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  • iPhone toolbar shared by multiple views

    - by codemonkey
    Another iPhone noob question. The app I'm building needs to show a shared custom UIToolbar for multiple views (and their subviews) within a UITabBarController framework. The contents of the custom toolbar are the same across all the views. I'd like to be able to design the custom toolbar as a xib and handle UI events from its own controller class (I'm assuming I can subclass UIToolbar to do so?). That way I could define IBOutlet & IBAction items, etc. Then I could associate this custom toolbar with eachs of the UITabBarController views (and their subviews). But I'm having trouble finding out whether that's possible - and if so, how to do it. In particular, I want to be able to push new views onto UINavigationControllers that are each associated with parent UITabBarController tabs. So, to summarize, I want a: custom toolbar shared by multiple views which are managed by multiple navigation controllers and the navigation controllers are associated with different tabs of a parent tab bar controller The tab bar controller itself is launched modally, though I don't believe that's relevant. Anyway, the tab bar controller is working, as are its child navigation controllers. I'm just having a little trouble figuring out how to persist the shared toolbar to the various subviews. I'd settle for a good clean way of implementing programmatically... though I'd prefer the flexibility of keeping the toolbar's visual design in a xib. Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • If attacker has original data, and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require this extra table. I'm leaning towards the the one-way hash + extra table solution, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • Trouble parsing self closing XML tags using SAX parser

    - by sandesh
    Hi, I am having trouble parsing self closing XML tags using SAX. I am trying to extract the link tag from the Google Base API.I am having reasonable success in parsing regular tags. Here is a snippet of the xml <entry> <id>http://www.google.com/base/feeds/snippets/15802191394735287303</id> <published>2010-04-05T11:00:00.000Z</published> <updated>2010-04-24T19:00:07.000Z</updated> <category scheme='http://base.google.com/categories/itemtypes' term='Products'/> <title type='text'>En-el1 Li-ion Battery+charger For Nikon Digital Camera</title> <link rel='alternate' type='text/html' href='http://rover.ebay.com/rover/1/711-67261-24966-0/2?ipn=psmain&amp;icep_vectorid=263602&amp;kwid=1&amp;mtid=691&amp;crlp=1_263602&amp;icep_item_id=170468125748&amp;itemid=170468125748'/> . . and so on I can parse the updates and published tags, but not the link and category tag. Here is my startElement and endElement overrides public void startElement(String uri, String localName, String qName, Attributes attributes) throws SAXException { if (qName.equals("title") && xmlTags.peek().equals("entry")) { insideEntryTitle = true; } xmlTags.push(qName); } public void endElement(String uri, String localName, String qName) throws SAXException { // If a "title" element is closed, we start a new line, to prepare // printing the new title. xmlTags.pop(); if (insideEntryTitle) { insideEntryTitle = false; System.out.println(); } } declaration for xmltags.. private Stack<String> xmlTags = new Stack<String>(); Any help guys? this is my first post here.. I hope I have followed posting rules! thanks a ton guys..

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  • Help with SQL query (Calculate a ratio between two entitiess)

    - by Mestika
    Hi, I’m going to calculate a ratio between two entities but are having some trouble with the query. The principal is the same to, say a forum, where you say: A user gets points for every new thread. Then, calculate the ratio of points for the number of threads. Example: User A has 300 points. User A has started 6 thread. The point ratio is: 50:6 My schemas look as following: student(studentid, name, class, major) course(courseid, coursename, department) courseoffering(courseid, semester, year, instructor) faculty(name, office, salary) gradereport(studentid, courseid, semester, year, grade) The relations is a following: Faculity(name) = courseoffering(instructor) Student(studentid) = gradereport (studentid) Courseoffering(courseid) = course(courseid) Gradereport(courseid) = courseoffering(courseid) I have this query to select the faculty names there is teaching one or more students: SELECT COUNT(faculty.name) FROM faculty, courseoffering, gradereport, student WHERE faculty.name = courseoffering.instructor AND courseoffering.courseid = gradereport.courseid AND gradereport.studentid = student.studentid My problem is to find the ratio between the faculty members salary in regarding to the number of students they are teaching. Say, a teacher get 10.000 in salary and teaches 5 students, then his ratio should be 1:5. I hope that someone has an answer to my problem and understand what I'm having trouble with. Thanks Mestika

