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  • Which view will be resolved, code from spring's docs

    - by Blankman
    So when you go to /appointments the get() action is called, so then would the view be get.jsp (assuming you are using .jsp, and assuming you are mapping action names to views)? And what about the getnewform? It seems to be returning an object? Is that basically passed into the view? @Controller @RequestMapping("/appointments") public class AppointmentsController { private final AppointmentBook appointmentBook; @Autowired public AppointmentsController(AppointmentBook appointmentBook) { this.appointmentBook = appointmentBook; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> get() { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForToday(); } @RequestMapping(value="/{day}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> getForDay(@PathVariable @DateTimeFormat(iso=ISO.DATE) Date day, Model model) { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForDay(day); } @RequestMapping(value="/new", method = RequestMethod.GET) public AppointmentForm getNewForm() { return new AppointmentForm(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String add(@Valid AppointmentForm appointment, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "appointments/new"; } appointmentBook.addAppointment(appointment); return "redirect:/appointments"; } } In the example, the @RequestMapping is used in a number of places. The first usage is on the type (class) level, which indicates that all handling methods on this controller are relative to the /appointments path. The get() method has a further @RequestMapping refinement: it only accepts GET requests, meaning that an HTTP GET for /appointments invokes this method. The post() has a similar refinement, and the getNewForm() combines the definition of HTTP method and path into one, so that GET requests for appointments/new are handled by that method.

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  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML / jQuery?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

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  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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  • Path to XML DTD for DBUnit in multi-module Java/Maven project?

    - by HDave
    I have a multi-module maven project. Within the persist module I have a number of XML files data files that reference a DTD: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE myapp-data SYSTEM "myapp-data.dtd" > <dataset> .....omitted for brevity.... </dataset> The DTD is stored in the same directory with the XML files and even Eclipse reports these XML files as valid. However, when I run the application, the DBUnit FlatXMLDataSet throws a FileNotFound exception because it cannot located the DTD. It is apparently looking for the DTD in the root project directory (e.g. myproject/). I would have expected it to look for the DTD in the same directory as the XML file itself (e.g. myproject/persist/target/test-data). Looking at the DBUnit source code, it has this to say about it "Relative DOCTYPE uri are resolved from the current working dicrectory." What's a good way to fix this?

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  • Prevent Rails link_to_remote multiple submits w Javascript

    - by Chris
    In a Rails project I need to keep a link_to_remote from getting double-clicked. It looks like :before and :after are my only choices - they get prepended/appended to the onclick Ajax call, respectively. But if I try something like: :before => "self.stopObserving()" t,he Ajax is never run. If I try it for :after the Ajax is run but the link never stops observing. The solutions I've seen rely on creating a variable and blocking the whole form, but there are multiple link_to_remote rows on this page and it is valid to click more than one of them at a time - just not the same one twice. One variable per row declared outside of link_to_remote seems very kludgey... Instead of using Prototype I originally tried plain Javascript first for this proof of concept - but it fails too: <a href="#" onclick="self.onclick = function(){alert('foo');};"click</a just puts up an alert when clicked - the lambda here does nothing? This next one is more like the desired goal and should only alert the first time. But instead it alerts every time: <a href="#" onclick="alert('bar'); self.onclick = function(){return false;};"click</a All ideas appreciated!

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  • Rails' page caching vs. HTTP reverse proxy caches

    - by John Topley
    I've been catching up with the Scaling Rails screencasts. In episode 11 which covers advanced HTTP caching (using reverse proxy caches such as Varnish and Squid etc.), they recommend only considering using a reverse proxy cache once you've already exhausted the possibilities of page, action and fragment caching within your Rails application (as well as memcached etc. but that's not relevant to this question). What I can't quite understand is how using an HTTP reverse proxy cache can provide a performance boost for an application that already uses page caching. To simplify matters, let's assume that I'm talking about a single host here. This is my understanding of how both techniques work (maybe I'm wrong): With page caching the Rails process is hit initially and then generates a static HTML file that is served directly by the Web server for subsequent requests, for as long as the cache for that request is valid. If the cache has expired then Rails is hit again and the static file is regenerated with the updated content ready for the next request With an HTTP reverse proxy cache the Rails process is hit when the proxy needs to determine whether the content is stale or not. This is done using various HTTP headers such as ETag, Last-Modified etc. If the content is fresh then Rails responds to the proxy with an HTTP 304 Not Modified and the proxy serves its cached content to the browser, or even better, responds with its own HTTP 304. If the content is stale then Rails serves the updated content to the proxy which caches it and then serves it to the browser If my understanding is correct, then doesn't page caching result in less hits to the Rails process? There isn't all that back and forth to determine if the content is stale, meaning better performance than reverse proxy caching. Why might you use both techniques in conjunction?

