Search Results

Search found 187797 results on 7512 pages for 'why not'.

Page 209/7512 | < Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >

• 2012 R2 services will not start after promotion to Domain Controller

  - by Cybersylum

  Having a peculiar issue promoting a Windows 2012 R2 server in a domain at 2003 domain/forest functional level. Built a new 2012 R2 server, added the following software (labtech, appassure, eset A/V, & Teamviewer). It activated and appeared to be working fine. I added the Active Directory Domain Services role, and completed the configuration (Domain/Forest Prep, and DC promotion). All appeared to go well. I rebooted the server, and that's where the peculiar stuff began. I noticed the server indicated it needed activated again; but would not accept the key. I verified the key was good. That's when I noticed the Software Protection service (as well as many other core services - Base Filtering engine, DHCP client, firewall, etc) would not start. The error message for all of them was "Access Denied". I called MS, and they wanted to troubleshoot at a service level. Their fix was to use procmon and identify the resource that needed permissions (registry key, file or folder) and add "everyone" with full control). That got the services to start; but the problem re-appeared after a reboot. Thinking the issue might have been with the anti-virus package during the promotion process, I rebuilt the DCs from scratch and removed the metadata from AD (as I could not demote the machines "rpc server unavailble"). I tried to promote the newly built machines again. The only changes to the brand new machines being critical updates. Again the promotion appeared to work fine; but upon reboot (and a long wait to allow replication to occur) similar problems began to re-appear. I have verified that the schema updates are correct (schema version is 69 - for Windows 2012 R2). I am not finding much about this issue through my own searches, so I thought I would post this to see if anyone else has seen anything similar...

  Read the article

• CD Drive not discovered

  - by user1009073

  I have a self built computer. it uses a P6T Deluxe motherboard, which has both SATA and IDE ports. This was built several years ago, and had an IDE CD/DVD drive. This drive started going bad (would not burn CDs correctly), so I decided to replace it. I had difficultly finding an IDE DVD drive, so I bought a SATA DVD drive. I opened the comnputer, took out the old DVD drive. I left the IDE cable in place, connected to the motherboard, but it is not connected to any drives. I hooked up the new DVD drive, both power and with a SATA data cable (SATA port 3 if I recall). (Sony Optiarc 24x , Newegg URL: http://www.newegg.com/Product/Product.aspx?Item=N82E16827118067 ) When I power on my computer, the drive does NOT show up in Explorer. I can hit the DVD eject button, and the drive will open up, so I know it at least is getting power. I thought, maybe something in the BIOS. When I go to BIOS, boot devices, it shows (1) floppy, (2) my hard drive (3) ATAPI CD Drive. The only other possible BIOS option I could find was uder 'Storage Configuration'. Configure Storage as: My setting is RAID, since I am using two drives in a RAID configuration. Other options were IDE and ACHI. Other than trying to find an IDE DVD drive, is there anything else I can try? The drive does not show up at all in Windows Explorer. I did put in a CD thinking that might help, but nothing happened. Thanks, GS

  Read the article

• Powershell Script Scheduled Task Stopped Running (Could not Start)

  - by Hatsune Yuki

  I'm running a scheduled task (for Powershell Script) on Windows 2003 Server. I believe the script works fine. The task is scheduled to run every 10 minutes from 7:00am to 11:50pm everyday. However, it never gets to run more for than a day. It always stops some time in the afternoon (between 2pm and 6pm). I'm not sure exactly what happened but I always get the error The attempt to log on to the account associated with the task failed, therefore, the task did not run. The specific error is: 0x80070569: Logon failure: the user has not been granted the requested logon type at this computer. Verify that the task's Run-as name and password are valid and try again. It seems like most people with this error are saying that they need to make user "logon as a batch job". However, this option is greyed-out for me. I search for other places where users have similar problems but the solutions are not written in detail (some of them have something to do with GPO). I've only used the basic features of Windows Server and I have no clue how to get to the place they are referring to. Can someone please confirm whether "logon as a batch job" is indeed a solution and provide a detailed walkthrough on how to solve my problem? Thanks. p.s. someone suggested the website http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755659(v=ws.10) I tried to followed the method for web server with domain. However, got stuck on the 6th step where it mentions Group Policy Object. I don't know where it is.