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  • PHP question about global variables and form requests

    - by user220201
    Hi, This is probably a stupid question but will ask anyway sine I have no idea. I have written basic php code which serve forms. Say I have a login page and I serve it using the login.php page and it will be called in the login.html page like this - <form action="login.php" method="post"> By this it is also implied that every POST needs its own php file, doesn't it? This kind of feels weird. Is there a way to have a single file, say code.php, and just have each of the forms as functions instead? EDIT: Specifically, say I have 5 forms that are used one after the other in my application. Say after login the user does A, B, C and D tasks each of which are sent to the server as a POST request. So instead of having A.php, B.php, C.php and D.php I would like to have a single code.php and have A(), B(), C() and D() as functions. Is there a way to do this? Also on the same note, how do I deal with say a global array (e.g. an array of currently logged in users) across multiple forms? I want to do this without writing to a DB. I know its probably better to write to a DB and query but is it even possible to do it with a global array? The reason I was thinking about having all the form functions in one file is to use a global array. Thanks, - Pav

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  • Ideas Needed for a Base Code System

    - by Tegan Snyder
    I've developed a PHP web application that is currently in need of a strategic restructuring. Currently when we setup new clients we give them the entire code base on a subdomain of our main domain and create a new table for them in the database. This results in each client having the entire codebase, meaning when we make bug changes, fixes we have to go back and apply them independently across all clients and this is a pain. What I'd like to create is a base code server that holds all the core PHP files. base.domain.com Then all of our clients (client.domain.com) will only need a few files: config.php would have the database connection information. index.php - displays the login box if session non-existant, otherwise it loads baseline code via remote includes to base.domain.com. My question is does my logic seem feasible? How do other people handle similar situations by having a base code? Also.... Is it even possbile to remotely include PHP files from base.domain.com and include them in client.domain.com? Thanks, Tegan

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  • Google AppEngine + Local JUnit Tests + Jersey framework + Embedded Jetty

    - by xamde
    I use Google Appengine for Java (GAE/J). On top, I use the Jersey REST-framework. Now i want to run local JUnit tests. The test sets up the local GAE development environment ( http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html ), launches an embedded Jetty server, and then fires requests to the server via HTTP and checks responses. Unfortunately, the Jersey/Jetty combo spawns new threads. GAE expects only one thread to run. In the end, I end up having either no datstore inside the Jersey-resources or multiple, having different datastore. As a workaround I initialise the GAE local env only once, put it in a static variable and inside the GAE resource I add many checks (This threads has no dev env? Re-use the static one). And these checks should of course only run inside JUnit tests.. (which I asked before: "How can I find out if code is running inside a JUnit test or not?" - I'm not allowed to post the link directly here :-|)

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  • Trouble tunneling my local Wordpress install to the mysql database on appfog

    - by alanmoo
    I've set up a wordpress install on appfog (using rackspace), and cloned the install to my local machine for development. I know the install works (using MAMP) because I created a local mysql database and changed wp-config.php to point to it. However, I want to develop without having to change wp-config.php every time I commit. After doing some research, it seems like the Appfog service Caldecott lets me tunnel into the mysql database on the server, using af tunnel. Unfortunately, I'm having issues with getting it working. Even if I change my MAMP mysql port to something like 8889, and tunnel mysql through port 3306, it looks like it's connected but I still get "Error establishing a database connection" when loading my localhost Wordpress. When I quit the mysql monitor (using ctrl+x, ctrl+c), I get a message stating "Error: 'mysql' execution failed; is it in your $PATH?'. Originally, no, it wasn't, but I've fixed my PATH variable on my local machine so that when I go to Terminal and just type mysql, it loads up. So I guess my question is 2 parts: 1.)Am I going with the right approach for Wordpress development on my local machine and 2.)If so, why is the tunnel not working?