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  • How to get the Video-ID of a just uploaded Youtube movie

    - by murze
    Hi, how can i get the video-id of a just uploaded Youtube movie? I'm using this code: $yt = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube($httpClient); // create a new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry object $myVideoEntry = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry(); // create a new Zend_Gdata_App_MediaFileSource object $filesource = $yt->newMediaFileSource('mytestmovie.mov'); $filesource->setContentType('video/quicktime'); // set slug header $filesource->setSlug('mytestmovie.mov'); // add the filesource to the video entry $myVideoEntry->setMediaSource($filesource); $myVideoEntry->setVideoTitle('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoDescription('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoCategory('Comedy'); // Note that category must be a valid YouTube category ! // set keywords, please note that this must be a comma separated string // and that each keyword cannot contain whitespace $myVideoEntry->setVideoTags('cars, funny'); // upload URI for the currently authenticated user $uploadUrl = 'http://uploads.gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/default/uploads'; // try to upload the video, catching a Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException if available // or just a regular Zend_Gdata_App_Exception try { $newEntry = $yt->insertEntry($myVideoEntry, $uploadUrl, 'Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry'); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException $httpException) { echo $httpException->getRawResponseBody(); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } I assume it 'll be a property of $newEntry but i can't seem to find it! Thanks!

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  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

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  • How do I get Bison/YACC to not recognize a command until it parses the whole string?

    - by chucknelson
    I have some bison grammar: input: /* empty */ | input command ; command: builtin | external ; builtin: CD { printf("Changing to home directory...\n"); } | CD WORD printf("Changing to directroy %s\n", $2); } ; I'm wondering how I get Bison to not accept (YYACCEPT?) something as a command until it reads ALL of the input. So I can have all these rules below that use recursion or whatever to build things up, which either results in a valid command or something that's not going to work. One simple test I'm doing with the code above is just entering "cd mydir mydir". Bison parses CD and WORD and goes "hey! this is a command, put it to the top!". Then the next token it finds is just WORD, which has no rule, and then it reports an error. I want it to read the whole line and realize CD WORD WORD is not a rule, and then report an error. I think I'm missing something obvious and would greatly appreciate any help - thanks! Also - I've tried using input command NEWLINE or something similar, but it still pushes CD WORD to the top as a command and then parses the extra WORD separately.

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  • Unable to upgrade PEAR from 1.9.2 to 1.9.4

    - by user940768
    I am on a Ubuntu 11.10 and trying to upgrade from 1.9.2 to 1.9.4, but it simply don't work. Here are the commands I am following in sequence $ sudo apt-get install php-pear Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done php-pear is already the newest version. The following packages were automatically installed and are no longer required: linux-headers-3.0.0-14-generic-pae libaccess-bridge-java-jni libaccess-bridge-java Use 'apt-get autoremove' to remove them. 0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 6 not upgraded. $ sudo pear channel-update pear.php.net Updating channel "pear.php.net" Channel "pear.php.net" is up to date $ sudo pear upgrade-all Nothing to upgrade-all $ sudo pear install –alldeps pear.phpunit.de/PHPUnit parsePackageName(): invalid package name "–alldeps" in "–alldeps" invalid package name/package file "–alldeps" Did not download optional dependencies: phpunit/PHP_Invoker, use --alldeps to download automatically phpunit/PHPUnit requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHPUnit can optionally use package "phpunit/PHP_Invoker" (version >= 1.1.0) phpunit/Text_Template requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHP_CodeCoverage requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHP_CodeCoverage requires package "phpunit/Text_Template" (version >= 1.1.1) phpunit/PHP_CodeCoverage can optionally use PHP extension "xdebug" (version >= 2.0.5) phpunit/PHPUnit_MockObject requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 phpunit/PHPUnit_MockObject requires package "phpunit/Text_Template" (version >= 1.1.1) phpunit/PHP_TokenStream requires PEAR Installer (version >= 1.9.4), installed version is 1.9.2 No valid packages found install failed Any thoughts?

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  • Displaying tree path of record in SQL Server 2005

