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  • AudioQueue ate my buffer (first 15 milliseconds of it)

    - by iter
    I am generating audio programmatically. I hear gaps of silence between my buffers. When I hook my phone to a scope, I see that the first few samples of each buffer are missing, and in their place is silence. The length of this silence varies from almost nothing to as much as 20 ms. My first thought is that my original callback function takes too much time. I replace it with the shortest one possible--it re-renqueues the same buffer over and over. I observe the same behavior. AudioQueueRef aq; AudioQueueBufferRef aq_buffer; AudioStreamBasicDescription asbd; void aq_callback (void *aqData, AudioQueueRef inAQ, AudioQueueBufferRef inBuffer) { OSStatus s = AudioQueueEnqueueBuffer(aq, aq_buffer, 0, NULL); } void aq_init(void) { OSStatus s; asbd.mSampleRate = AUDIO_SAMPLES_PER_S; asbd.mFormatID = kAudioFormatLinearPCM; asbd.mFormatFlags = kLinearPCMFormatFlagIsSignedInteger | kAudioFormatFlagIsPacked; asbd.mBytesPerPacket = 1; asbd.mFramesPerPacket = 1; asbd.mBytesPerFrame = 1; asbd.mChannelsPerFrame = 1; asbd.mBitsPerChannel = 8; asbd.mReserved = 0; int PPM_PACKETS_PER_SECOND = 50; // one buffer is as long as one PPM frame int BUFFER_SIZE_BYTES = asbd.mSampleRate/PPM_PACKETS_PER_SECOND*asbd.mBytesPerFrame; s = AudioQueueNewOutput(&asbd, aq_callback, NULL, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopCommonModes, 0, &aq); s = AudioQueueAllocateBuffer(aq, BUFFER_SIZE_BYTES, &aq_buffer); // put samples in the buffer buffer_data(my_data, aq_buffer); s = AudioQueueStart(aq, NULL); s = AudioQueueEnqueueBuffer(aq, aq_buffer, 0, NULL); }

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  • End-to-end kerberos delegated authentication in ASP.NET

    - by Erlend
    I'm trying to setup an internal website that will contact another backend service within the network on behalf of the user using a HttpWebRequest. I have to use Integrated Windows Authentication on the ASP.NET application as the backend system only supports this type of authentication. I'm able to setup IWA on the ASP.NET application, and it's using kerberos as I expect it to. However when the authentication is delegated to the backend system it doesn't work anymore. This is because the backend system only supports kerberos IWA, but the delegation for some reason - even though the incoming request is kerberos authenticated - converts the authentication to NTLM before forwaring to the backend system. Does anybody know what I need to do on the ASP.NET application in order to allow it to forward the identity using kerberos? I've currently tried the followin but it doesn't seem to work CredentialCache credentialCache = new CredentialCache(); credentialCache.Add(request.RequestUri, "Negotiate", CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials.GetCredential(request.RequestUri, "Kerberos")); request.Credentials = credentialCache; I've also tried to set "Kerberos" where it now says "Negotiate", but it doesn't seem to do much.

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  • Establishing Upper / Lower Bound in T-SQL Procedure

