation where I can set an x/y rotation as well as a virtual z 'position' (which simulates z depth) through a function and see it internally calclate the positions/uvs to create the 3D effect. It seems like this should all be mathematical where a set of 2D transforms can be applied to each corner of the quad to simulate depth, I just don't know how to make it happen. I'd guess it requires trigonometry or something, I'm trying to crunch the math but not making much progress. here's what I mean: Top left is just the card, center is the card with a y rotation of X degrees and right most is a card with an x and y rotation of different degrees.

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• PNG Transparency Problems in IE8

  - by user138777

  I'm having problems with a transparent PNG image showing black dithered pixel artifacts around the edge of the non transparent part of the image. It only does this in Internet Explorer and it only does it from a Javascript file it is used in. Here's what I'm talking about... http://70.86.157.71/test/test3.htm (link now dead) ...notice the girl in the bottom right corner. She has artifacts around her in IE8 (I haven't tested it in previous versions of IE, but I'm assuming it probably does the same). It works perfectly in Firefox and Chrome. The image is loaded from a Javascript file to produce the mouseover effect. If you load the image all by itself, it works fine. Here's the image... http://70.86.157.71/test/consultant2.png Does anyone know how to fix this? The image was produced in Photoshop CS3. I've read things about removing the Gama, but that apparently was in previous versions of Photoshop and when I load it in TweakPNG, it doesn't have Gama. Please help!

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• Why am I having this InstantiationException in Java when accessing final local variables?

  - by Oscar Reyes

  I was playing with some code to make a "closure like" construct ( not working btw ) Everything looked fine but when I tried to access a final local variable in the code, the exception InstantiationException is thrown. If I remove the access to the local variable either by removing it altogether or by making it class attribute instead, no exception happens. The doc says: InstantiationException Thrown when an application tries to create an instance of a class using the newInstance method in class Class, but the specified class object cannot be instantiated. The instantiation can fail for a variety of reasons including but not limited to: - the class object represents an abstract class, an interface, an array class, a primitive type, or void - the class has no nullary constructor What other reason could have caused this problem? Here's the code. comment/uncomment the class attribute / local variable to see the effect (lines:5 and 10 ). import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; class InstantiationExceptionDemo { //static JTextField field = new JTextField();// works if uncommented public static void main( String [] args ) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); JButton button = new JButton("Click"); final JTextField field = new JTextField();// fails if uncommented button.addActionListener( new _(){{ System.out.println("click " + field.getText()); }}); frame.add( field ); frame.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH ); frame.pack();frame.setVisible( true ); } } class _ implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ){ try { this.getClass().newInstance(); } catch( InstantiationException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } catch( IllegalAccessException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } } } Is this a bug in Java? edit Oh, I forgot, the stacktrace ( when thrown ) is: Caused by: java.lang.InstantiationException: InstantiationExceptionDemo$1 at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:340) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:308) at _.actionPerformed(InstantiationExceptionDemo.java:25)

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• Close TCP connection when owner process is already killed

  - by Otiel

  I have a Windows service that - when it starts - opens some WCF services to listen on the 8000 port. It happens that this service crashes sometimes. When it does, the TCP connection is not released, thus causing my service to throw an exception if I try to start it again: AddressAlreadyInUseException: There is already a listener on IP endpoint 0.0.0.0:8000 Some observations: When running CurrPorts or netstat -ano, I can see that the 8000 port is still in use (in LISTENING state) and is owned by the Process ID XXX that corresponded to my service process ID. But my service has already crashed, and does not appear in the Task Manager anymore. Thus I can't kill the process to free the port! Of course, running taskkill /PID XXX returns: ERROR: The process "XXX" not found. When running CurrPorts or netstat -b, I can see that the process name involved in creating the listening port is System, and not as MyService.exe (whereas it is MyService.exe when my service is running). I tried to use CurrPorts to close the connection, but I always get the following error message: Failed to close one or more TCP connections. Be aware that you must run this tool as admin in order to close TCP connections. (Useless to say, I do run CurrPorts as Administrator...) TCPView is not much help either: the process name associated to the 8000 port is <non-existent>, and doing "End process" or "Close connection" has no effect. I tried to see if there was not a child process associated with the PID XXX using Process Explorer, but no luck here. If I close my service properly (before it crashes), the TCP connection is correctly released. This is normal, as I close the WCF service hosts in the OnStop() event of my service. The only way I found to release the connection is to restart the server (which is not convenient in a production environment as you can guess). Waiting does not help, the TCP connection is never released. How can I close the connection without restarting the Windows server? PS: found some questions extremely similar to mine.

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• Managing aesthetic code changes in git

  - by Ollie Saunders

  I find that I make a lot of small changes to my source code, often things that have almost no functional effect. For example: Refining or correcting comments. Moving function definitions within a class for a more natural reading order. Spacing and lining up some declarations for readability. Collapsing something using multiple lines on to one. Removing an old piece of commented-out code. Correcting some inconsistent whitespace. I guess I have a formidable attention to detail in my code. But the problem is I don't know what to do about these changes and they make it difficult to switch between branches etc. in git. I find myself not knowing whether to commit the minor changes, stash them, or put them in a separate branch of little tweaks and merge that in later. None those options seems ideal. The main problem is that these sort of changes are unpredictable. If I was to commit these there would be so many commits with the message "Minor code aesthetic change.", because, the second I make such a commit I notice another similar issue. What should I do when I make a minor change, a significant change, and then another minor change? I'd like to merge the three minor changes into one commit. It's also annoying seeing files as modified in git status when the change barely warrants my attention. I know about git commit --amend but I also know that's bad practice as it makes my repo inconsistent with remotes.

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• Rails running multiple delayed_job - lock tables

  - by pepernik

  Hey. I use delayed_job for background processing. I have 8 CPU server, MySQL and I start 7 delayed_job processes RAILS_ENV=production script/delayed_job -n 7 start Q1: I'm wondering is it possible that 2 or more delayed_job processes start processing the same process (the same record-row in the database delayed_jobs). I checked the code of the delayed_job plugin but can not find the lock directive in a way it should be. I think each process should lock the database table before executing an UPDATE on lock_by column. They lock the record simply by updating the locked_by field (UPDATE delayed_jobs SET locked_by...). Is that really enough? No locking needed? Why? I know that UPDATE has higher priority than SELECT but I think this does not have the effect in this case. My understanding of the multy-threaded situation is: Process1: Get waiting job X. [OK] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [OK] Process1: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process2: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process1: Get waiting job X. [Already processed] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [Already processed] I think in some cases more jobs can get the same information and can start processing the same process. Q2: Is 7 delayed_jobs a good number for 8CPU server? Why yes/not. Thx 10x!

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• BeginInvoke on ObservableCollection not immediate.

  - by Padu Merloti

  In my code I subscribe to an event that happens on a different thread. Every time this event happens, I receive an string that is posted to the observable collection: Dispatcher currentDispatcher = Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher; var SerialLog = new ObservableCollection<string>(); private void hitStation_RawCommandSent(object sender, StringEventArgs e) { string command = e.Value.Replace("\r\n", ""); Action dispatchAction = () => SerialLog.Add(command); currentDispatcher.BeginInvoke(dispatchAction, DispatcherPriority.Render); } The code below is in my view model (could be in the code behind, it doesn't matter in this case). When I call "hitstation.PrepareHit", the event above gets called a couple times, then I wait and call "hitStation.HitBall", and the event above gets called a couple more times. private void HitBall() { try { try { Mouse.OverrideCursor = Cursors.Wait; //prepare hit hitStation.PrepareHit(hitSpeed); Thread.Wait(1000); PlayWarning(); //hit hitStation.HitBall(hitSpeed); } catch (TimeoutException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Timeout hitting ball: " + ex.Message); } } finally { Mouse.OverrideCursor = null; } } The problem I'm having is that the ListBox that is bound to my SerialLog gets updated only when the HitBall method finishes. I was expecting seeing a bunch of updates from the PrepareHit, a pause and then a bunch more updates from the HitBall. I've tried a couple of DispatcherPriority arguments, but they don't seem to have any effect.

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• How do I get started designing and implementing a script interface for my .NET application?

  - by Peter Mortensen

  How do I get started designing and implementing a script interface for my .NET application? There is VSTA (the .NET equivalent of VBA for COM), but as far as I understand I would have to pay a license fee for every installation of my application. It is an open source application so this will not work. There is also e.g. the embedding of interpreters (IronPython?), but I don't understand how this would allow exposing an "object model" (see below) to external (or internal) scripts. What is the scripting interface story in .NET? Is it somehow trivial in .NET to do this? Background: I have once designed and implemented a fairly involved script interface for a Macintosh application for acquisition and analysis of data from a mass spectrometer (Mac OS, System 7) and later a COM interface for a Windows application. Both were designed with an "object model" and classes (that can have properties). These are overloaded words, but in a scripting interface context object model is essentially a containment hiarchy of objects of specific classes. Classes have properties and lists of contained objects. E.g. like in the COM interfaces exposed in Microsoft Office applications, where the application object can be used to add to its list of documents (with the side effect of creating the GUI representation of a document). External scripts can create new objects in a container and navigate through the content of the hiarchy at any given time. In the Macintosh case scripts could be written in e.g. AppleScript or Frontier. On the Macintosh the implementation of a scripting interface was very complicated. Support for it in Metroworks' C++ class library (the name escapes me right now) made it much simpler.

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• Do complex JOINs cause high coupling and maintenance problems ?

  - by ashkan.kh.nazary

  Our project has ~40 tables with complex relations.A colleague believes in using long join queries which enforces me to learn about tables outside of my module but I think I should not concern about tables not directly related to my module and use data access functions (written by those responsible for other modules) when I need data from them. Let me clarify: I am responsible for the ContactVendor module which enables the customers to contact the vendor and start a conversation about some specific product. Products module has it's own complex tables and relations with functions that encapsulate details (for example i18n, activation, product availability etc ...). Now I need to show the product title of some product related to some conversation between the vendor and customers. I may either write a long query that retrieves the product info along with conversation stuff in one shot (which enforces me to learn about Product tables) OR I may pass the relevant product_id to the get_product_info(int) function. First approach is obviously demanding and introduces many bad practices and things I normally consider fault in programming. The problem with the second approach seems to be the countless mini queries these access functions cause and performance loss is a concern when a loop tries to fetch product titles for 100 products using functions that each perform a separate query. So I'm stuck between "don't code to the implementation, code to interface" and performance. What is the right way of doing things ? UPDATE: I'm specially concerned about possible future modifications to those tables outside of my module. What if the Products module decided to change the way they are doing things? or for some reason modify the schema? It means some other modules would break or malfunction until the change is integrated to them. The usual ripple effect problem.

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• Replacing content with jquery.

  - by BillZ

  I am loading a movie into a overlay. My problem is that when I close the div overlay the movie continues to play. I do not control the code on the move side it is imported via a script tag which then opens in a iframe. I am able to remove the content of the of the div and then the movie stops playing. Then of course when the user opens the div again the movie is gone. My current thinking was that I could simply replace the script tag with one just like it but the outcome of that is that there is nothing there. I have been using jquery. Thanks -- script -- $(document).ready(function() { $("#closeModal2").click(function() { $("#movieContainer").html("<script src='http://www.accelacast.com/programs/launch.js'/>"); }); }); -- html -- <div id="movieContainer"> <script id="movieTag" language='JavaScript' src='http://www.accelacast.com/programs/launch.js'/> </div> On a side note. I tried replacing the src attribute of the script tag with no luck. I was able to replace the src of a image though. Is it not possible to effect the src attribute of script? Thanks

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• jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

  - by bdl

  I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

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• How to do parrallel processing in Unix Shell script?

  - by Bikram Agarwal

  I have a shell script that transfers a build.xml file to a remote unix machine (devrsp02) and executes the ANT task wldeploy on that machine (devrsp02). Now, this wldeploy task takes around 15 minutes to complete and while this is running, the last line at the unix console is - "task {some digit} initialized". Once this task is complete, we get a "task Completed" msg and the next task in the script is executed only after that. But sometimes, there might be a problem with the weblogic domain and the deployment might be failing internally, with no effect on the status of the wldeploy task. The unix console will still be stuck at "task {some digit} initialized". The error of the deployment will be getting logged in a file called output.a So, what I want now is - Start a time counter before running wldeploy. If the wldeploy runs for more than 15 minutes, the following command should be run - tail -f output.a ## without terminating the wldeploy or cat output.a ## after terminating the wldeploy forcefully Point to be noted here is - I can't run the wldeploy task in background, as in that case the user won't get to know when the task is complete, which is crucial for this script. Could you please suggest anything to achieve this?

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• Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

  - by thecoop

  Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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• How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously perform an immediate validation?

  - by Velika2

  When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your &lt;b&gt;Occupation&lt;/b&gt;" SetFocusOnError="True">&nbsp;Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

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• CALayer and Off-Screen Rendering

  - by Luke Mcneice

  I have a Paging UIScrollView with a contentSize large enough to hold a number of small UIScrollViews for zooming, The viewForZoomingInScrollView is a viewController that holds a CALayer for drawing a PDF page onto. This allows me to navigate through a PDF much like the ibooks PDF reader. The code that draws the PDF (Tiled Layers) is located in: - (void)drawLayer:(CALayer *)layer inContext:(CGContextRef)ctx; And simply adding a 'page' to the visible screen calls this method automatically. When I change page there is some delay before all the tiles are drawn, even though the object (page) has already been created. What i want to be able to do is render the next page before the user scrolls to it, thus preventing the visible tiling effect. However, i have found that if the layer is located offscreen adding it to the scrollview doesn't call the drawLayer. Any Ideas/common gotchas here? I have tried: [viewController.view.layer setNeedsLayout]; [viewController.view.layer setNeedsDisplay]; NB: The fact that this is replicating the ibooks functionally is irrelevant within the context of the full app.

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• Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

  - by Weeble

  In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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• The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

  - by Trev

  Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

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