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  • Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

    - by Oscar
    Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

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  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

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  • PHP - Drilling down Data and Looping with Loops

    - by stogdilla
    I'm currently having difficulty finding a way of making my loops work. I have a table of data with 15 minute values. I need the data to pull up in a few different increments $filters=Array('Yrs','Qtr','Day','60','30','15'); I think I have a way of finding out what I need to be able to drill down to but the issue I'm having is after the first loop to cycle through all the Outter most values (ex: the user says they want to display by Hours, each hour should be able to have a "+" that will then add a new div to display the half hour data, then each half hour data have a "+" to display the 15 minute data upon request. Now I can just program the number of outputs for each value (6 different outputs) just in-case... but isn't there a way I can make it do the drill down for each one in a loop? so I only have to code one output once and have it just check if there are any more intervals after it and check for those? I'm sure I'm just overlooking some very simple way of doing this but my brain isn't being clever today. Sorry in advance if this is a simple solution. I guess the best way I could think of it as a reply on a form. How you would check to see if it's a reply of a reply, and then if that reply has any replys...etc for output. Can anyone help or at least point me in the right direction? Or am I stuck coding each possible check? Thanks in advance!

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  • Call to a member function get_segment() error

    - by hogofwar
    I'm having this problem with this piece of PHP code: class Core { public function start() { require("funk/funks/libraries/uri.php"); $this->uri = new uri(); require("funk/core/loader.php"); $this->load = new loader(); if($this->uri->get_segment(1) != "" and file_exists("funk/pages/".$uri->get_segment(1).".php")){ Only a snippet of the code The best way I can explain it is that it is a class calling upon another class (uri.php) and i am getting the error: Fatal error: Call to a member function get_segment() on a non-object in /home/eeeee/public_html/private/funkyphp/funk/core/core.php on line 11 (the if($this-uri-get_segment(1) part) I'm having this problem a lot and it is really bugging me. the library code is: <?php class uri { private $server_path_info = ''; private $segment = array(); private $segments = 0; public function __construct() { $segment_temp = array(); $this->server_path_info = preg_replace("/\?/", "", $_SERVER["PATH_INFO"]); $segment_temp = explode("/", $this->server_path_info); foreach ($segment_temp as $key => $seg) { if (!preg_match("/([a-zA-Z0-9\.\_\-]+)/", $seg) || empty($seg)) unset($segment_temp[$key]); } foreach ($segment_temp as $k => $value) { $this->segment[] = $value; } unset($segment_temp); $this->segments = count($this->segment); } public function segment_exists($id = 0) { $id = (int)$id; if (isset($this->segment[$id])) return true; else return false; } public function get_segment($id = 0) { $id--; $id = (int)$id; if ($this->segment_exists($id) === true) return $this->segment[$id]; else return false; } } ?>

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  • Queueing method calls - any idea how?

    - by TomTom
    I write a heavily asynchronseous application. I am looking for a way to queue method calls, similar to what BeginInvoke / EndInvoke does.... but on my OWN queue. The reaqson is that I am having my own optimized message queueing system using a threadpool but at the same time making sure every component is single threaded in the requests (i.e. one thread only handles messages for a component). I Have a lot of messages going back and forth. For limited use, I would really love to be able to just queue a message call with parameters, instead of having to define my own parameter, method wrapping / unwrapping just for the sake of doing a lot of admnistrative calls. I also do not always want to bypass the queue, and I definitely do not want the sending service to wait for the other service to respond. Anyone knows of a way to intercept a method call? Some way to utilize TransparentProxy / Virtual Proxy for this? ;) ServicedComponent? I would like this to be as little overhead as possible ;)

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  • How do I get require_login()-like functionality using the new PHP Client Library for Facebook?