  Read the article

• Firefox Does NOT get local site cookie

  - by Campo

  This is a weird one. We have a production server (Server 2008) and two staging servers (Server 2008 and Server 2003) I have sites on all of these. They all use cookies. On the Production server when browsing to our site www.supernovainteractive.com there is a cookie that detects when you visted the site and it will not refresh the logo animation (top left hand side) on clicking to another page. This works for all browsers on the production server. I’m not sure what’s going on but for some reason cookies are not working on one site in the 2008 staging server only. This is when browsing using Firefox (3.6.3) they work fine on all other browsers (IE, Chrome, Safari, Opera) In addition, the 2003 staging server works fine. You can test on the Supernova Interactive site by noticing the logo in the top left corner. It uses a cookie to detect if you’ve already seen the animation. Once you’ve seen it once, it doesn’t animate again until tomorrow. Currently, it’s animating every time. I have opened an outside facing port so others can see the issue. Http://exchange.supernova.com:10009 Any ideas on this one? Firewalls are off on the server. Notice you do not get a cookie from Exchange.supernova.com.

  Read the article

• Korean characters not appearing in Korean Windows XP computer

  - by user13267

  I am using a Korean software (with a partial English interface) in a Korean Version of Windows XP SP 3 However, in parts of the software, even when I change the interface to Korean, Korean letters show up as random characters, as shown here: This is happening at others parts of the software as well, and I am not sure what is the difference between the places where this is happening, and places where this is not happening. For example, a command button where Korean letters are showing up properly is shown below: This software is a video conferencing software and has a chat feature as well. When I type into the chat box, i can see the Korean letters appear properly at my side, but when I press Enter and send the message, it changes into random characters as shown above in the chat box. What could be the issue here? Could it be a missing font in my computer? Since this is a Korean Windows installation I was hoping everything would work properly by default. What can be done here? EDIT 1: I asked some other people who are using this software, and they think that the problem is at my end, and playing around with the Regional and Language Settings might solve the problem. Also, they suggested I install all the language packs related to Korean display. But it looks like all the language packs have been installed, and my location is set to Korea in Regional and Language Settings in Control Panel, and I still have this problem. Also, I have had similar problems with displaying Korean on an English Windows XP computer. This answer suggested some solutions, but I still do not quite understand exactly what I have to do (at that time I had not fixed the problem, as I later on changed the computer). If I follow that answer, what fonts exactly do I need to install?

  Read the article

• Subversion COPY/MOVE - File not found: transaction 'XXX-XX'

  - by theplatz

  I'm attempting to create a branch in one of my subversion repositories and keep running into an error. No mater what is done, I keep getting the following: File not found: transaction '3062-2e6', path '/Software/XXXXXX/branches/testbranch' I've noticed that the first part of the '3063-3e6' in the above message is the last successful committed revision in the repository. My apache logs don't give much more information: [Wed Nov 24 14:10:38 2010] [error] [client x.x.x.x] Could not MOVE/COPY /svn/p070361/!svn/bc/3049/Software/SXXXXXX/trunk. [404, #0] [Wed Nov 24 14:10:38 2010] [error] [client x.x.x.x] Unable to make a filesystem copy. [404, #160013] [Wed Nov 24 14:10:38 2010] [error] [client x.x.x.x] File not found: transaction '3059-2e2', path '/Software/XXXXXX/branches/testbranch' [404, #160013] This is all happening on a server with an nginx frontend that proxies to Apache for the subversion bits. Other repositories are able to branch fine and I was able to create the branch using file:/// from the command line on the server this is occurring on. The permissions on this repository match every other repository and disk space is not an issue.