    - by jskiles1
    An example of my tree table is: ([id] is an identity) [id], [parent_id], [path] 1, NULL, 1 2, 1, 1-2 3, 1, 1-3 4, 3, 1-3-4 My goal is to query quickly for multiple rows of this table and view the full path of the node from its root, through its superiors, down to itself. The ultimate question is, should I generate this path on inserts and maintain it in its own column or generate this path on query to save disk space? I guess it depends if this table is write heavy or read heavy. I've been contemplating several approaches to using the "path" characteristic of this parent/child relationship and I just can't seem to settle on one. This "path" is simply for display purposes and serves absolutely no purpose other than that. Here is what I have done to implement this "path." AFTER INSERT TRIGGER - requires passing a NULL path to the insert and updating the path for the record at the inserted rows identity INSTEAD OF INSERT TRIGGER - does not require insert to have NULL path passed, but does require the trigger to insert with a NULL path and updating the path for the record at SCOPE_IDENTITY() STORED PROCEDURE - requiring all inserts into this table to be done through the stored procedure implementing the trigger logic VIEW - requires building the path in the view 1 and 2 seem annoying if massive amounts of data are entered at once. 3 seems annoying because all inserts must go through the procedure in order to have a valid path populated. 1, 2, and 3 require maintaining a path column on the table. 4 removes all the limitations of the above but require the view to perform the path logic and requires use of the view if a path is to be displayed. I have successfully implemented all of the above approaches and I'm mainly looking for some advice. Am I way off the mark here or are any of the above acceptable? Each has it's advantages and disadvantages.

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  • Django formset doesn't validate

    - by tsoporan
    Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

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  • Bizarre problem with WPF XAML file.

    - by paxdiablo
    I've just started a very simple WPF application which consists of a main large image and four smaller images. In order to assist with the layout, I created some JPEGs in MsPaint containing the images -2, -1, 0, +1 and +2 and just copied them into the top level of the project directory. The XAML segment contains, for the five images: <Image Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicture" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/zero.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicMinus2" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/minus2.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicMinus1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/minus1.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicPlus1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/plus1.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="4" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicPlus2" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/plus2.jpg" When I try to set the source property for the plus2 image, it complains with a dialog box stating: Property value is not valid. Details | V The file plus2.jpg is not part of the project or its 'Build Action' property is not set to 'Resource'. Yet if I rename the file to plus3.jpg or plus2x.jpg, I don't have that problem. Why is it complaining about plus2.jpg specifically?

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  • IBM Worklight v6.1.0.1 : Error when using Ionic Framework with Worklight and run on IOS environment

    - by NickNguyen
    I have created demo app using Ionic with Worklight and it worked on Android but got error on IOS, when i used mobile browser simulator and debugged on IOS environment, i got the folowing error message: Uncaught InvalidCharacterError: Failed to execute 'add' on 'DOMTokenList': The token provided ('platform-ios - iphone') contains HTML space characters, which are not valid in tokens. I just add Ionic files in index.html: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>index</title> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0, minimum-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0"> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.png"> <link rel="apple-touch-icon" href="images/apple-touch-icon.png"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/main.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="ionic/css/ionic.css"> <script src="ionic/js/ionic.bundle.js"></script> </head> <body style="display: none;"> <!--application UI goes here--> <div class="bar bar-header bar-positive"> <h1 class="title">bar-positive</h1> </div> <script src="js/initOptions.js"></script> <script src="js/main.js"></script> <script src="js/messages.js"></script> </body> </html> I also tested on mobile device on both Android and IOS and only got error on IOS device. I don't know how to fix this. Can anyone help? Thanks.

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  • How to transform a production to LL(1) for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

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  • C# - How to change window state of Form, on a different thread?

    - by Dodi300
    Hello. Does anyone know how I can chage the window state of a form, from another thread? This is the code I'm using: private void button4_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string pathe = label1.Text; string name = Path.GetFileName(pathe); pathe = pathe.Replace(name, ""); string runpath = label2.Text; Process process; process = new Process(); process.EnableRaisingEvents = true; process.Exited += new System.EventHandler(process_Exited); process.StartInfo.FileName = @runpath; process.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = @pathe; process.Start(); WindowState = FormWindowState.Minimized; } private void process_Exited(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.WindowState = FormWindowState.Normal; } It's meant to run a program and minimize, then return to the normal state once the program has closed. Although I get this error "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'Form1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on." Any idea how to get this to work? Thanks.

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my incorrect values on postback?

    - by Michel
    This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • Why is PHP5 SQLite PDO silently failing on DB connection?

    - by danieltalsky
    I have no idea why my code is failing silently. PDO and PDO SQLite are confirmed loaded. Errors are turned on and OTHER errors display. The SQLite file exists. Perms are set correctly. If I change the filename, PHP actually DOES create the file but still fails silently. No output or commands are excecuted after the "$dbh = new PDO($db_conn);" command. I'm not sure what else I can possibly do to troubleshoot. What else... this is on Modwest shared hosting. ABOUT TO RUN <?php // Destination $db_name = '/confirmed/valid/path/DBName.db3'; $db_conn = 'sqlite:' . $db_name; try { var_dump($db_conn); $dbh = new PDO($db_conn); $dbh->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); } catch (Exception $e) { exit("Failed to open database: {$e->getMessage()} \n" ); } ?> THIS NEVER OUTPUTS! sdf

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  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • automating hudson builds with ant throwing 403

