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  • Access 2003 VBA: Return only the index of the last item selected in a ListBox

    - by Eric D. Johnson
    I will preface this with saying, this is my first time using listboxes and earlier posts were criticized for lacking detail. So, all help is greatly appreciated and I hope this is enough information without being overkill. Currently, I have a listbox updating a junction table with an on click event (iterates through selected items and if they are not in the table it adds them). The list box is also updated by an option group (based on the option group value a query populates the list with the appropriate items and they are selected/highlighted based on the junction table). Also, when items are a "sub-category" the "category" is also selected. This functions perfectly until I ask it to do more... Problem 1: I need to differentiate "categories" of items from each other. So, I have included a blank item to the list box to add a space between categories. When the blank items are present the listbox does not update the junction table properly and vice versa. Problem 2: My users want to be able to deselect the "category" under certain circumstances. This is fine, just de-select the "category" after the "sub-category" is selected. However, the "category" is re-selected whenever the listbox is clicked again because it iterates through all entries. Perceived solution for both problems: Return only the index of the item (de)selected and manipulate accordingly. Is this possible? If so, how? OR: Should I take a different approach?

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  • ASP.NET Memory Usage in IIS is FAR greater than in DevEnv. Is this normal?

    - by Tom
    Greetings! I have an ASP.NET app that scrapes data from a handful of external pages, parses the relevant bits and displays them in a table. Total data retrieved is 3-4MB and the resulting page is about 1MB. I am using synchronous WebRequest GetResponse for the retrieval, but the same problem existed using an asynchronous BeginGetResponse/EndGetResponse process. There is no database access, no session storage, no caching, but an in-memory list of about 100 objects (total 1MB of data), plus a good amount of AJAX (AjaxControlToolkit). This issue appears on the very first run of the app, even if I have restarted IIS. The issue: When I run the app on my dev computer, the maximum commit charge is about 1.5GB. The biggest user, measured by Task Manager's VM Size, is WebDev.WebServer.exe (600MB). The app runs perfectly. When I run it on my rent-a-server (IIS 7.5, 1GB RAM), the maximum commit charge is over 3.8GB. The biggest user is w3wp.exe at 2.7GB. IIS grinds to a halt and spits out a timed-out error page. Given my limited server budget and the hope of having multiple simultaneous users, I'm kind of in a panic. Is this normal? If I bump the server RAM up to 4GB, will that be enough? Will multiple users require even more memory? Could the culprit be AJAX or the list of objects? Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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  • Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

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  • multithreading issue

    - by vbNewbie
    I have written a multithreaded crawler and the process is simply creating threads and having them access a list of urls to crawl. They then access the urls and parse the html content. All this seems to work fine. Now when I need to write to tables in a database is when I experience issues. I have 2 declared arraylists that will contain the content each thread parse. The first arraylist is simply the rss feed links and the other arraylist contains the different posts. I then use a for each loop to iterate one while sequentially incrementing the other and writing to the database. My problem is that each time a new thread accesses one of the lists the content is changed and this affects the iteration. I tried using nested loops but it did not work before and this works fine using a single thread.I hope this makes sense. Here is my code: SyncLock dlock For Each l As String In links finallinks.Add(l) Next End SyncLock SyncLock dlock For Each p As String In posts finalposts.Add(p) Next End SyncLock ... Dim i As Integer = 0 SyncLock dlock For Each rsslink As String In finallinks postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 finallinks and finalposts are the two arraylists. I did not include the rest of the code which shows the threads working but this is the essential part where my error occurs which is basically here postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 ERROR: index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection Is there an alternative?

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  • How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

    - by Bungle
    Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

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  • Masters in Computer Science

    - by reko
    Hi, My name is Gautam. I come from India. I am extremely passionate about Web Development.. I like to build web applications all the time.. Can I make this web application building a full time profession? I have just graduated from bachelors... Is there a Master of Computer Science in Web Development? Can I choose Masters in Web Development? Is it a bad choice? Is there a course very close to it Web Development that I can choose? Should I just keep Web Development as a part time thing to do?? Could you please let me know any good universities which offer this course/ close to this course for Spring 2010? Please advice on what I should do because my mind keeps throwing millions of questions on what I should do and my only hope is STACKOVERFLOW helps me as it always does to solve problems.. Looking forward for your reply.. Thanks in advance Regards, Gautam

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  • How much should the AppDelegate do?