  Read the article

• fglrx-legacy-driver not seeing Radeon HD 4650 AGP

  - by Rocket Hazmat

  I am running Debian Squeeze on an old Dell Dimension 8300 box. It has an AGP Radeon HD 4650 card. I use this machine to mine bitcoins, and today I noticed that the machine had rebooted! My precious uptime! Anyway, my miner wouldn't start, so I figured might as well update my graphics driver, maybe that would fix the issue. I went to amd.com and downloaded the newest driver (12.6 legacy), but after installing it, aticonfig gave an error: aticonfig: No supported adapters detected I uninstalled the driver and figured I'd try to install it from apt. AMD has dropped support for the HD 4000 series in fglrx, forcing me to use fglrx-legacy-driver (currently only in experimental). In order to install this, I had to update libc6 (and some other important packages, like gcc), I had to use their wheezy versions. I finally got glrx-legacy-driver installed, but I still got: aticonfig: No supported adapters detected Why isn't the driver finding my video card? I have a hunch it has something to do with the fact that it's an AGP video card. Here is the output of lspci -v (why does it say Kernel driver in use: fglrx_pci?): 01:00.0 VGA compatible controller: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] nee ATI RV730 Pro AGP [Radeon HD 4600 Series] (prog-if 00 [VGA controller]) Subsystem: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] nee ATI Device 0028 Flags: bus master, 66MHz, medium devsel, latency 64, IRQ 16 Memory at e0000000 (32-bit, prefetchable) [size=256M] I/O ports at de00 [size=256] Memory at fe9f0000 (32-bit, non-prefetchable) [size=64K] Expansion ROM at fea00000 [disabled] [size=128K] Capabilities: [50] Power Management version 3 Capabilities: [58] AGP version 3.0 Kernel driver in use: fglrx_pci

  Read the article

• iptables, forward traffic for ip not active on the host itself

  - by gucki

  I have kvm guest which's netword card is conntected to the host using a tap device. The tap device is part of a bridge on the host together with eth0 so it can access the public network. So far everything works, the guest can access the public network and it can be accessed from the public network. Now the kvm process on the host provides a vnc server for the guest which listens on 127.0.0.1:5901 on the host. Is there any way to make this vnc server accessible by the ip address which the guest is using (ex. 192.168.0.249), without interrupting the guest from using the same ip (port 5901 is not used by the guest)? It should also work when the guest is not using any ip address at all. So basically I just want to fake IP xx is on the host and only answer/ forward traffic to port 5901 to the host itself. I tried using this NAT rule on the host, but it doesn't work. Ip forwarding is enabled at the host. iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dst 192.168.0.249 --dport 5901 -j DNAT --to-destination 127.0.0.1:5901 I assume this is because the IP 192.168.0.249 is not not bound to any interfaces and so no ARP requests for it get answered and so no packets for this IP arrive at the host. How can make it work? :)

  Read the article

• Powerpoint not drawing in slide properly...

  - by commradepolski

  So got another issue to post about. I have a user here who uses powerpoint a lot, Office 07 with SP2. When he opens up the presentation, powerpoint opens fine without errors, but does not draw in the main slide properly. So to better explain that, the list on the left hand side, that shows the slides and what order they are in, loads up fine. You can see the slides and the content etc. When you click on a slide, to edit it, it does not draw in on the editing screen. Not really sure how to explain that. The screen where the work on the slide is done, is what is affected. This is a screen shot from my pc not the users. So instead of the screen saying "Click to add title" it would be improperly drawn such that if I were to drag an explorer window across it, it would leave a trail. I have tried reinstalling office, updating it, as well as giving the user a new windows image and nothing has helped. Any help or advice is appreciated.

  Read the article

• Website is not accessible from server which is using proxy

  - by Bhoot

  I hosted a website in a win 2008 R2 server which runs in private domain. I set up bindings for port 80 and 443 for http & https respectively. Created inbound rule for port 80 and 443 also in windows firewall. After doing all this, i am still not able to access my website from remote machine. IE : Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage. Chrome : Oops! Google Chrome could not find xxxxxx Tried accessing website by ip address but no luck. I tried to ping that server but it says TTL expired in Transit. Now i found some more information over internet to check if the server is using any kind of proxy in between. I found my IP address at www.getip.com, but ipconfig/all gives me a different IP address. Is it really a problem if we use proxy ? I am not sure if i have concluded it correctly. But is there any way out to resolve this issue? Update ::: I figured it out. I have to call that website with external IP address. due to the proxy settings i was not able to call that website by the server's IP or name of that machine.

  Read the article

• Why is document.body == null in Firefox but not Safari

  - by dlamblin

  I have a problem with a page where I am trying to get colorbox (a kind of lightbox for jQuery) working. It doesn't work apparently due to the document.body being null in FireFox (3.5.3). This is not the case in Safari (4.0.3) where the colorbox works. Something that jumps out at me is that (I'm using Drupal 6) drupal has appended a script tag to set some JavaScript variables at the very bottom of the page, below the closing body and html tags. Otherwise I don't see a problem. Unfortunately I'm having a lot of trouble getting it not to do that. Could it be this that's causing FF to have issues with the body? Using colorbox's example files in Firefox does work (and the document.body is defined there). Is there any way I could use jQuery to refill the document.body property with something from $() perhaps, or should I keep banging at drupal to not put a script tag outside the html tags (easier said than done)? To clarify the document.body is null even after the page is done loading. Here's a Firebug console capture: >>> document.body null >>> $().attr('body') null