    - by cc
    Howdy. I've been tasked with making a Facebook game, but I'm new to Facebook development, so I'm just getting started. Apologies in advance if this is a no-brainer to people. I'm having trouble following all the examples I see on sites, and I keep running into missing pages in the Facebook documentation when I am trying to read up. I think it's because there's a new version of the PHP Client Library for Facebook, and everything I'm finding is referring to the old client. For instance, I see this code in a lot of examples: require 'facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook( array( 'appId' => '(id)', 'secret' => '(secret)' ) ); $facebook_account = $facebook->require_login(); ...but there's no "require_login()" in the client library provided in the facebook.php file. From what I can tell, it looks like Facebook has very recently rolled out some new system for development, but I don't see any sample code anywhere to deal with it. The new library comes with an "example.php" file, but it appears to be only for adding "Log in with Facebook" functionality to other sites (what I'm assuming is what they mean by "Facebook Connect" sites), not for just running apps in a Canvas page on Facebook itself. Specifically, what I need to do is let users visit an application page within Facebook, have it bring up the dialog box allowing them to authorize the app, have it show up in their "games" page, and then have it pass me the relevant info about the user so I can start creating the game. But I can't seem to find any tutorials or examples that show how to do this using the new library. Seems like this should be pretty straightforward, but I'm running into roadblocks. Or am I missing something about the PHP client library? Should require_login() be working for me, and there's something broken with my implementation, such as having the wrong client library or something? I downloaded from GitHub yesterday, so I'm pretty sure I have the most recent version of the code I have, but perhaps I'm downloading the wrong "facebook.php" file...?

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  • In SQL Server what is most efficient way to compare records to other records for duplicates with in

    - by Glenn
    We have an SQL Server that gets daily imports of data files from clients. This data is interrelated and we are always scrubbing it and having to look for suspect duplicate records between these files. Finding and tagging suspect records can get pretty complicated. We use logic that requires some field values to be the same, allows some field values to differ, and allows a range to be specified for how different certain field values can be. The only way we've found to do it is by using a cursor based process, and it places a heavy burden on the database. So I wanted to ask if there's a more efficient way to do this. I've heard it said that there's almost always a more efficient way to replace cursors with clever JOINS. But I have to admit I'm having a lot of trouble with this one. For a concrete example suppose we have 1 table, an "orders" table, with the following 6 fields. order_id, customer_id product_id, quantity, sale_date, price We want to look through the records to find suspect duplicates on the following example criteria. These get increasingly harder. 1. Records that have the same product_id, sale_date, and quantity but different customer_id's should be marked as suspect duplicates for review. 2. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, quantity and have sale_dates within five days of each other should be marked as suspect duplicates for review 3. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, but different quantities within 20 units, and sales dates within five days of each other should be considered suspect. Is it possible to satisfy each one of these criteria with a single SQL Query that uses JOINS? Is this the most efficient way to do this?

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  • Tkinter, Python: How do I save text entered in the Entry widget? How do I move a label?

    - by user3692825
    I am a newbie at programming and my program is not stellar but hopefully it's ok because I have only been using it for a couple days now. I am having trouble in my class "Recipie". In this class I am having trouble saving the text in my Entry widget. I know to use the .get() option but when I try to print it, it doesn't (whether it is within that defined method or not). So that is my main concern. I want it to save the text entered as a string when I press the button: b. My other minor question is, how can I move the label. When I have tried I have used the height and width options, but that just expands the label. I want to move the text to create a title above my Entry boxes. Is label the right widget to use or would it be easier to use a message box widget? So it would look like, for example (but like 8 pixels down and 20 to the right): ingredients textbox button labeled as: add an ingredient And I am not sure the option .pack(side="...") or .place(anchor="...") are the right options to use for my buttons or entry boxes or labels. Any help is greatly appreciated!!! And if you could add comments to your code explaining what you did, that would be so helpful. Thank you!!! import Tkinter class Recipie(Tkinter.Tk): def __init__(self): Tkinter.Tk.__init__(self) self.title("New Recipie") self.geometry("500x500") def name(self): name = Tkinter.Label(self, text="Title:", width=39) name.place(anchor="nw") insert_name = Tkinter.Entry(self) insert_name.pack() insert_name.focus_set() def ingredients(self): e = Tkinter.Entry(self) e.pack() e.focus_set() def addingredient(self): but = Tkinter.Button(self, text="Add Ingredients", width=15, command=self.ingredients) but.pack(side="bottom") def procedure(self): txt = Tkinter.Label(self, text="List the Steps:") txt.place(anchor="n") p = Tkinter.Entry(self) p.place(anchor="nw") p.focus_set() def savebutton(self): print insert_name.get() print e.get() print p.get() b = Tkinter.Button(self, text="Save Recipie", width=15, command=savebutton) top = Recipie() top.mainloop()

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  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

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  • Making a button click and process using javascript with Asp.Net

    - by user944919
    I'm having two buttons and one button is hidden. Now when I click the visible button I need to do two things 1.Open Iframe. 2.Automatically make the 2nd Button(Hidden)to be clicked. When the second button is clicked I need to display the message on top of the IFrame which I have mentioned as function showStickySuccessToast() Now I am able to open IFrame but I'm unable to make the Hidden button clicked automatically. This is what I'm having: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#<%=Button1.ClientID%>").click(function(event){ $('#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>').change(function () { $('#various3').attr('href', $(this).val()); }); }); function showStickySuccessToast() { $().toastmessage('showToast', { text: 'Finished Processing!', sticky: false, position: 'middle-center', type: 'success', closeText: '', close: function () { } }); } }) </script> Here are my two buttons how I'm working with: <a id="various3" href="#"><asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="Button2_Click"/></a> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button" Visible="False" OnClick="Button2_Click"/> And in the button2_Click event: Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click System.Web.UI.ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, GetType(Page), "Script", "showStickySuccessToast();", True) End Sub

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  • filling colors on a map - PHP

    - by jeremy
    I am trying to determine how to fill colors onto a map - such as the "Risk" board game map. I've done this before with HTML tables, by pulling an HTML color code from a SQL table and then just using it to fill the cell the color I want it. But for a non-square map, I'm not sure where to look. I have created a very simple two color map - its white with black borders. My desired result is having the 'regions' on the map shaded with a color, based on data in a sql table (just like the "fill" button in Paint). This looks like what I need: http://php.net/manual/en/function.imagefilltoborder.php and now.. how to define the borders... At the moment I have tried nothing, because the question was: how do I have PHP fill parts of an image? I have tried making an image in Paint, and then scratching my head wondering how to fill parts of it. Having stumbled upon a link, let me focus this a bit more: It appears that with imagefilltoborder that I can put an image on my server, perhaps one that looks like a black and white version of the RISK map - black borders and white everything else. Some questions: Is it correct that the 'border' variable should use the color of my border (whatever value black is) so that the code can "see" where the border is? Is it correct that I'll just need to figure out X,Y coords to begin the fill? Does this work if I have 10 different spots to fill on the map? Can I use varying colors from code or pulled from SQL to assign different colors to those 10 spots, and use 10 different X,Y coords to get them all?

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  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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  • Need help/suggestions for creating fantasy sports scoring databases and queries

    - by MGumbel
    I'm trying to create a website for my friends and I to keep track of fantasy sports scoring. So far, I've been doing the calculations and storage in Excel, which is very tedious. I'm trying to make it more simplified and automated through a SQL database that I can then wrap a web app around to enter daily stat updates. It's premised on our participation in another commercial site where we trade virtual shares of athletes, and thus acquire an "ownership percentage" in each athlete. For instance, if there are 100 shares of AROD, and I own 10 shares, then I own 10%. It then applies this to traditional baseball rotisserie scoring. So, for instance, if AROD has 1 HR today, then his adjusted HR stat would be 1.10. If he also has 2 RBI's, then his adjusted RBI stat today would be 2.20, based on (2 x 1.10)(1 to normalize the stat, and the .10 to represent the ownership percentage). All the stats for my team would then be summed each day and added to my stat history to come to an aggregated total. After that, points are allocated based on the ranking of each participant in each category at the end of the day. E.g. if there are 10 participants, and I have the highest total aggregate number of Adjusted HR's, then I get 10 pts. The points are then summed across the different stat categories to come up with a total point ranking for that day. An added difficulty is that ownership %'s can change on a daily basis. So far, in playing around with different schema, I don't know that having a separate table for each athlete's stats and each player's ownership %'s is the wisest choice. It seems to me that simply having two tables, one that contains the daily stat information for each athlete, and another that shows the ownership % of each player. My friend suggested using a start and end date for each ownership % to represent the potential daily changes in this category. I'm admittedly new to database development, so any suggestions on query code would be appreciated.

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