    - by Rudiger
    I'm designing quite a large App and on startup it will create sessions with a few different servers. As they are creating a session which is used across all parts of the app its something I thought would be best in App Delegate. But the problem is I need the session progress to be represented on the screen. I plan to have a UIToolBar at the bottom of the main menu which I don't want to cover with the progress bar but cover the UIView above it.So the way I see it I could do it a few different ways. 1) Have the App Delegate establish the sessions and report the progress to the main menu class so it can represent it in the progress bar (will I have any issues doing this if the sessions are created in a separate thread?), 2) have the App delegate display the main menu (UIView with a bunch of buttons and UIToolBar) and have it track and display the progress (I have never displayed anything in the App Delegate but assume you can do this but its not recommended) or 3) have the App Delegate just push the main menu and have the mainMenu class create the sessions and display the progress bar. 4) I think the other way to do it is to create the sessions in a delegate class and have the delegate set to mainMenu rather than self (AppDelegate), although I've never used anything other then self so not sure if this will work or if I will be able to close the thread (through calling super maybe?) as its running in the AppDelegate rather than the delegate of the class. As I've kinda said before the sessions are being created in a class in a separate thread so it wont lock the UI and I think the best way is the first but am I going to have issues having it running in a separate thread, reporting back to the app delegate and then sending that message to the mainMenu view? I hope that all makes sense, let me know if you need any further clarification. Any information is appreciated Cheers,

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  • Gzip and subprocess' stdout in python

    - by pythonic metaphor
    I'm using python 2.6.4 and discovered that I can't use gzip with subprocess the way I might hope. This illustrates the problem: May 17 18:05:36> python Python 2.6.4 (r264:75706, Mar 10 2010, 14:41:19) [GCC 4.1.2 20071124 (Red Hat 4.1.2-42)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import gzip >>> import subprocess >>> fh = gzip.open("tmp","wb") >>> subprocess.Popen("echo HI", shell=True, stdout=fh).wait() 0 >>> fh.close() >>> [2]+ Stopped python May 17 18:17:49> file tmp tmp: data May 17 18:17:53> less tmp "tmp" may be a binary file. See it anyway? May 17 18:17:58> zcat tmp zcat: tmp: not in gzip format Here's what it looks like inside less HI ^_<8B>^H^Hh<C0><F1>K^B<FF>tmp^@^C^@^@^@^@^@^@^@^@^@ which looks like it put in the stdout as text and then put in an empty gzip file. Indeed, if I remove the "Hi\n", then I get this: May 17 18:22:34> file tmp tmp: gzip compressed data, was "tmp", last modified: Mon May 17 18:17:12 2010, max compression What is going on here?

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  • calling template function without <>; type inference

    - by Oops
    Hi, if I have a function template with typename T, where the compiler can set the type by itself, I do not have to write the type explicitely when I call the function like: template < typename T > T min( T v1, T v2 ) { return ( v1 < v2 ) ? v1: v2; } int i1 = 1, i2 = 2; int i3 = min( i1, i2 ); //no explicit <type> but if I have a function template with two different typenames like... template < typename TOut, typename TIn > TOut round( TIn v ) { return (TOut)( v + 0.5 ); } double d = 1.54; int i = round<int>(d); //explicit <int> Is it true that I have to specify at least 1 typename, always? I assume the reason is because C++ can not distinguish functions between different return types, true? but if I use a void function and handover a reference, again I must not explicitely specify the return typename: template < typename TOut, typename TIn > void round( TOut & vret, TIn vin ) { vret = (TOut)(vin + 0.5); } double d = 1.54; int i; round(i, d); //no explicit <int> should the conclusion be to avoid functions with return and more prefer void functions that return via a reference when writing templates? Or is there a possibility to avoid explicitely writing the return type? something like "type inference" for templates... is "type inference" possible in C++0x? I hope I was not too unclear. many thanks in advance Oops