  Read the article

• Why does Http Web Request and IWebProxy work at wierd times

  - by Mike Webb

  Another question about Web proxy. Here is my code: IWebProxy Proxya = System.Net.WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy(); Proxya.Credentials = CredentialCache.DefaultNetworkCredentials; HttpWebRequest rqst = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(targetServer); rqst.Proxy = Proxya; rqst.Timeout = 5000; try { rqst.GetResponse(); } catch(WebException wex) { connectErrMsg = wex.Message; proxyworks = false; } This code fails the first time it is called. After that on successive calls it works sometimes, but not others. It also never hits the catch block. Now the weird part. If I add a MessageBox.Show(msg) call in the first section of code before the GetResponse() call this all will work every time. Here is an example: try { // ========Here is where I make the call and get the response======== System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("Getting Response"); // ========This makes the whole thing work every time======== rqst.GetResponse(); } catch(WebException wex) { connectErrMsg = wex.Message; proxyworks = false; } I'm baffled about why it is behaving this way. I don't know if the timeout is not working (it's in milliseconds, not seconds, so should timeout after 5 seconds, right?...) or what is going on. The most confusing this is that the message box call makes it all work. So any help and suggestions on what is happening is appreciated. These are the kind of bugs that drive me absolutely out of my mind.

  Read the article

• Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does Visual Studio's designer not use my custom ActivityDesignerThem

  - by stakx

  Problem: I am trying to customize a custom Workflow Foundation activity (called CustomActivity) so that it will display with a specific background color. What I've got so far: First, I'm defining a custom ActivityDesignerTheme as follows: public class CustomActivityTheme : ActivityDesignerTheme { public CustomActivityTheme(WorkflowTheme theme) : base(theme) { this.BackColorStart = Color.FromArgb(0xff, 0xf4, 0xf4, 0xf4); this.BackColorEnd = Color.FromArgb(0xff, 0xc0, 0xc0, 0xc0); this.BackgroundStyle = LinearGradientMode.Horizontal; } } Then, I am applying this theme to a custom ActivityDesigner (apparently the theme must be applied to a designer, and not to an activity): [ActivityDesignerTheme(typeof(CustomActivityTheme))] public class CustomActivityDesigner : SequentialActivityDesigner { ... } Ultimately, I am applying the custom designer to my custom Activity: [Designer(typeof(CustomActivityDesigner))] public partial class CustomActivity : SequenceActivity { ... } Now, according to some code examples that I've seen, this should do the trick. However, when I include an instance of my CustomActivity in a workflow, my custom theme is not applied and it is displayed in the Visual Studio Designer as any standard activity would (white background etc.). I tried re-compiling and even re-starting Visual Studio a couple of times, just to make sure the used assembly is up-to-date, but to no avail. My question: What am I missing? Why does Visual Studio's Workflow Designer not respect the CustomActivityTheme when it displays a CustomActivity?

  Read the article

• Weblogic 10.3, JDBC, Oracle, SQL - Table or View does not exist

  - by shelfoo

  Hi, I've got a really odd issue that I've not had any success googling for. It started happening with no changes to the DB, connection settings, code etc. Problem is, when accessing a servlet, one of the EJB's is doing a direct SQL call, very simple "select \n" + " value, \n" + " other_value \n" + " from \n" + " some_table \n" + " where some_condition = ? " That's obviously not the direct SQL, but pretty close. For some reason, this started returning an error stating "ORA-00942: table or view does not exist". The table exists, and the kicker is if I hook in a debugger, change a space or something minor (not changing the query itself) in the query, and hot-deploy the change, it works fine. This isn't the first time I've run across this. It only seems to happen in dev environments (haven't seen it in q/a, sandbox, or production yet), is not always replicable, and driving me seriously insane. By not always replicable I mean that occasionally a clean build & redeploy will sometimes fix the problem, but not always. It's not always the same table (although if the error occurs it continues with the same query). Just throwing a feeler out there to see if anybody has run into issues like this before, and what they may have discovered to fix it.

