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  • CI+JQuery+Ajax problem

    - by Sadat
    Calling the ajax called URL works well without ajax eg. http://localhost/ci/controller/method/param_value. But using ajax it doesnt work. Following are the code segment, i have just started with JQuery+Ajax with CI. Here is my controller: <?php class BaseController extends Controller{ public function BaseController(){ parent::Controller(); $this->load->helper('url'); } function index(){ $this->load->view('header'); $this->load->view('body'); $this->load->view('footer'); } function ajaxTest($testData=""){ $this->load->view('ajaxtest',array('test_data'=>$testData)); } } ? Here is View <?php echo $test_data; ? Ajax Call Function function testAjaxCall(){ $.get( base_url+'basecontroller/ajaxtest/test-value', function(responseData) { $("#test-div").html(responseData); } ); } Ajax Calling Page(button) <div id="test-div"></div><input type="button" onclick="testAjaxCall()" name="ajax-test" value="Test Ajax" /> JS base_url declaration <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url();?>js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url();?>js/application-ajax-call.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> /* to make ajax call easy */ base_url = '<?php echo base_url();?>'; </script>

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  • Problems in getting data from CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost

    - by gkedmi
    Hi I'm building an iPhoe app with a socket to a PC app , I need to get an image from this PC app. It's my first time using "CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost".After I establish the socket with "NSOperation" I call CFStreamClientContext streamContext = {0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL}; BOOL success = CFReadStreamSetClient(myReadStream, kMyNetworkEvents,MyStreamCallBack,&streamContext); CFReadStreamScheduleWithRunLoop(myReadStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); then I call CFWriteStreamWrite(myWriteStream, &writeBuffer, 3); // Open read stream. if (!CFReadStreamOpen(myReadStream)) { // Notify error } . . . while(!cancelled && !finished) { SInt32 result = CFRunLoopRunInMode(kCFRunLoopDefaultMode, 0.25, NO); if (result == kCFRunLoopRunStopped || result == kCFRunLoopRunFinished) { break; } if (([NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - _lastRead) MyConnectionTimeout) { // Call timed out cancelled = YES; break; } // Also handle stream status CFStreamStatus status = CFReadStreamGetStatus(myReadStream); } and then when I get "kCFStreamEventHasBytesAvailable" I use while (CFReadStreamHasBytesAvailable(myReadStream)) { CFReadStreamRead(myReadStream, readBuffer, 1000); //and buffer the the bytes } It's unpredictable , sometimes I get the whole picture , sometime I got just part of it , and I can't understand what make the different. can someone has an idea what is wrong here? thanks

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  • Loading the target of a link in a <DIV> via jQuery's .live event into the same <DIV>??

    - by Martin Pescador
    Hello together I call a certain div from another page with jquery to be loaded into a div on my main page like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $("#scotland").load("http://www.example.com/scotland .gallery"); </script> <div id="scotland"></div> The div I call is a piece of code which is automatically generated by a CMS made simple module, by the way. Now it comes to my problem: The .gallery div I call, looks, a little simplified, like this: <div class="gallery"> <span><img src="http://www.example.com/scotlandimage1.jpg"></span> <span class="imgnavi"><a href="link_to_next_page_with_one_image">Next image</href></span> </div> I want the "next image"-link to load the next page into the .gallery div (it is always a page with one image on it). But what it does, is, it opens the new page http://www.example.com/scotland only. I tried to use jquerys .live event to load the linked page (that would be "scotlandimage2" and the navigation, as you can see in the upper part - not only the image!), but I must have done something wrong. I tried different ways, but never got it to work. This was my last try: $(".imgnavi a").click(function() { var myUrl = $(this).attr("href"); $(".gallery").load(myUrl); return false; }); I have to admit that I am very new to jquery... But does someone know what I did wrong (do I even follow the right handlers?)? Thanks very much in advance! Martin

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  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • (ASP.NET) Problem with a repeater nested in a repeater, how to know when it is a itemCommand?

    - by NoProblemBabe
    I have the following problem: Keeping in mind the following structure: <repeater> <updatepanel> <div> <link id="fatherLink" /> </div> <div> <repeater> <link id="childLink"/> </repeater> <div> </updatepanel> </repeater> right? I am using updatepanel, so, when i click in the fatherlink, i put a click method in the server side, so it populates it's child repeater. no problems in there, but I need that the childLink to perform a action on the server side, like take in account some data and then sending to a given page to do something else. When doing this I happen to notice that there are three situations: 1 - First server call, is not a postback it populates the father repeater (no problems here). 2 - Second server call, when the father link is clicked i populate the child repeater. Something like a "fatherLink_Click" function (no problems here). 3 - Third server call, when the child is clicked: i can't seem to know that it is the child's item command, so i can't stop it from databinding all over again, which kills my itemcommand event... (the problem). What can I do?