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to establish upper / lower bound in my stored procedure below and am having some problems at the end (I am getting no results where, without the temp table inner join i get the expected results). I need some help where I am trying to join the columns in my temp table #PageIndexForUsers to the rest of my join statement and I am mucking something up with this statement: INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) I could use feedback at this point - and, any advice on how to improve my procedure's logic (if you see anything else that needs improvement) is also appreciated. Thanks in advance... ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.wb_Membership_GetAllUsers @ApplicationName nvarchar(256), @sortOrderId smallint = 0, @PageIndex int, @PageSize int AS BEGIN DECLARE @ApplicationId uniqueidentifier SELECT @ApplicationId = NULL SELECT @ApplicationId = ApplicationId FROM dbo.aspnet_Applications WHERE LOWER(@ApplicationName) = LoweredApplicationName IF (@ApplicationId IS NULL) RETURN 0 -- Set the page bounds DECLARE @PageLowerBound int DECLARE @PageUpperBound int DECLARE @TotalRecords int SET @PageLowerBound = @PageSize * @PageIndex SET @PageUpperBound = @PageSize - 1 + @PageLowerBound BEGIN TRY -- Create a temp table TO store the select results CREATE TABLE #PageIndexForUsers ( IndexId int IDENTITY (0, 1) NOT NULL, UserId uniqueidentifier ) -- Insert into our temp table INSERT INTO #PageIndexForUsers (UserId) SELECT u.UserId FROM dbo.aspnet_Membership m, dbo.aspnet_Users u WHERE u.ApplicationId = @ApplicationId AND u.UserId = m.UserId ORDER BY u.UserName SELECT @TotalRecords = @@ROWCOUNT SELECT dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid, dbo.wb_ProfileData.firstname, dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname, dbo.wb_Email.emailaddress, dbo.wb_Email.isconfirmed, dbo.wb_Email.emaildomain, dbo.wb_Address.streetname, dbo.wb_Address.cityorprovince, dbo.wb_Address.state, dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip, dbo.wb_Address.country, dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype,dbo.wb_ProfileData.birthday, dbo.wb_ProfileData.gender, dbo.wb_Session.sessionid, dbo.wb_Session.lastactivitydate, dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid, dbo.aspnet_Membership.password, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordquestion, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordanswer, dbo.aspnet_Membership.createdate FROM dbo.wb_Profiles INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileAddress ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.profileid AND dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype = 'home' ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Address ON dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addressid = dbo.wb_Address.addressid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileData ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileData.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Email ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Email.profileid AND dbo.wb_Email.isprimary = 1 ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Session ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Session.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Membership ON dbo.wb_Profiles.userid = dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Users ON dbo.aspnet_Membership.UserId = dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Applications ON dbo.aspnet_Users.ApplicationId = dbo.aspnet_Applications.ApplicationId INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) ORDER BY CASE @sortOrderId WHEN 1 THEN dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname WHEN 2 THEN dbo.wb_Profiles.username WHEN 3 THEN dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip WHEN 4 THEN dbo.wb_Address.state END END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @@TRANCOUNT > 0 ROLLBACK TRAN EXEC wb_ErrorHandler RETURN 55555 END CATCH RETURN @TotalRecords END GO

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  • Calling a Stored Procedure using C# with XML Datatype

    - by Lakeshore
    I am simply trying to call a store procedure (SQL Server 2008) using C# and passing XMLDocument to a store procedure parameter that takes a SqlDbType.Xml data type. I am getting error: Failed to convert parameter value from a XmlDocument to a String. Below is code sample. How do you pass an XML Document to a store procedure that is expecting an XML datatype? Thanks. XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); //Load the the document with the last book node. XmlTextReader reader = new XmlTextReader(@"C:\temp\" + uploadFileName); reader.Read(); // load reader doc.Load(reader); connection.Open(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("UploadXMLDoc", connection); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.Add("@Year", SqlDbType.Int); cmd.Parameters["@Year"].Value = iYear; cmd.Parameters.Add("@Quarter", SqlDbType.Int); cmd.Parameters["@Quarter"].Value = iQuarter; cmd.Parameters.Add("@CompanyID", SqlDbType.Int); cmd.Parameters["@CompanyID"].Value = iOrganizationID; cmd.Parameters.Add("@FileType", SqlDbType.VarChar); cmd.Parameters["@FileType"].Value = "Replace"; cmd.Parameters.Add("@FileContent", SqlDbType.Xml); cmd.Parameters["@FileContent"].Value = doc; cmd.Parameters.Add("@FileName", SqlDbType.VarChar); cmd.Parameters["@FileName"].Value = uploadFileName; cmd.Parameters.Add("@Description", SqlDbType.VarChar); cmd.Parameters["@Description"].Value = lblDocDesc.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@Success", SqlDbType.Bit); cmd.Parameters["@Success"].Value = false; cmd.Parameters.Add("@AddBy", SqlDbType.VarChar); cmd.Parameters["@AddBy"].Value = Page.User.Identity.Name; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); connection.Close();

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  • Websphere logs report {0} File not found, but application continues to work without issues

    - by Eric
    A websphere 6.1 server is running a struts application that seems to be working fine. In the logs, however, I'm seeing the following error message, which is being continually emailed to the support staff. com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebAppErrorReport: SRVE0190E: File not found: {0} at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebAppDispatcherContext.sendError(WebAppDispatcherContext.java:536) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.srt.SRTServletResponse.sendError(SRTServletResponse.java:930) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.extension.DefaultExtensionProcessor.handleRequest(DefaultExtensionProcessor.java:524) at com.ibm.ws.wswebcontainer.extension.DefaultExtensionProcessor.handleRequest(DefaultExtensionProcessor.java:111) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebApp.handleRequest(WebApp.java:3129) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebGroup.handleRequest(WebGroup.java:238) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.WebContainer.handleRequest(WebContainer.java:811) at com.ibm.ws.wswebcontainer.WebContainer.handleRequest(WebContainer.java:1433) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.channel.WCChannelLink.ready(WCChannelLink.java:93) I can narrow down the issue to a single Action and JSP, which are too big to show here, but here's the action definition in struts-config.xml: <action path="/HappyDefaultThing" name="HappyDefaultThingActionForm" type="com.foo.webadministration.action.HappyDefaultThingAction" validate="true" input="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp" scope="session"> <forward name="success" path="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp"/> <forward name="failure" path="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp"/> </action> As far as I can see, nothing is missing, and everything necessary is being found, but the logs say "File not found: {0}" What is "{0}"?? The stack trace only shows IBMs code, which I can't see the source of, and therefore can't trace. Is this a bug in the websphere code? I'd appreciate any help.

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  • Can the same ssh key be used to access two different users on the same server?

    - by Nick
    I have an new ubuntu (hardy 8.04) server, it has two users, User1 and User2. User1 is listed in sudoers. I appended my public ssh key to authorized_keys in /home/user1/.ssh/authorized_keys, changed the permissions on user1/.ssh/ to 700 and user1/.ssh/authorized_keys to 600 and both file and folder are owned my User1. Then added I User1 to sshd_config (AllowUsers User1). This works and I can login into User1 debug1: Offering public key: /Users/nick/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Server accepts key: pkalg ssh-rsa blen 277 debug1: Authentication succeeded (publickey). debug1: channel 0: new [client-session] debug1: Entering interactive session. Last login: Mon Mar 15 09:51:01 2010 from 86.141.61.197 I then copied the authorized_keys file to /home/user2/.shh/ and changed the permissions and ownership and added User2 to AllowUsers in sshd_config (AllowUsers User1 User2). Now when I try to login to User2 it will not authenticate the same public key. debug1: Offering public key: /Users/nick/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /Users/nick/.ssh/identity debug1: Trying private key: /Users/nick/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). Am I missing something fundamental about the way ssh works? Thanks in advance, Nick

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  • MDX equivalent to SQL subqueries with aggregation

    - by James Lampe
    I'm new to MDX and trying to solve the following problem. Investigated calculated members, subselects, scope statements, etc but can't quite get it to do what I want. Let's say I'm trying to come up with the MDX equivalent to the following SQL query: SELECT SUM(netMarketValue) net, SUM(CASE WHEN netMarketValue > 0 THEN netMarketValue ELSE 0 END) assets, SUM(CASE WHEN netMarketValue < 0 THEN netMarketValue ELSE 0 END) liabilities, SUM(ABS(netMarketValue)) gross someEntity1 FROM ( SELECT SUM(marketValue) netMarketValue, someEntity1, someEntity2 FROM <some set of tables> GROUP BY someEntity1, someEntity2) t GROUP BY someEntity1 In other words, I have an account ledger where I hide internal offsetting transactions (within someEntity2), then calculate assets & liabilities after aggregating them by someEntity2. Then I want to see the grand total of those assets & liabilities aggregated by the bigger entity, someEntity1. In my MDX schema I'd presumably have a cube with dimensions for someEntity1 & someEntity2, and marketValue would be my fact table/measure. I suppose i could create another DSV that did what my subquery does (calculating net), and simply create a cube with that as my measure dimension, but I wonder if there is a better way. I'd rather not have 2 cubes (one for these net calculations and another to go to a lower level of granularity for other use cases), since it will be a lot of duplicate info in my database. These will be very large cubes.

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  • How to group strings by prefix

    - by namenlos
    I am writing a Winform UI in which the user must select a single customer. (For reasons beyond my control I am limited to a UI that uses dropdown lists, text fields, checkboxes, radiobuttons only -i.e. no fancy special UI controls) The situation There are a lot of customers (a thousand for example) If i put all the customers in a single dropdown there's no way it will be easy for a customer to even see all the customers. Also the it will take too long to retireve all the customers from the DB to populate the dropdown My thought is to have two combo box, the first lists groups of the customers by their last name something like a phone book "Aa-Ac", "Ad-Ade", "Adf-B", when selecting the first combo box, it scope the second one to a managable set customer names (no more than for example 40 names) The question I need a reasonable way of grouping their names such that it will be clear to customer which group contains the name. I.e. given a group of names I need to bucketize then int "Aa-Ac". Comments I don't need to solve the general problem of an immense number of names - we know based on our data that 1000 names is the max our users will encounter. If there are other techniques please do share, but I am interested specifically in an answer to my specific question around how to determine the buckets ("Aa-Ac", etc.)

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  • Nested multithread operations tracing

    - by Sinix
    I've a code alike void ExecuteTraced(Action a, string message) { TraceOpStart(message); a(); TraceOpEnd(message); } The callback (a) could call ExecuteTraced again, and, in some cases, asynchronously (via ThreadPool, BeginInvoke, PLINQ etc, so I've no ability to explicitly mark operation scope). I want to trace all operation nested (even if they perform asynchronously). So, I need the ability to get last traced operation inside logical call context (there may be a lot of concurrent threads, so it's impossible to use lastTraced static field). There're CallContext.LogicalGetData and CallContext.LogicalSetData, but unfortunately, LogicalCallContext propagates changes back to the parent context as EndInvoke() called. Even worse, this may occure at any moment if EndInvoke() was called async. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/883486/endinvoke-changes-current-callcontext-why Also, there is Trace.CorrelationManager, but it based on CallContext and have all the same troubles. There's a workaround: use the CallContext.HostContext property which does not propagates back as async operation ended. Also, it does'nt clone, so the value should be immutable - not a problem. Though, it's used by HttpContext and so, workaround is not usable in Asp.Net apps. The only way I see is to wrap HostContext (if not mine) or entire LogicalCallContext into dynamic and dispatch all calls beside last traced operation. Help, please!

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  • How to persist changes in a .settings/.config file across a file version change?

    - by CuriousCoder
    I have created an application that uses settings.settings to store some user specific settings (scope=User). Settings are loaded correctly on startup, changed during use and saved correctly for next launch. This cycle appears to have no problems. The problem arises when I update the assembly and file versions for a new build. The settings are no longer loaded on startup (instead the default values are used). It also appears that a config file saved from version 1.1 will persist even if version 1.2 is launched and a NEW config file is generated and saved too (i.e. you can relaunch version 1.1 and the config file will be the config file that was saved from that version). So it appears that the settings are specific to the version of the assembly and/or file. It is also worth noting that between version 1.1 and version 1.2 there were no changes to the settings.settings file or anything else for that matter (i.e. the only change I made between these different builds was modifying the version numbers). Is there a way to persist these settings across version changes?

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  • Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

    - by Rob
    I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

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  • How do I securely authenticate the calling assembly of a WCF service method?

    - by Tim
    The current situation is as follows: We have an production .net 3.5 WCF service, used by several applications throughout the organization, over wsHttpBinding or netTcpBinding. User authentication is being done on the Transport level, using Windows integrated security. This service has a method Foo(string parameter), which can only be called by members of given AD groups. The string parameter is obligatory. A new client application has come into play (.net 3.5, C# console app), which eliminates the necessity of the string parameter. However, only calls from this particular application should be allowed to omit the string parameter. The identity of the caller of the client application should still be known by the server because the AD group limitation still applies (ruling out impersonation on the client side). I found a way to pass on the "evidence" of the calling (strong-named) assembly in the message headers, but this method is clearly not secure because the "evidence" can easily be spoofed. Also, CAS (code access security) seems like a possible solution, but I can't seem to figure out how to make use of CAS in this particular scenario. Does anyone have a suggestion on how to solve this issue? Edit: I found another thread on this subject; apparently the conclusion there is that it is simply impossible to implement in a secure fashion.

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  • Using IsolatedStorage on a IIS server

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am a bit confusing about the use of Isolated Storage on an IIS server. I understand the goal of Isolated Storage : provides a safe place to store data with no worry about how and where is this place. Since Isolated Storage has a by-user and by-assembly approach, I'am not to wild about using it on a IIS server where applications have almost their own identity. I haven't really seen the interest of impersonating a web application and almost never seen impersonated web applications myself but this is my point of view. Using Isolated Storage on a server mean : Using Isolated stores in \Documents and Settings\<user>\ Which mean \Documents and Settings\Default User\ when the application pool is owned by Local System or Network Services I guess Which also mean Write rights on this folder for Local System or Network Services Using of impersonation Regarding a web application (logic), these ideas are confusing me... Document and Settings ? Default User ? Enable impersonation just for storage ? No control about storage on server ? Uh ? And then I'am a front of a dilema : use System.IO.Packaging (with Isolated Storage inside) on web applications or find an alternative ? Am I wrong in my approach ? Did I miss something ? Any point of view is appreciated and an explanation about the Isolated Storage with IIS philosophy could be an anwser. Thanks !

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  • Using cellUpdateEvent with YUI DataTable and JSON DataSource

    - by Rob Hruska
    I'm working with a UI that has a (YUI2) JSON DataSource that's being used to populate a DataTable. What I would like to do is, when a value in the table gets updated, perform a simple animation on the cell whose value changed. Here are some relevant snippets of code: var columns = [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ]; var dataSource = new YAHOO.util.DataSource('/someUrl'); dataSource.responseType = YAHOO.util.DataSource.TYPE_JSON; dataSource.connXhrMode = 'queueRequests'; dataSource.responseSchema = { resultsList: 'results', fields: [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ] }; var dataTable = new YAHOO.widget.DataTable('container', columns, dataSource); var callback = function() { success: dataTable.onDataReturnReplaceRows, failure: function() { // error handling code }, scope: dataTable }; dataSource.setInterval(1000, null, callback); And here's what I'd like to do with it: dataTable.subscribe('cellUpdateEvent', function(record, column, oldData) { var td = dataTable.getTdEl({record: record, column: column}); YAHOO.util.Dom.setStyle(td, 'backgroundColor', '#ffff00'); var animation = new YAHOO.util.ColorAnim(td, { backgroundColor: { to: '#ffffff'; } }); animation.animate(); }; However, it doesn't seem like using cellUpdateEvent works. Does a cell that's updated as a result of the setInterval callback even fire a cellUpdateEvent? It may be that I don't fully understand what's going on under the hood with DataTable. Perhaps the whole table is being redrawn every time the data is queried, so it doesn't know or care about changes to individual cells?. Is the solution to write my own specific function to replace onDataReturnReplaceRows? Could someone enlighten me on how I might go about accomplishing this? Edit: After digging through datatable-debug.js, it looks like onDataReturnReplaceRows won't fire the cellUpdateEvent. It calls reset() on the RecordSet that's backing the DataTable, which deletes all of the rows; it then re-populates the table with fresh data. I tried changing it to use onDataReturnUpdateRows, but that doesn't seem to work either.

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  • UISearchDisplayController not working when created in code??

    - by Nick Bedford
    I'm working on a tab bar application and one of the tabs has a UISearchDisplayController hooked up to a UISearchBar. It's all connected up in the NIB and is working. When I tap the search bar, the Scope and Cancel buttons fly in etc, and the search delegate updates the results table correctly. However, I'm trying to implement the same code in the viewDidLoad message instead of the NIB, however when I delete the search display controller from the NIB and uncomment my code to create the same controller in the function, it doesn't work. It's as if there's some fundamental connection not being made so that all my search delegate functionality isn't being called. Here's my working NIB version of the Search Display Controller. It's hooked up to the search bar, the UINavigationController subclass (MASearchController) and the root view of that is hooked up as the searchContentsController. Now this is what you would expect to do in code to create the same, right? What I'm doing is leaving the UISearchBar in the NIB to eliminate one piece of the puzzle at a time in code. // [MASearchController viewDidLoad] UISearchDisplayController *searchController = [[[UISearchDisplayController alloc] initWithSearchBar:searchBar contentsController:[[self viewControllers] objectAtIndex:0]] autorelease]; [searchController setDelegate:self]; [searchController setSearchResultsDelegate:self]; [searchController setSearchResultsDataSource:self]; I've checked all objects at run time and they all check out. Essentially I've deleted the search display controller from the NIB and then put in the code to create it in the viewDidLoad message. Why would this not work? The search keyboard comes up but none of my search and button animation functionality work???

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  • JPA ManyToMany referencing issue

    - by dharga
    I have three tables. AvailableOptions and PlanTypeRef with a ManyToMany association table called AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc. The trimmed down schemas look like this CREATE TABLE [dbo].[AvailableOptions]( [SourceApplication] [char](8) NOT NULL, [OptionId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, ... ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc]( [SourceApplication] [char](8) NOT NULL, [OptionId] [int] NOT NULL, [PlanTypeCd] [char](2) NOT NULL, ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PlanTypeRef]( [PlanTypeCd] [char](2) NOT NULL, [PlanTypeDesc] [varchar](32) NOT NULL, ) And the Java code looks like this. //AvailableOption.java @ManyToMany(cascade={CascadeType.ALL}, fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name = "AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "OptionId"), @JoinColumn(name="SourceApplication")}, inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="PlanTypeCd")) List<PlanType> planTypes = new ArrayList<PlanType>(); //PlanType.java @ManyToMany @JoinTable( name = "AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "PlanTypeCd")}, inverseJoinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="OptionId"), @JoinColumn(name="SourceApplication")}) List<AvailableOption> options = new ArrayList<AvailableOption>(); The problem arises when making a select on AvailableOptions it joins back onto itself. Note the following SQL code from the backtrace. The second inner join should be on PlanTypeRef. SELECT t0.OptionId, t0.SourceApplication, t2.PlanTypeCd, t2.EffectiveDate, t2.PlanTypeDesc, t2.SysLstTrxDtm, t2.SysLstUpdtUserId, t2.TermDate FROM dbo.AvailableOptions t0 INNER JOIN dbo.AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc t1 ON t0.OptionId = t1.OptionId AND t0.SourceApplication = t1.SourceApplication INNER JOIN dbo.AvailableOptions t2 ON t1.PlanTypeCd = t2.PlanTypeCd WHERE (t0.SourceApplication = ? AND t0.OptionType = ?) ORDER BY t0.OptionId ASC, t0.SourceApplication ASC [params=(String) testApp, (String) junit0]}

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  • How can I get WWW-Mechanize to login to Wells Fargo's website?

    - by J Miller
    I am trying to use Perl's WWW::Mechanize to login to my bank and pull transaction information. After logging in through a browser to my bank (Wells Fargo), it briefly displays a temporary web page saying something along the lines of "please wait while we verify your identity". After a few seconds it proceeds to the bank's webpage where I can get my bank data. The only difference is that the URL contains several more "GET" parameters appended to the URL of the temporary page, which only had a sessionID parameter. I was able to successfully get WWW::Mechanize to login from the login page, but it gets stuck on the temporary page. There is a <meta http-equiv="Refresh"... tag in the header, so I tried $mech->follow_meta_redirect but it didn't get me past that temporary page either. Any help to get past this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Here is the barebones code that gets me stuck at the temporary page: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use WWW::Mechanize; my $mech = WWW::Mechanize->new(); $mech->agent_alias( 'Linux Mozilla' ); $mech->get( "https://www.wellsfargo.com" ); $mech->submit_form( form_number => 2, fields => { userid => "$userid", password => "$password" }, button => "btnSignon" );

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  • IoC and dataContext disposing in asp.net mvc 2 application

    - by zerkms
    I have the Global.asax like the code below: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { // .... } protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(typeof(IOCControllerFactory)); } } public class IOCControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private readonly IKernel kernel; public IOCControllerFactory() { kernel = new StandardKernel(new NanocrmContainer()); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var controller = kernel.TryGet(controllerType) as IController; if (controller == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var standartController = controller as Controller; if (standartController is IIoCController) ((IIoCController)standartController).SetIoc(kernel); return standartController; } class NanocrmContainer : Ninject.Modules.NinjectModule { public override void Load() { // ... Bind<DomainModel.Entities.db>().ToSelf().InRequestScope().WithConstructorArgument("connection", "Data Source=lims;Initial Catalog=nanocrm;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=***;Password=***"); } } } In this case if somewhere it is the class, defined like: public class UserRepository : IUserRepository { private db dataContext; private IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository; public UserRepository(db dataContext, IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository) { this.dataContext = dataContext; this.userGroupRepository = userGroupRepository; } } then the dataContext instance is created (if no one was created in this request scope) by Ninject. So the trouble now is - where to invoke dataContext method .Dispose()?

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  • WWW::Mechanize trouble with meta refresh from bank login

    - by J Miller
    I am trying to use perl's WWW::Mechanize to login to my bank and pull transaction information. After logging in through a browser to my bank (Wells Fargo), it briefly displays a temporary web page saying something along the lines of "please wait while we verify your identity". After a few seconds it proceeds to the bank's webpage where I can get my bank data. The only difference is that the URL contains several more "GET" parameters appended to the URL of the temporary page, which only had a sessionID parameter. I was able to successfully get WWW::Mechanize to login from the login page, but it gets stuck on the temporary page. There is a <meta http-equiv="Refresh"... tag in the header, so I tried $mech->follow_meta_redirect but it didn't get me past that temporary page either. Any help to get past this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Here is the barebones code that gets me stuck at the temporary page: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use WWW::Mechanize; my $mech = WWW::Mechanize->new(); $mech->agent_alias( 'Linux Mozilla' ); $mech->get( "https://www.wellsfargo.com" ); $mech->submit_form( form_number => 2, fields => { userid => "$userid", password => "$password" }, button => "btnSignon" );

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  • IIS as proxy to rails/mongrel - force a proxied host to generate REMOTE_USER

    - by rbn
    Hello -- Using Application Request Routing I have IIS 7.5 set up as a reverse proxy to a Mongrel service which is serving a rails app. IIS is set up to use Windows Auth and is working but I cannot access the REMOTE_USER variable in the rails app to get at current user's identity. I have inspected the request object in rails and I don't have any other variables like LOGON_USER, HTTP_REMOTE_USER, AUTH_USER, etc. I am trying to find a way to inject the REMOTE_USER variable into Mongrel's server variables. This post describes what I am looking for using mod_rewrite on Apache but I am having trouble recreating this rule for iis. this is the rewrite rule from the post mentioned above for Apache RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{LA-U:REMOTE_USER} (.+) RewriteRule . - [E=RU:%1] Header add X-Forwarded-User %{RU}e I tried reproducing the rule in IIS and got a URL Rewrite Module error ("The condition's expression "%{LA-U:REMOTE_USER}" is invalid."). I know I'm probably using Apache syntax where IIS syntax is needed but am not sure how to proceed at this point. Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Cascading Deletes in SQL Sever 2008 not working.

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following table setup. Bag | +-> BagID (Guid) +-> BagNumber (Int) BagCommentRelation | +-> BagID (Int) +-> CommentID (Guid) BagComment | +-> CommentID (Guid) +-> Text (varchar(200)) BagCommentRelation has Foreign Keys to Bag and BagComment. So, I turned on cascading deletes for both those Foreign Keys, but when I delete a bag, it does not delete the Comment row. Do need to break out a trigger for this? Or am I missing something? (I am using SQL Server 2008) Note: Posting requested SQL. This is the defintion of the BagCommentRelation table. (I had the type of the bagID wrong (I thought it was a guid but it is an int).) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [BagId] [int] NOT NULL, [Sequence] [int] NOT NULL, [CommentId] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Bag_CommentRelation] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [BagId] ASC, [Sequence] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] FOREIGN KEY([BagId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Bag] ([Id]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] FOREIGN KEY([CommentId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Comment] ([CommentId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] GO The row in this table deletes but the row in the comment table does not.

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  • rails search nested set (categories and sub categories)

    - by bob
    Hello, I am using the http://github.com/collectiveidea/awesome_nested_set awesome nested set plugin and currently, if I choose a sub category as my category_id for an item, I can not search by its parent. Category.parent Category.Child I choose Category.child as the category that my item is in. So now my item has category_id of 4 stored in it. If I go to a page in my rails application, lets say teh Category page and I am on the Category.parent's page, I want to show products that have category_id's of all the descendants as well. So ideally i want to have a find method that can take into account the descendants. You can get the descendants of a root by calling root.descendants (a built in plugin method). How would I go about making it so I can query a find that gets the descendants of a root instead of what its doing now which is binging up nothing unless the product had a specific category_id of the Category.parent. I hope I am being clear here. I either need to figure out a way to create a find method or named_scope that can query and return an array of objects that have id's corresponding tot he descendants of a root OR if I have any other options, what are they? I thought about creating a field in my products table like parent_id which can keep track of the parent so i can then create two named scopes one finding the parent stuff and one finding the child stuff and chaining them. I know I can create a named scope for each child and chain them together for multiple children but this seems a very tedious process and also, if you add more children, you would need to specify more named scopes.

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  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

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  • Experience migrating legacy Cobol/PL1 to Java

    - by MadMurf
    ORIGINAL Q: I'm wondering if anyone has had experience of migrating a large Cobol/PL1 codebase to Java? How automated was the process and how maintainable was the output? How did the move from transactional to OO work out? Any lessons learned along the way or resources/white papers that may be of benefit would be appreciated. EDIT 7/7: Certainly the NACA approach is interesting, the ability to continue making your BAU changes to the COBOL code right up to the point of releasing the JAVA version has merit for any organization. The argument for procedural Java in the same layout as the COBOL to give the coders a sense of comfort while familiarizing with the Java language is a valid argument for a large organisation with a large code base. As @Didier points out the $3mil annual saving gives scope for generous padding on any BAU changes going forward to refactor the code on an ongoing basis. As he puts it if you care about your people you find a way to keep them happy while gradually challenging them. The problem as I see it with the suggestion from @duffymo to Best to try and really understand the problem at its roots and re-express it as an object-oriented system is that if you have any BAU changes ongoing then during the LONG project lifetime of coding your new OO system you end up coding & testing changes on the double. That is a major benefit of the NACA approach. I've had some experience of migrating Client-Server applications to a web implementation and this was one of the major issues we encountered, constantly shifting requirements due to BAU changes. It made PM & scheduling a real challenge. Thanks to @hhafez who's experience is nicely put as "similar but slightly different" and has had a reasonably satisfactory experience of an automatic code migration from Ada to Java. Thanks @Didier for contributing, I'm still studying your approach and if I have any Q's I'll drop you a line.

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  • How to limit speed with BMW JSDK on 116i?

    - by lexicore
    I'm experimenting with the BMW Java SDK on the new BMW 116i Innovation Package. Basic things like turning the lights on and off, starting and stopping the motor work fine. What I'm trying to do now is that to write a carlet which would limit the speed to the maximum configured in the driver profile. Driver identity will be detected as usual via RFID reader. My problem is that though I can read the speed from the tachometer, I can't really limit the speed. Here's what I've got working so far: public class SpeenControllingCarlet extends GenericCarlet { public void start(final VehicleModel model) throws CarletException { RfidReader rfidReader = (RfidReader) model .getDevice(Devices.DRIVER_RFID_READER); Rfid rfid = rfidReader.getRfid(); DriverProfile driverProfile = model.getDriverProfileRegistry() .getDriverProfile(rfid.toString()); if (driverProfile == null) { return; } final Double maxAllowedSpeed = Double.valueOf(driverProfile .getCustomAttribute("maxAllowedSpeed", "190")); Tachometer tachometer = (Tachometer) mode.getDevice(Devices.TACHOMETER); tachometer.addSpeedListener(new SpeedListener() { public void onSpeedChanged(SpeedChangedEvent speedChangedEvent) { if (speedChangedEvent.getCurrentSpeed() > maxAllowedSpeed) { Horn horn = (Horn) mode.getDevice(Devices.HORN); horn.beep(440, 2000); } } }); } } This will just beep for two seconds if the driver goes faster than the driver profile allows. My question is - is there a possibility to actually limit the speed (not just silly beeping)?

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