  Read the article

• Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does setting a DependencyProperty to a COM object using SetValue() t

  - by stakx

  Assume that I have a .NET Workflow Foundation (WF) SequenceActivity class with the following property: public IWorkspace Workspace { get; set; } // ^^^^^^^^^^ // important: this is a COM interface type! public static DependencyProperty WorkspaceProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Workspace", typeof(IWorkspace), typeof(FoobarActivity)); // <-- this activity class This activity executes some code that sets both of the above like this: this.Workspace = ...; // exact code not relevant; property set to a COM object SetValue(WorkspaceProperty, this.Workspace); The last line (which makes the call to SetValue) results in an ArgumentException for the second parameter (having the value of this.Workspace): Type […].IWorkspace of dependency property Workspace does not match the value's type System.__ComObject.                                           (translated from German, the English exception text might differ slightly) As soon as I register the dependency property with typeof(object) instead of typeof(IWorkspace) as the second parameter, the code executes just fine. However, that would result in the possibility to assign just about any value to the dependency property, and I do not want that. It seems to me that WF dependency properties don't work for COM interop objects.Does anyone have a solution to this?

  Read the article

• Why isn't my new object being seen? C#

  - by Dan

  I am getting ready to take a class at a college on C#. I have been reading up on it a lot and decided to start a fun project. Here is what my project consists of: Main Control Form Configuration Form Arduino Program.cs calls Configuration.cs at start. This is where pin modes for the Arduino are set and where a timer is set. When I set these values, they get sent to MainControl.cs. When I hit the "Save" button in Configuration.cs, a MainControl.cs object is created [[I am correct in that?]] All of those values that were sent by Configuration.cs had corresponding setters that set private static variables in MainControl.cs [[ I don't really know if that is the preferred way, I am most definetly open to any suggestion anyone has]] MainControl.cs uses its default constructor, and this constructor calls a method that creates an arduino object from one of the private variables (serialPort) [[ Using this Arduino class Firmata.NET ]] When the arduino object is created, I know (I guess I do) because the form takes a few seconds to come up (As opposed to not using serial port) My problem is this: I do not understand why nothing can see the object I have been very wordy, I apologize if I wasn't concise. Here is the code: public partial class CMainControl : Form { private static string serialPort; public CMainControl() { InitializeComponent(); createArduino(); updateConfig(); // Change label values to values set in configuration } private void createArduino() { Arduino arduino = new Arduino(serialPort); } In Configuration.cs, when I set the serial port through a combobox, the value is sent to MainControl.cs just fine. Here is the error I get: Error 1 The name 'arduino' does not exist in the current context C:\Programming\Visual Studio\Workhead Demo\Workhead Demo\CMainControl.cs 94 13 Workhead Demo Please let me know if anyone can help and/or offer pointers, and please let me know if I didn't post or format anything correctly. Thank you very much :)

  Read the article

• Why do people hate SQL cursors so much?

  - by Steven A. Lowe

  I can understand wanting to avoid having to use a cursor due to the overhead and inconvenience, but it looks like there's some serious cursor-phobia-mania going on where people are going to great lengths to avoid having to use one for example, one question asked how to do something obviously trivial with a cursor and the accepted answer proposed using a common table expression (CTE) recursive query with a recursive custom function, even though this limits the number of rows that could be processed to 32 (due to recursive call limit in sql server). This strikes me as a terrible solution for system longevity, not to mention a tremendous effort just to avoid using a simple cursor. what is the reason for this level of insane hatred? has some 'noted authority' issued a fatwa against cursors? does some unspeakable evil lurk in the heart of cursors that corrupts the morals of the children or something? wiki question, more interested in the answer than the rep thanks in advance! Related Info: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/37029/sql-server-fast-forward-cursors EDIT: let me be more precise: I understand that cursors should not be used instead of normal relational operations, that is a no-brainer. What I don't understand is people going waaaaay out of their way to avoid cursors like they have cooties or something, even when a cursor is a simpler and/or more efficient solution. It's the irrational hatred that baffles me, not the obvious technical efficiencies.

  Read the article

• Why is an Add method required for { } initialization?

  - by Dan Tao

  To use initialization syntax like this: var contacts = new ContactList { { "Dan", "[email protected]" }, { "Eric", "[email protected]" } }; ...my understanding is that my ContactList type would need to define an Add method that takes two string parameters: public void Add(string name, string email); What's a bit confusing to me about this is that the { } initializer syntax seems most useful when creating read-only or fixed-size collections. After all it is meant to mimic the initialization syntax for an array, right? (OK, so arrays are not read-only; but they are fixed size.) And naturally it can only be used when the collection's contents are known (at least the number of elements) at compile-time. So it would almost seem that the main requirement for using this collection initializer syntax (having an Add method and therefore a mutable collection) is at odds with the typical case in which it would be most useful. I'm sure I haven't put as much thought into this matter as the C# design team; it just seems that there could have been different rules for this syntax that would have meshed better with its typical usage scenarios. Am I way off base here? Is the desire to use the { } syntax to initialize fixed-size collections not as common as I think? What other factors might have influenced the formulation of the requirements for this syntax that I'm simply not thinking of?