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  • GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

    - by Vogel
    This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • Calling Java classes from IzPack

    - by bguiz
    I am trying to write an IzPack installer which is able to detect a previously installed version of the application. After finding out that it doesn't really support this feature, I think the only way to do this is through writing a Java class and calling it from IzPack. Tim Williscroft has previously suggested this method: <condition type="java" id="jbossEnv"> <java> <class>au.com.codarra.ela.installer.JBossChecker</class <field>hasJBossEnv</field> </java> <returnvalue type="boolean">true</returnvalue> </condition> However, is it possible to call <java> from somewhere other than a <condition> tag? I want to be able to call it from a <variable> tag. Also, is it possible to call a method from a Java class instead of reading a value of a field? I want to be able to pass parameters to my class. Thank you!

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  • Can I get a reference to a pending transaction from a SqlConnection object?

    - by Rune
    Hey, Suppose someone (other than me) writes the following code and compiles it into an assembly: using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connString)) { conn.Open(); using (var transaction = conn.BeginTransaction()) { /* Update something in the database */ /* Then call any registered OnUpdate handlers */ InvokeOnUpdate(conn); transaction.Commit(); } } The call to InvokeOnUpdate(IDbConnection conn) calls out to an event handler that I can implement and register. Thus, in this handler I will have a reference to the IDbConnection object, but I won't have a reference to the pending transaction. Is there any way in which I can get a hold of the transaction? In my OnUpdate handler I want to execute something similar to the following: private void MyOnUpdateHandler(IDbConnection conn) { var cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = someSQLString; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } However, the call to cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() throws an InvalidOperationException complaining that "ExecuteNonQuery requires the command to have a transaction when the connection assigned to the command is in a pending local transaction. The Transaction property of the command has not been initialized". Can I in any way enlist my SqlCommand cmd with the pending transaction? Can I retrieve a reference to the pending transaction from the IDbConnection object (I'd be happy to use reflection if necessary)?

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  • Capturing time intervals when somebody was online? How would you impement this feature?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Our aim is to build timelines saying about periods of time when user was online. (It really doesn't matter what user we are talking about and where he was online) To get information about onliners we can call API method, someservice.com/api/?call=whoIsOnline whoIsOnline method will give us a list of users currently online. But there is no API method to get information about who IS NOT online. So, we should build our timelines using information we got from whoIsOnline. Of course there will be a measurement error (we can't track information in realtime). Let's suppose that we will call whoIsOnline method every 2 minutes (yes, we will run our script by cron every 2 minutes). For example, calling whoIsOnline at 08:00 will return Peter_id Michal_id Andy_id calling whoIsOnline at 08:02 will return Michael_id Andy_id George_id As you can see, Peter has gone offline, but we have new onliner - George. Available instruments are Db(MySQL) / text files / key-value storage (Redis/memcache); feel free to choose any of them (or even all of them). So, we have to get information like this George_id was online... 12 May: 08:02-08:30, 12:40-12:46, 20:14-22:36 11 May: 09:10-12:30, 21:45-23:00 10 May: was not online And now question... How would you store information to implement such timelines? How would you query/calculate information about periods of time when user was online? Additional information.. You cannot update information about offline users, only users who are "currently" online. Solution should be flexible: timeline information could be represented relating to any timezone. We should keep information only for last 7 days. Every user seen online is automatically getting his own identifier in our database. Uff.. it was really hard for me to write it because my English is pretty bad, but I hope my question will be clear for you. Thank you.

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  • Missing elements of collection

    - by Neir0
    I have a collection ObservableCollection<string> outoverList And i have a function which call collection outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); Function call collection a few times, but sometimes collection lost elements. We call a function - function adds element - collection has 9 elements(for example) - in the next function calling collection has only 8 elements. One elements be missing. Here Resharpers Find usages log: Search target FindElementHandler.outoverList:ObservableCollection<string> Found 3 usages in solution <FindElementExperiments> (3 items) FindElementHandler.cs (3 items) (50,13) outoverList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); (94,13) outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); (118,13) outoverList.Add("over:" + element.tagName); As you can see i just add elements to collection everywhere. i havent remove elements code. Maybe i did something wrong you can look at screen capture: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ei6dQnHCMIc I am newbie and often encounter with various problems but this bug looks mystic for me. P/S/ Sorry for english

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  • Why is OpenSubKey() returning null on my Win 7 64 bit system?