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  • Conversion type

    - by Ruben
    Hi, I've got the following question. I've got one class "Instellingen" that's a property in 3 other classes public class Instellingen { private int _ID; } public class Class1: Label { private Instellingen _Instellingen; } public class Class2 : Label { private Instellingen _Instellingen; } public class Class3 : Label { private Instellingen _Instellingen; } If I've got another class, that uses the other classes (but it can be anyone of this 3 classes) Do i have to use a switch? or is there an easier way? public class AnotherClass { public AnotherClass () { GetInstellingenFromClass(new Class1()); GetInstellingenFromClass(new Class2()); GetInstellingenFromClass(new Class3()); } private void GetInstellingenFromClass(Control c) { switch (c.GetType.ToString()) { case "Class1": Class1 klasse = (Class1) c; //Do something with the _Instellingen of this class break; case "Class2": Class2 klasse2 = (Class2) c; //Do something with the _Instellingen of this class break; case "Class3": Class3 klasse3 = (Class3)c; //Do something with the _Instellingen of this class break; } } } (does there exists something so i can just do something like c._Instellingen -- without converting it first to the right type, where it doesn't matter what type c is?) I hope you understand my question. Thanks

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  • Multiple threads modifying a collection in Java??

    - by posdef
    Hi, The project I am working on requires a whole bunch of queries towards a database. In principle there are two types of queries I am using: read from excel file, check for a couple of parameters and do a query for hits in the database. These hits are then registered as a series of custom classes. Any hit may (and most likely will) occur more than once so this part of the code checks and updates the occurrence in a custom list implementation that extends ArrayList. for each hit found, do a detail query and parse the output, so that the classes created in (I) get detailed info. I figured I would use multiple threads to optimize time-wise. However I can't really come up with a good way to solve the problem that occurs with the collection these items are stored in. To elaborate a little bit; throughout the execution objects are supposed to be modified by both (I) and (II). I deliberately didn't c/p any code, as it would be big chunks of code to make any sense.. I hope it make some sense with the description above. Thanks,

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  • how to parametrize an import in a View?

    - by Gianluca Colucci
    Hello everybody, I am looking for some help and I hope that some good soul out there will be able to give me a hint :) In the app I am building, I have a View. When an instance of this View gets created, it "imports" (MEF) the corresponding ViewModel. Here some code: public partial class ContractEditorView : Window { public ContractEditorView () { InitializeComponent(); CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } [Import(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public object ViewModel { set { DataContext = value; } } } and here is the export for the ViewModel: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public class ContractEditorViewModel: ViewModelBase { public ContractEditorViewModel() { _contract = new Models.Contract(); } } Now, this works if I want to open a new window to create a new contract... But it does not if I want to use the same window to edit an existing contract... In other words, I would like to add a second construct both in the View and in the ViewModel: the original constructor would accept no parameters and therefore it would create a new contract; the new construct - the one I'd like to add - I'd like to pass an ID so that I can load a given entity... What I don't understand is how to pass this ID to the ViewModel import... Thanks in advance, Cheers, Gianluca.

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  • SQL: How do I INSERT primary key values from two tables INTO a master table.

    - by Stefan
    Hello, I would appreciate some help with an SQL statement I really can't get my head around. What I want to do is fairly simple, I need to take the values from two different tables and copy them into an master table when a new row is inserted into one of the two tables. The problem is perhaps best explained like this: I have three tables, productcategories, regioncategories and mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- I want the values to be inserted like this when a new row is created in either productcategories or regioncategories. New row is created. --------------------------- TABLE: PRODUCTCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: BOOKS | Books --------------------------- VALUES: DVD | DVDs --------------------------- And a SQL statement copies the new values into the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- The same goes if a row is created in the regioncategories. New row. --------------------------- TABLE: REGIONCATEGORIES --------------------------- COLUMNS: CODE | DESCRIPTION --------------------------- VALUES: EU | European Union --------------------------- VALUES: US | United States --------------------------- Copied to the mastertable. --------------------------- TABLE: MASTERTABLE --------------------------- COLUMNS: REGION | PRODUCT --------------------------- VALUES: EU | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: EU | DVD --------------------------- VALUES: US | BOOKS --------------------------- VALUES: US | DVD --------------------------- I hope it makes sense. Thanks, Stefan

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  • How can I validate/secure/authenticate a JavaScript-based POST request?

    - by Bungle
    A product I'm helping to develop will basically work like this: A Web publisher creates a new page on their site that includes a <script> from our server. When a visitor reaches that new page, that <script> gathers the text content of the page and sends it to our server via a POST request (cross-domain, using a <form> inside of an <iframe>). Our server processes the text content and returns a response (via JSONP) that includes an HTML fragment listing links to related content around the Web. This response is cached and served to subsequent visitors until we receive another POST request with text content from the same URL, at which point we regenerate a "fresh" response. These POSTs only happen when our cached TTL expires, at which point the server signifies that and prompts the <script> on the page to gather and POST the text content again. The problem is that this system seems inherently insecure. In theory, anyone could spoof the HTTP POST request (including the referer header, so we couldn't just check for that) that sends a page's content to our server. This could include any text content, which we would then use to generate the related content links for that page. The primary difficulty in making this secure is that our JavaScript is publicly visible. We can't use any kind of private key or other cryptic identifier or pattern because that won't be secret. Ideally, we need a method that somehow verifies that a POST request corresponding to a particular Web page is authentic. We can't just scrape the Web page and compare the content with what's been POSTed, since the purpose of having JavaScript submit the content is that it may be behind a login system. Any ideas? I hope I've explained the problem well enough. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.

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  • How can I make an even more random number in ActionScript 2.0

    - by Theo
    I write a piece of software that runs inside banner ads which generates millions of session IDs every day. For a long time I've known that the random number generator in Flash is't random enough to generate sufficiently unique IDs, so I've employed a number of tricks to get even more random numbers. However, in ActionScript 2.0 it's not easy, and I'm seeing more and more collisions, so I wonder if there is something I've overlooked. As far as I can tell the problem with Math.random() is that it's seeded by the system time, and when you have sufficient numbers of simultaneous attempts you're bound to see collisions. In ActionScript 3.0 I use the System.totalMemory, but there's no equivalent in ActionScript 2.0. AS3 also has Font.enumerateFonts, and a few other things that are different from system to system. On the server side I also add the IP address to the session ID, but even that isn't enough (for example, many large companies use a single proxy server and that means that thousands of people all have the same IP -- and since they tend to look at the same sites, with the same ads, roughly at the same time, there are many session ID collisions). What I need isn't something perfectly random, just something that is random enough to dilute the randomness I get from Math.random(). Think of it this way: there is a certain chance that two people will generate the same random number sequence using only Math.random(), but the chance of two people generating the same sequence and having, say, the exact same list of fonts is significantly lower. I cannot rely on having sufficient script access to use ExternalInterface to get hold of things like the user agent, or the URL of the page. I don't need suggestions of how to do it in AS3, or any other system, only AS2 -- using only what's available in the standard APIs. The best I've come up with so far is to use the list of microphones (Microphone.names), but I've also tried to make some fingerprinting using some of the properties in System.capabilities, I'm not sure how much randomness I can get out of that though so I'm not using that at the moment. I hope I've overlooked something.

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  • How do programming languages bind identifiers to functions

    - by sub
    I'm talking about C and/or C++ here as this are the only languages I know used for interpreters where the following could be a problem: If we have an interpreted language X how can a library written for it add functions to the language which can then be called from within programs written in the language? PHP example: substr( $str, 5, 10 ); How is the function substr added to the "function pool" of PHP so it can be called from within scripts? It is easy for PHP storing all registered function names in an array and searching through it as a function is called in a script. However, as there obviously is no eval in C(++), how can the function then be called? I assume PHP doesn't have 100MB of code like: if( identifier == "substr" ) { return PHP_SUBSTR(...); } else if( ... ) { ... } Ha ha, that would be pretty funny. I hope you have understood my question so far. How do interpreters solve this problem? How can I solve this for my own experimental toy interpreter?

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  • Jquery if statement help

    - by mtwallet
    Hi. I want to know how to correctly write an if statement with jquery. I have a bunch of div's with an anchor in each that when clicked expands the the div's width using toggleClass. This works fine but I want to write an if statement that checks to see if the other div's have the same class applied, if so contract that div, then expand the next div (hope that makes sense), my code so far: HTML: <div class="content-block"> <h2>Title</h2> <p>Content...</p> <a class="expand" href="#">Expand View</a> </div> <div class="content-block"> <h2>Title</h2> <p>Content...</p> <a class="expand" href="#">Expand View</a> </div> <div class="content-block"> <h2>Title</h2> <p>Content...</p> <a class="expand" href="#">Expand View</a> </div> <div class="content-block"> <h2>Title</h2> <p>Content...</p> <a class="expand" href="#">Expand View</a> </div> JQUERY: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a.expand').click(function(){ $(this).parent('.content-block').toggleClass('wide'); }); });

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  • Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

    - by abemonkey
    I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

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  • Ignore case in Python strings

    - by Paul Oyster
    What is the easiest way to compare strings in Python, ignoring case? Of course one can do (str1.lower() <= str2.lower()), etc., but this created two additional temporary strings (with the obvious alloc/g-c overheads). I guess I'm looking for an equivalent to C's stricmp(). [Some more context requested, so I'll demonstrate with a trivial example:] Suppose you want to sort a looong list of strings. You simply do theList.sort(). This is O(n * log(n)) string comparisons and no memory management (since all strings and list elements are some sort of smart pointers). You are happy. Now, you want to do the same, but ignore the case (let's simplify and say all strings are ascii, so locale issues can be ignored). You can do theList.sort(key=lambda s: s.lower()), but then you cause two new allocations per comparison, plus burden the garbage-collector with the duplicated (lowered) strings. Each such memory-management noise is orders-of-magnitude slower than simple string comparison. Now, with an in-place stricmp()-like function, you do: theList.sort(cmp=stricmp) and it is as fast and as memory-friendly as theList.sort(). You are happy again. The problem is any Python-based case-insensitive comparison involves implicit string duplications, so I was expecting to find a C-based comparisons (maybe in module string). Could not find anything like that, hence the question here. (Hope this clarifies the question).

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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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  • iPhone OS: Why is my managedModelObject not complying with Key Value Coding?

    - by nickthedude
    Ok so I'm trying to build this stat tracker for my app and I have built a data model object called statTracker that keeps track of all the stuff I want it to. I can set and retrieve values using the selectors, but if I try and use KVC (ie setValue: forKey: ) everything goes bad and says my StatTracker class is not KVC compliant: valueForUndefinedKey:]: the entity StatTracker is not key value coding-compliant for the key "timesLauched".' 2010-05-18 15:55:08.573 here's the code that is triggering it: NSArray *statTrackerArray = [[NSArray alloc] init]; statTrackerArray = [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] getStatTracker]; NSNumber *number1 = [[NSNumber alloc] init]; number1 = [NSNumber numberWithInt:(1 + [[(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"timesLauched"] intValue])]; [(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] setValue:number1 forKey:@"timesLaunched" ]; NSError *error; if (![[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"error writing to db"); } Not sure if this is enough code for you folks let me know what you need if you do need more. This would be so sweet if I could use KVC because I could then abstract all this stat tracking stuff into a single method call with a string argument for the value in question. At least that is what I hope to accomplish here. I'm actually now understanding the power of KVC but now I'm just trying to figure out how to make it work. Thanks! Nick

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  • Lightweight alternative to Manual/AutoResetEvent in C#

    - by sweetlilmre
    Hi, I have written what I hope is a lightweight alternative to using the ManualResetEvent and AutoResetEvent classes in C#/.NET. The reasoning behind this was to have Event like functionality without the weight of using a kernel locking object. Although the code seems to work well in both testing and production, getting this kind of thing right for all possibilities can be a fraught undertaking and I would humbly request any constructive comments and or criticism from the StackOverflow crowd on this. Hopefully (after review) this will be useful to others. Usage should be similar to the Manual/AutoResetEvent classes with Notify() used for Set(). Here goes: using System; using System.Threading; public class Signal { private readonly object _lock = new object(); private readonly bool _autoResetSignal; private bool _notified; public Signal() : this(false, false) { } public Signal(bool initialState, bool autoReset) { _autoResetSignal = autoReset; _notified = initialState; } public virtual void Notify() { lock (_lock) { // first time? if (!_notified) { // set the flag _notified = true; // unblock a thread which is waiting on this signal Monitor.Pulse(_lock); } } } public void Wait() { Wait(Timeout.Infinite); } public virtual bool Wait(int milliseconds) { lock (_lock) { bool ret = true; // this check needs to be inside the lock otherwise you can get nailed // with a race condition where the notify thread sets the flag AFTER // the waiting thread has checked it and acquires the lock and does the // pulse before the Monitor.Wait below - when this happens the caller // will wait forever as he "just missed" the only pulse which is ever // going to happen if (!_notified) { ret = Monitor.Wait(_lock, milliseconds); } if (_autoResetSignal) { _notified = false; } return (ret); } } }

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  • JSF 2.0 Dynamic Views

    - by Robe Eleckers
    Hello, I'm working on a web project which uses JSF 2.0, PrimeFaces and PrettyFaces as main frameworks / libraries. The pages have the following (common) structure: Header, Content, Footer. Header: The Header always contains the same menu. This menu is a custom component, which generates a recursive html <ul><li> list containing <a href="url"> html links, this is all rendered with a custom renderer. The link looks like 'domain.com/website/datatable.xhtml?ref=2'. Where the ref=2 used to load the correct content from the database. I use prettyfaces to store this request value in a backingbean. Question 1: Is it ok to render the <a href> links myself, or should I better add an HTMLCommandLink from my UIComponent and render that in the encodeBegin/End? Question 2: I think passing variables like this is not really the JSF 2.0 style, how to do this in a better way? Content: The content contains dynamic data. It can be a (primefaces) datatable, build with dynamic data from the database. It can also be a text page, also loaded from the database. Or a series of graphs. You got the point, it's dynamic. The content is based on the link pressed in the header menu. If the content is of type datatable, then I put the ref=2 variable to a DataTableBean (via prettyfaces), which then loads the correct datatable from the database. If the content is of type chart, I'll put it on the ChartBean. Question 3: Is this a normal setup? Ideally I would like to update my content via Ajax. I hope it's clear :)

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  • SQL Express Edition, SQL Compact Editin and SQLCMD for learning purpose

    - by Mil
    Hi, I want to learn programming in SQL from some SQL tutorial sites of which I heard of here but I need some environment for executing query's. I think I have both SQL CE and SQL EE installed on my computer but I have some doubts about these DBMS and I don't know exactly how to use SQLCMD utility so I hope someone here will have time and will to explain me the following: Since running sqlcmd -S.\sqlexpress at command prompt command gives "1" prompt I assume I have SQL express installed but anyway how can I be sure what I have installed on my machine since I cannot find in installed programs SQL Express Edition name? Can I ship and use database with my C# (VC# Express) application which was created with SQL EE (embedded?)? How can use sqlcmd for learning SQL, that is by issuing commands like create, use, select..., again emphasize is on learning SQL I do not want to run scripts but use interactive command prompt like with MySQL (since I want to use SQL I would pretty much like to avoid graphical tools for DBMS)? Please tell me if you have some other advice regarding as to what should I better use in learning how to program in SQL or should I stick with the above for now. Thanks in advance.

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  • magento payment process.. how it works in general

    - by spirytus
    hi everyone, got a question and I hope this is right place to ask :).. don’t quite understand how payment works in magento. client goes to checkout and lets say wants to pay as a guest, so provides address etc. and finally gets to payment methods. Then I want clients to pay thru credit card. Already have module installed for gateway (bank?) of my choice. At that point I would expect users to be redirected to 3rd party page (bank hosted) where they giving all the details, only after being returned to my magento site with appropriate message. In magento however it seems like they need to provide cc numbers and details on magento checkout page. I don’t understand if I (or the payment module I installed) need to transfer then all the credit card details to bank? I would have to have checkout page on ssl connection and static ip right? The thing is I want to avoid touching CC numbers at any point and would love to have it done by a bank page. I like the idea of magento interface all the way without redirecting to another page though, the only problem is not sure if would be able to set it all up properly. If anyone could explain to me possible options, what is the common way to do it and how the whole process works that would be very much appreciated. I did my research and looked all over google and various forums still need someones help though. Please let me know if some parts of my question are not quite clear, will try to better explain if necessary.

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