  Read the article

• Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

  - by Goosey

  I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

  Read the article

• Why is Lua considered a game language?

  - by Hoffmann

  I have been learning about Lua in the past month and I'm absolutely in love with the language, but all I see around that is built with lua are games. I mean, the syntax is very simple, there is no fuss, no special meaning characters that makes code look like regex, has all the good things about a script language and integrates so painlessly with other languages like C, Java, etc. The only down-side I saw so far is the prototype based object orientation that some people do not like (or lack of OO built-in). I do not see how ruby or python are better, surely not in performance ( http://shootout.alioth.debian.org/gp4/benchmark.php?test=all&lang=lua&lang2=python ). I was planning on writting a web app using lua with the Kepler framework and Javascript, but the lack of other projects that use lua as a web language makes me feel a bit uneasy since this is my first try with web development. Lua is considered a kids language, most of you on stackoverflow probably only know the language because of the WoW addons. I can't really see why that is... http://lua-users.org/wiki/LuaVersusPython this link provides some insights on Lua against Python, but this is clearly biased.

  Read the article

• Why is there unreachable code here?

  - by Richard

  I am writing a c# app and want to output error messages to either the console or a messagebox (Depending on the app type: enum AppTypeChoice { Console, Windows } ), and also control wether the app keeps running or not ( bool StopOnError ). I came up with this method that will check all the criteria, but I'm getting an "unreachable code detected" warning. I can't see why! Here is the whole method (Brace yourselves for some hobbyist code!) public void OutputError(string message) { string standardMessage = "Something went WRONG!. [ But I'm not telling you what! ]"; string defaultMsgBoxTitle = "Aaaaarrrggggggggggg!!!!!"; string dosBoxOutput = "\n\n*** " + defaultMsgBoxTitle + " *** \n\n Message was: '" + message + "'\n\n"; AppTypeChoice appType = DataDefs.AppType; DebugLevelChoice level = DataDefs.DebugLevel; // Decide how much info we should give out here... if (level != DebugLevelChoice.None) { // Give some info.... if (appType == AppTypeChoice.Windows) MessageBox.Show(message, defaultMsgBoxTitle, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); else Console.WriteLine(dosBoxOutput); } else { // Be very secretive... if (appType == AppTypeChoice.Windows) MessageBox.Show(standardMessage, defaultMsgBoxTitle, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); else Console.WriteLine(standardMessage); } // Decide if app falls over or not.. if (DataDefs.StopOnError == true) Environment.Exit(0); // UNREACHABLE CODE HERE } Also, while I have your attention, to get the app type, I'm just using a constant at the top of the file (ie. AppTypeChoice.Console in a Console app etc) - is there a better way of doing this (i mean finding out in code if it is a DOS or Windows app)? Also, I noticed that I can use a messagebox with a fully-qualified path in a Console app...How bad is is to do that ( I mean, will I get tarred and feathered when other developers see it?!) Thanks for your help

  Read the article

• why does b'(and sometimes b' ') show up when I split some HTML source[Python]

  - by Oliver

  I'm fairly new to Python and programming in general. I have done a few tutorials and am about 2/3 through a pretty good book. That being said I've been trying to get more comfortable with Python and proggramming by just trying things in the std lib out. that being said I have recently run into a wierd quirk that I'm sure is the result of my own incorrect or un-"pythonic" use of the urllib module(with Python 3.2.2) import urllib.request HTML_source = urllib.request.urlopen(www.somelink.com).read() print(HTML_source) when this bit is run through the active interpreter it returns the HTML source of somelink, however it prefixes it with b' for example b'<HTML>\r\n<HEAD> (etc). . . . if I split the string into a list by whitespace it prefixes every item with the b' I'm not really trying to accomplish something specific just trying to familiarize myself with the std lib. I would like to know why this b' is getting prefixed also bonus -- Is there a better way to get HTML source WITHOUT using a third party module. I know all that jazz about not reinventing the wheel and what not but I'm trying to learn by "building my own tools" Thanks in Advance!