    - by Christopher Dancy
    We have a hudson server which deploys builds. We have a few services which we want to be able to remotely tell hudson to deploy a certain build ... these services are using ant. So I'm trying to get it working but keeping getting a 403 response when giving a build number like so... <ac:post to="http://hostname:8080/hudson/job/test_release_indexes/build?" verbose="true" wantresponse="true"> <prop name="token" value="indexes"/> <prop name="BUILDNUMBER" value="0354"/> </ac:post> this throws the 403. I've also tried passing it props for the username and password like so ... <ac:post to="http://srulesre2:8080/hudson/job/test_dartmouth_indexes/build?" verbose="true" wantresponse="true"> <prop name="token" value="indexes"/> <prop name="BUILDNUMBER" value="0354"/> <prop name="username" value="test"/> <prop name="password" value="test"/> </ac:post> I've tried a hundred different variations on username and password ... like j_username and j_password or user and pass ... but nothing is working ... keep getting the same 403. And the username and password are valid because I can manually log in with admin privileges. Any ideas would be great

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  • Filtering on a left join in SQLalchemy

    - by Adam Ernst
    Using SQLalchemy I want to perform a left outer join and filter out rows that DO have a match in the joined table. I'm sending push notifications, so I have a Notification table. This means I also have a ExpiredDeviceId table to store device_ids that are no longer valid. (I don't want to just delete the affected notifications as the user might later re-install the app, at which point the notifications should resume according to Apple's docs.) CREATE TABLE Notification (device_id TEXT, time DATETIME); CREATE TABLE ExpiredDeviceId (device_id TEXT PRIMARY KEY, expiration_time DATETIME); Note: there may be multiple Notifications per device_id. There is no "Device" table for each device. So when doing SELECT FROM Notification I should filter accordingly. I can do it in SQL: SELECT * FROM Notification LEFT OUTER JOIN ExpiredDeviceId ON Notification.device_id = ExpiredDeviceId.device_id WHERE expiration_time == NULL But how can I do it in SQLalchemy? sess.query( Notification, ExpiredDeviceId ).outerjoin( (ExpiredDeviceId, Notification.device_id == ExpiredDeviceId.device_id) ).filter( ??? ) Alternately I could do this with a device_id NOT IN (SELECT device_id FROM ExpiredDeviceId) clause, but that seems way less efficient.

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  • Is NUnit's ExpectedExceptionAttribute only way to test if something raises an exception?

    - by Dariusz Walczak
    Hello, I'm completely new at C# and NUnit. In Boost.Test there is a family of BOOST_*_THROW macros. In Python's test module there is TestCase.assertRaises method. As far as I understand it, in C# with NUnit (2.4.8) the only method of doing exception test is to use ExpectedExceptionAttribute. Why should I prefer ExpectedExceptionAttribute over - let's say - Boost.Test's approach? What reasoning can stand behind this design decision? Why is that better in case of C# and NUnit? Finally, if I decide to use ExpectedExceptionAttribute, how can I do some additional tests after exception was raised and catched? Let's say that I want to test requirement saying that object has to be valid after some setter raised System.IndexOutOfRangeException. How would you fix following code to compile and work as expected? [Test] public void TestSetterException() { Sth.SomeClass obj = new SomeClass(); // Following statement won't compile. Assert.Raises( "System.IndexOutOfRangeException", obj.SetValueAt( -1, "foo" ) ); Assert.IsTrue( obj.IsValid() ); } Edit: Thanks for your answers. Today, I've found an It's the Tests blog entry where all three methods described by you are mentioned (and one more minor variation). It's shame that I couldn't find it before :-(.

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  • Retrieve OpenId FullName from Google

    - by user294711
    I'm using DotNetOpenAuth lib to work with Google(only) OpenId. And I'm retrieving Email without any problem. But I can't get FullName, it is always null. request.AddExtension(new ClaimsRequest { Email = DemandLevel.Require, FullName = DemandLevel.Require }); ClaimsResponse claimsResponse = relyingPartyResponse.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claimsResponse != null) { var email = claimsResponse.Email; var fullName = claimsResponse.FullName; } I googled this problem and found that: Glad you got it working. Google will not give a full name or nickname for their users. They ONLY give email address, and (I think, but perhaps only on a white list) the timezone. It's not a matter of figuring out how to rig your RP so that it works. Google just won't do it yet. – Andrew Arnott Sep 8 at 14:22 stackoverflow.com/questions/1387438/retrieve-openid-user-information-claims-across-providers But it was in Sep 2009, maybe something was changed from that moment... I've found that in http://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OpenID.html: openid.ax.required -- (required) Specifies the attribute being requested. Valid values include: "country", "email", "firstname", "language", "lastname". To request multiple attributes, set this parameter to a comma-delimited list of attributes. So, my question is how can I get FullName (FirstName, LastName) from Google OpenId?

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