    - by BrMcMullin
    Has anyone seen OpenSubKey() and other Microsoft.Win32 registry functions return null on 64 bit systems when 32 bit registry keys are under Wow6432node in the registry? I'm working on a unit testing framework that makes a call to OpenSubKey() from the .net library. My dev system is a Win 7 64 bit environment with VS 2008 SP1 and the Win 7 SDK installed. The application we're unit testing is a 32 bit application, so the registry is virtualized under HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. When we call: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); Null is returned, however explicitly stating to look here works: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\Wow6432node\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); From what I understand this function should be agnostic to 32 bit or 64 bit environments and should know to jump to the virtual node. Even stranger is the fact that the exact same call inside a compiled and installed version of our application is running just fine on the same system and is getting the registry keys necessary to run; which are also being placed in HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Writing language converter in ANTLR

    - by Stefan
    I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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  • Rails named_scope across multiple tables

    - by wakiki
    I'm trying to tidy up my code by using named_scopes in Rails 2.3.x but where I'm struggling with the has_many :through associations. I'm wondering if I'm putting the scopes in the wrong place... Here's some pseudo code below. The problem is that the :accepted named scope is replicated twice... I could of course call :accepted something different but these are the statuses on the table and it seems wrong to call them something different. Can anyone shed light on whether I'm doing the following correctly or not? I know Rails 3 is out but it's still in beta and it's a big project I'm doing so I can't use it in production yet. class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :contacts, :through => :connections named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["connections.status = ?", Connection::ACCEPTED] # the :accepted named_scope is duplicated named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["memberships.status = ?", Membership::ACCEPTED] end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :members, :through => :memberships end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :contact, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "contact_id" end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :group end I'm trying to run something like person.contacts.accepted and group.members.accepted which are two different things. Shouldn't the named_scopes be in the Membership and Connection classes? One solution is to just call the two different named scope something different in the Person class or even to create separate associations (ie. has_many :accepted_members and has_many :accepted_contacts) but it seems hackish and in reality I have many more than just accepted (ie. banned members, ignored connections, pending, requested etc etc)

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  • RFC: Whitespace's Assembly Mnemonics

    - by Noctis Skytower
    Request For Comment regarding Whitespace's Assembly Mnemonics What follows in a first generation attempt at creating mnemonics for a whitespace assembly language. STACK ===== push number copy copy number swap away away number MATH ==== add sub mul div mod HEAP ==== set get FLOW ==== part label call label goto label zero label less label back exit I/O === ochr oint ichr iint In the interest of making improvements to this small and simple instruction set, this is a second attempt. hold N Push the number onto the stack copy Duplicate the top item on the stack copy N Copy the nth item on the stack (given by the argument) onto the top of the stack swap Swap the top two items on the stack drop Discard the top item on the stack drop N Slide n items off the stack, keeping the top item add Addition sub Subtraction mul Multiplication div Integer Division mod Modulo save Store load Retrieve L: Mark a location in the program call L Call a subroutine goto L Jump unconditionally to a label if=0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is zero if<0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is negative return End a subroutine and transfer control back to the caller exit End the program print chr Output the character at the top of the stack print int Output the number at the top of the stack input chr Read a character and place it in the location given by the top of the stack input int Read a number and place it in the location given by the top of the stack What is the general consensus on the following revised list for Whitespace's assembly instructions? They definitely come from thinking outside of the box and trying to come up with a better mnemonic set than last time. When the previous python interpreter was written, it was completed over two contiguous, rushed evenings. This rewrite deserves significantly more time now that it is the summer. Of course, the next version of Whitespace (0.4) may have its instructions revised even more, but this is just a redesign of what originally was done in a few hours. Hopefully, the instructions make more sense to those new to programming jargon.

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  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

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  • multiple redirect??

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

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  • Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

    - by Bob
    Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • How to set UCS2 in numpy?

    - by mindcorrosive
    I'm trying to build numpy 1.2.1 as a module for a third-party python interpreter (custom-built, py2.4 linux x86_64) so that I can make calls to numpy from within it. Let's call this one interpreter A. The thing is, the system-wide python interpreter (also py2.4, let's call it B) from the vendor is built with --enable-unicode=ucs4, while the custom one is with UCS2. Needless to say, when I try to build a module with B, I get an error when I try to import numpy in A -- it complains about undefined symbol _PyUnicodeUCS4_IsWhiteSpace. I've searched around and apparently there's no way around this but to compile a custom Python interpreter -- which I did (let's call it interpreter C), properly specifying the unicode string length (verifiable through sys.maxunicode). I managed to build numpy with C as well, surprisingly enough, but still the problem persists when I try to import it in interpreter C. Previously, when I built numpy using B, there were no problems when importing it in B, but A would complain. Perhaps there's an option when building numpy to specify the length of Unicode strings to be used, as when configuring Python builds? Or am I doing something else wrong? A few notes: Upgrading to newer versions of python and/or numpy is not an option - interpreter A will stay on this version of the grammar for the foreseeable future. Also, it is not possible to start the interpreter A in standalone mode to build numpy with it, as it needs some other libraries preloaded I know that this whole thing is a mess, but I'd appreciate any help I can get to make this work. If you need more information, please let me know, I'd be happy to oblige. Thanks to everybody for their time in advance.

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  • AdressBook Crash, only with some contacts!

    - by Zebs
    My app crashes, it is a problem that arises from the AddressBook API, it only happens with some contacts. Here is the log: Exception Type: EXC_BREAKPOINT (SIGTRAP) Exception Codes: 0x00000102, 0x316ebd38 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x00001cfe CFRetain + 90 1 AddressBook 0x00004b2c ABCMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex + 28 2 AddressBook 0x0001066a ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex + 2 3 Call Monitor 0x00003824 -[CallAppDelegate peoplePickerNavigationController:shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:property:identifier:] (AppDelegate.m:408) 4 AddressBookUI 0x00032cfc -[ABPeoplePickerNavigationController personViewController:shouldPerformDefaultActionForPerson:property:identifier:withMemberCell:] + 152 5 AddressBookUI 0x0003b8ce -[ABPersonViewControllerHelper personTableViewDataSource:selectedPropertyAtIndex:inPropertyGroup:withMemberCell:forEditing:] + 222 6 AddressBookUI 0x0004a17c -[ABPersonTableViewDataSource valueAtIndex:selectedForPropertyGroup:withMemberCell:forEditing:] + 40 7 AddressBookUI 0x00048c00 -[ABPersonTableViewDataSource tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath:] + 316 8 UIKit 0x00091f40 -[UITableView _selectRowAtIndexPath:animated:scrollPosition:notifyDelegate:] + 656 9 UIKit 0x0009db40 -[UITableView _userSelectRowAtIndexPath:] + 124 10 Foundation 0x00086c86 __NSFireDelayedPerform + 362 11 CoreFoundation 0x00071a54 __CFRUNLOOP_IS_CALLING_OUT_TO_A_TIMER_CALLBACK_FUNCTION__ + 8 12 CoreFoundation 0x00073ede __CFRunLoopDoTimer + 854 13 CoreFoundation 0x0007485e __CFRunLoopRun + 1082 14 CoreFoundation 0x0001d8e4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 224 15 CoreFoundation 0x0001d7ec CFRunLoopRunInMode + 52 16 GraphicsServices 0x000036e8 GSEventRunModal + 108 17 GraphicsServices 0x00003794 GSEventRun + 56 18 UIKit 0x000062a0 -[UIApplication _run] + 396 19 UIKit 0x00004e10 UIApplicationMain + 664 20 Call Monitor 0x000028e8 main (main.m:14) 21 Call Monitor 0x000028b8 start + 32 This is driving me crazy, as it only happens with an isolated number of contacts. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code that was requested, thank you very very much for your help: (It is an extract from the method where I think the error happens) The weird thing is that it only happens with certain contacts, and deleting the contact, then creating a new one solves the problem... - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier NSString* firstName = (NSString *)ABRecordCopyValue(person, kABPersonFirstNameProperty); NSString* lastName = (NSString *)ABRecordCopyValue(person, kABPersonLastNameProperty); NSNumber* record = [NSNumber numberWithInt:ABRecordGetRecordID(person)]; if(lastName!=nil){ name=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ %@",firstName,lastName]; } else { name=firstName; } ABMultiValueRef phone = ABRecordCopyValue(person, property); NSString *value =(NSString *)ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(phone, identifier); NSString *label =(NSString *)ABMultiValueCopyLabelAtIndex(phone, identifier); NSMutableArray *tempArray=[[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:[[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"MainArray"]]; NSDictionary *stringDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:name, kLabelKey, value, kNumberKey,label, kNumberLabelKey,record, kReferenceKey, nil]; [tempArray addObject:stringDictionary]; NSArray *mainArray = [NSArray arrayWithArray:tempArray]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject:mainArray forKey:@"MainArray"];

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  • Count rows against to SQL server (2005) table?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I have a simple question with two options to get count of rows in a SQL server (2005). I am using VS 2005. There are two options to get the count: SELECT id FROM Table1 WHERE dt >= startDt AND dt < endDt;; I get a list of ids from above call in cache and then I get count by List.Count. Another option is SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Table1 WHERE dt >= startDt AND dt < endDt; The above call will get the count directly. The issue is that I had several cases of exceptions with the second method: timeout. What I found is that the table1 is too big with millions of data. When I used the first option, it seems OK. I am confused by the fact that Count() takes more time than getting all the rows(is that true?). Not sure if the aggregation call with Count() would cause SQL server to create temporary table or cache on server side and it would result in slow performance when table is too big? I am not sure what is the best way to get the count?

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