  Read the article

• Why should I use Entity Framework over Linq2SQL ...

  - by Refracted Paladin

  To be clear, I am not asking for a side by side comparision which has already been asked Ad Nauseum here on SO. I am also Not asking if Linq2Sql is dead as I don't care. What I am asking is this.... I am building internal apps only for a non-profit organization. I am the only developer on staff. We ALWAYS use SQL Server as our Database backend. I design and build the Databases as well. I have used L2S successfully a couple of times already. Taking all this into consideration can someone offer me a compelling reason to use EF instead of L2S? I was at Code Camp this weekend and after an hour long demonstration on EF, all of which I could have done in L2S, I asked this same question. The speakers answer was, "L2S is dead..." Very well then! NOT! (see here) I understand EF is what MS WANTS us to use in the future(see here) and that it offers many more customization options. What I can't figure out is if any of that should, or does, matter for me in this environment. One particular issue we have here is that I inherited the Core App which was built on 4 different SQL Data bases. L2S has great difficulty with this but when I asked the aforementioned speaker if EF would help me in this regard he said "No!"

  Read the article

• Why doesn't 'Q' unify in this PROLOG program

  - by inspectorG4dget

  Hello SO, I am writing a PROLOG program in which the variable of interest (Q) refuses to unify. I have gotten around this with a hacky solution (include a write statement). But there has to be a way to make this unify, but for the love of me, I am not able to figure it out. I'd really appreciate any help. Thanks in advance. Here is my code (I have annotated wherever I have excluded code for brevity) :- use_module(library(bounds)). :- use_module(library(lists)). solve([17],Q,_,_,_):- write(Q). %this is the hacky workaround solve(L,Q,1,3,2) :- jump(L,Q,N,1,3,2,R), solve(N,R,S,D,M), member([S|[D|[M|[]]]],[[1, 3, 2], [1, 9, 4], [2, 10, 5] this list contains 76 items - all of which are lists of length 3. I have omitted them here for the sake of brevity]). % there are about 75 other definitions for solve, all of which are structured exactly the same. The only difference is that the numbers in the input parameters will be different in each definition jump(L,Q,N,S,D,M,R):- member(S,L), not(member(D,L)), member(M,L), delete(L,S,X), delete(X,M,Y), append(Y,[D],N), append(Q,[[S,D]],R). cross_sol(Q) :- solve([5,9,10,11,17,24],[],S,D,M), member([S,D,M], [ I have edited out this list here for the sake of brevity. It is the same list found in the definition of solve ]). For some reason, Q does not unify. Please help!

  Read the article

• Why is my UIWebView not scrollable?

  - by Thomas

  In my most frustrating roadblock to date, I've come across a UIWebView that will NOT scroll! I call it via this IBAction: -(IBAction)session2ButtonPressed:(id)sender { Session2ViewController *session2View = [[Session2ViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"Session2ViewController" bundle:nil]; self.addictionViewController = session2View; [self.view insertSubview:addictionViewController.view atIndex:[self.view.subviews count]]; [session2View release]; } In the viewDidLoad of Session2ViewController.m, I have - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // TRP - Grab data from plist // TRP - Build file path to the plist NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Addiction" ofType:@"plist"]; // TRP - Create NSDictionary with contents of the plist NSDictionary *addictionDict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; // TRP - Create an array with contents of the dictionary NSArray *addictionData = [addictionDict objectForKey:@"Addiction1"]; NSLog(@"addictionData (array): %@", addictionData); // TRP - Create a string with the contents of the array NSString *addictionText = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<DIV style='font-family:%@;font-size:%d;'>%@</DIV>", @"Helvetica", 18, [addictionData objectAtIndex:1]]; addictionInfo.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; // TRP - Load the string created and stored into addictionText and display in the UIWebView [addictionInfo loadHTMLString:addictionText baseURL:nil]; // TODO: MAKE THIS WEBVIEW SCROLL!!!!!! } In the nib, I connected my web view to the delegate and to the outlet. When I run my main project, the plist with my HTML code shows up, but does not scroll. I copied and pasted this code into a new project, wired the nib the exact same way, and badda-boom badda-bing. . . it works. I even tried to create a new nib from scratch in this project, and the exact same code would not work. Whiskey Tango Foxtrot Any ideas?? Thanks! Thomas

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >