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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • How do I update blackberry UI items from a thread?

    - by Andrei T. Ursan
    public class PlayText extends Thread { private int duration; private String text; private PlayerScreen playerscrn; public PlayText(String text, int duration) { this.duration = duration; this.text = text; this.playerscrn = (PlayerScreen)UiApplication.getUiApplication().getActiveScreen(); } public void run() { synchronized(UiApplication.getEventLock()) { try{ RichTextField text1player = new RichTextField(this.text, Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text1player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(this.duration); RichTextField text2player = new RichTextField("hahhaha", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text2player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(1000); RichTextField text3player = new RichTextField("Done", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text3player); playerscrn.invalidate(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("I HAVE AN ERROR"); } } } } With the above code I'm trying to create a small text player. Instead to get all the text labels one by one, something like display text1player wait this.duration milliseconds display text2player wait 1000 milliseconds display text3player thread done. The screens waits this.duration + 1000 milliseconds and displays all the labels at once. I tried with a runnable and calling .invokeLater or .invokeAndWait but I still get the same behavior, and even if I get dirty like above using synchronized it still doesn't work. Does anyone know how I can display each label at a time? Thank you!

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  • qTip jQuery Plugin not always Firing

    - by tonsils
    Hi, I am using the qTip jquery plugin qTip plugin for a website I'm working on based on another thread I raised here: stack overflow thread My question is, I have a navigation bar running along the top of my screen which is basically sets the title attribute based on the tab menu you are in, these are all stored within a javascript array. For example, I have three menu options running along the top of the screen, say Menu A, Menu B and Menu C. I also have an information image positioned at the rightmost position of the nav bar, which I set the title attribute, based on the Menu option selected in the Nav Bar. For example: Menu A => myRole[0] = "Admin" Menu B => myRole[1] = "Manager" Menu C => myRole[2] = "Guest" So basically as the user clicks on each of the menus in the nav bar, I set the title attribute in the information image to either "Admin","Manager" or "Guest". At startup, the qTip plugin works and displays "Admin" when I hover over it but when I change the menu to Menu C, it still displays "Admin" instead of "Guest" From the looks of it, it doesn't seem to be calling the qTip plugin, which I have positioned at the footer of the screen (see actual code below). Any ideas how to ensure that the qTip fires every time I click/change menu options and pickups value within javascript array? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.qtip-1.0.0-rc3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('div#infoi img[title]').qtip({ position: { adjust: { x:-110, y:0 }, corner: { target: 'bottomLeft', tooltip: 'topMiddle' } }, style: { width: 250, padding: 5, background: '#E7F1FA', color: 'black', textAlign: 'center', border: { width: 3, color: '#65a9d7' }, tip: 'topRight' } }); }); </script> Thanks.

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  • Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

    - by dotnet crazy kid
    I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

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  • Actual element tags are not getting captured.

    - by user323719
    I am using the below piece of XSL code to construct a span tag calling a javascript function on mouseover. The input to the javascipt should be a html table. The output from the variable "showContent" gives just the text content but not along with the table tags. How can this be resolved. XSL: <xsl:variable name="aTable" as="element()*"> <table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <xsl:for-each select="$capturedTags"> <tr><td><xsl:value-of select="node()" /></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="start" select='concat("Tip(&#39;", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="end" select='concat("&#39;)", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="showContent"> <xsl:value-of select='concat($start,$aTable,$end)'/> </xsl:variable> <span xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" onmouseout="{$hideContent}" onmouseover="{$showContent}" id="{$textNodeId}"><xsl:value-of select="$textNode"></xsl:value-of></span> Actual Output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('content1')" id="d1t14"is my </span Expected output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('<table><tr><td>content1</td></tr>')" id="d1t14">is my </span> What is the change that needs to done in the above XSL for the table, tr and td tags to get passed?

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • Connection

    - by pepersview
    Hello, I would like to ask you about NSURLConnection in objective-c for iPhone. I have one app that needs to connect to one webservice to receive data (about YouTube videos), Then I have all the things that I need to connect (Similar to Hello_Soap sample code in the web). But now, my problem is that I create a class (inherits from NSObject) named Connection and I have implemented the methods: didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError and connectionDidFinishLoading. Also the method: -(void)Connect:(NSString *) soapMessage{ NSLog(soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://....."]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if( theConnection ) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"theConnection is NULL"); } } But when from my AppDelegate I create one Connection object: Connection * connect = [[Connection alloc] Init:num]; //It's only one param to test. [connect Connect:method.soapMessage]; And I call this method, when this finishes, it doesn't continue calling didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError or connectionDidFinishLoading. I'm trying to do this but I can't for the moment. The thing I would like to do is to be able to call this class "Connection" each time that I want to receive data (after that to be parsed and displayed in UITableViews). Thank you.

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  • ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

    - by zoopzoop
    I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

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  • Sending URL as a parameter using javascript

    - by Prashant Singh
    I have to send a name and a link from client side to the server. I thought of using AJAX called by Javascript to do this. This is what I mean. I wished to make an ajax request to a file called abc.php with parameters :- 1. http://thumbs2.ebaystatic.com/m/m7dFgOtLUUUSpktHRspjhXw/140.jpg 2. Apple iPod touch, 3rd generation, 32GB To begin with, I encoded the URL and tried to send it. But the server says status Forbidden Any solution to this ? UPDATE :: It end up calling to http://abc.com/addToWishlist.php?rand=506075547542422&image=http://thumbs1.ebaystatic.com/m/mO64jQrMqam2jde9aKiXC9A/140.jpg&prod=Flat%20USB%20Data%20Sync%20Charging%20Charger%20Cable%20Apple%20iPhone%204G%204S%20iPod%20Touch%20Nano Javascript Code :: function addToWishlist(num) { var myurl = "addToWishlist.php"; var myurl1 = myurl; myRand = parseInt(Math.random()*999999999999999); var rand = "?rand="+myRand ; var modurl = myurl1+ rand + "&image=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][1]) + "&prod=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][0]); httpq2.open("GET", modurl, true); httpq2.onreadystatechange = useHttpResponseq2; httpq2.send(null); } function useHttpResponseq2() { if (httpq2.readyState == 4) { if(httpq2.status == 200) { var mytext = httpq2.responseText; document.getElementById('wish' + num).innerHTML = "Added to your wishlist."; } } } Server Code <?php include('/home/ankit/public_html/connect_db.php'); $image = $_GET['image']; $prod = $_GET['prod']; $id = $_GET['id']; echo $prod; echo $image; ?> As I mentioned, its pretty basics More Updates : On trying to send a POST request via AJAX to the server, it says :- Refused to set unsafe header "Content-length" Refused to set unsafe header "Connection"

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Generating dynamic css using php and javascript

    - by Onkar Deshpande
    I want to generate tooltip based on a dynamically changing background image in css. This is my my_css.php file. <?php header('content-type: text/css'); $i = $_GET['index']; if($i == 0) $bg_image_path = "../bg_red.jpg"; elseif ($i == 1) $bg_image_path = "../bg_yellow.jpg"; elseif ($i == 2) $bg_image_path = "../bg_green.jpg"; elseif ($i == 3) $bg_image_path = "../bg_blue.jpg"; ?> .tooltip { white-space: nowrap; color:green; font-weight:bold; border:1px solid black;; font-size:14px; background-color: white; margin: 0; padding: 7px 4px; border: 1px solid black; background-image: url(<?php echo $bg_image_path; ?>); background-repeat:repeat-x; font-family: Helvetica,Arial,Sans-Serif; font-family: Times New Roman,Georgia,Serif; filter:alpha(opacity=85); opacity:0.85; zoom: 1; } In order to use this css I added <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/my_css.php" type="text/css" media="screen" /> in my html <head> tag of javascript code. I am thinking of passing different values of 'index' so that it would generate the background image dynamically. Can anyone tell me how should I pass such values from a javascript ? I am creating the tooltip using var tooltip = document.createElement("div"); document.getElementById("map").appendChild(tooltip); tooltip.style.visibility="hidden"; and I think before calling this createElement, I should set background image.

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  • Injecting Dependencies into Domain Model classes with Nhibernate (ASP.NET MVC + IOC)

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC application that uses a DDD (Domain Driven Design) approach with database access handled by NHibernate. I have domain model class (Administrator) that I want to inject a dependency into via an IOC Container such as Castle Windsor, something like this: public class Administrator { public virtual int Id { get; set; } //.. snip ..// public virtual string HashedPassword { get; protected set; } public void SetPassword(string plainTextPassword) { IHashingService hasher = IocContainer.Resolve<IHashingService>(); this.HashedPassword = hasher.Hash(plainTextPassword); } } I basically want to inject IHashingService for the SetPassword method without calling the IOC Container directly (because this is suppose to be an IOC Anti-pattern). But I'm not sure how to go about doing it. My Administrator object either gets instantiated via new Administrator(); or it gets loaded via NHibernate, so how would I inject the IHashingService into the Administrator class? On second thoughts, am I going about this the right way? I was hoping to avoid having my codebase littered with... currentAdmin.Password = HashUtils.Hash(password, Algorithm.Sha512); ...and instead get the domain model itself to take care of hashing and neatly encapsulate it away. I can envisage another developer accidently choosing the wrong algorithm and having some passwords as Sha512, and some as MD5, some with one salt, and some with a different salt etc. etc. Instead if developers are writing... currentAdmin.SetPassword(password); ...then that would hide those details away and take care of those problems listed above would it not?

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  • Add Ellipsis to a Path in a WinForms Program without Win32 API call (revisited)

    - by casterle
    I was searching for a way to insert an ellipsis in a C# path, and found an answer here on stackoverflow: http://tinyurl.com/y6rmdfr Using the RTM versions of VS2010 and .Net 4.0, I was unable to get the suggested method to work. I searched the 'Net and found example code that uses the same method, but it failed in the same way. You can see the string I'm trying to shorten in my code below. After calling the MeasureText method, both the input string (OriginalName) and the output string (ellipsisedName) look like this: d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\...\test.txt\0F\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt Two problems: 1) The resulting string is narfed (the path is truncated as expected, but is followed by what looks like a C-style terminating null and a chunk of the original path). 2) My original string is changed to be identical to the output string. Am I doing something wrong? namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); string OriginalPath = @"d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\uvwx\yzAB\CDEF\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt"; string ellipsisedPath = OriginalPath; Size proposedSize = new Size(label1.Width, label1.Height); TextRenderer.MeasureText(ellipsisedPath, label1.Font, proposedSize, TextFormatFlags.ModifyString | TextFormatFlags.PathEllipsis); } } }

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  • How to test for existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell?

    - by Damian Powell
    Is it possible to test for the existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell? I've been using the PowerShell Community Extensions (PSCX) but I've noticed that if you import the module while Set-PSDebug -Strict is set, an error is produced: The variable '$SCRIPT:helpCache' cannot be retrieved because it has not been set. At C:\Users\...\Modules\Pscx\Modules\GetHelp\Pscx.GetHelp.psm1:5 char:24 While investigating how I might fix this, I found this piece of code in Pscx.GetHelp.psm1: #requires -version 2.0 param([string[]]$PreCacheList) if ((!$SCRIPT:helpCache) -or $RefreshCache) { $SCRIPT:helpCache = @{} } This is pretty straight forward code; if the cache doesn't exist or needs to be refreshed, create a new, empty cache. The problem is that calling $SCRIPT:helpCache while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force casues the error because the variable hasn't been defined yet. Ideally, we could use a Test-Variable cmdlet but such a thing doesn't exist! I thought about looking in the variable: provider but I don't know how to determine the scope of a variable. So my question is: how can I test for the existence of a variable while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force, without causing an error?

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  • Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

    - by Zarjay
    What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

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  • Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

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  • Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

    - by Akusete
    Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

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  • Is this a good or bad way to use constructor chaining? (... to allow for testing).

    - by panamack
    My motivation for chaining my class constructors here is so that I have a default constructor for mainstream use by my application and a second that allows me to inject a mock and a stub. It just seems a bit ugly 'new'-ing things in the ":this(...)" call and counter-intuitive calling a parametrized constructor from a default constructor , I wondered what other people would do here? (FYI - SystemWrapper) using SystemWrapper; public class MyDirectoryWorker{ // SystemWrapper interface allows for stub of sealed .Net class. private IDirectoryInfoWrap dirInf; private FileSystemWatcher watcher; public MyDirectoryWorker() : this( new DirectoryInfoWrap(new DirectoryInfo(MyDirPath)), new FileSystemWatcher()) { } public MyDirectoryWorker(IDirectoryInfoWrap dirInf, FileSystemWatcher watcher) { this.dirInf = dirInf; if(!dirInf.Exists){ dirInf.Create(); } this.watcher = watcher; watcher.Path = dirInf.FullName; watcher.NotifyFilter = NotifyFilters.FileName; watcher.Created += new FileSystemEventHandler(watcher_Created); watcher.Deleted += new FileSystemEventHandler(watcher_Deleted); watcher.Renamed += new RenamedEventHandler(watcher_Renamed); watcher.EnableRaisingEvents = true; } public static string MyDirPath{get{return Settings.Default.MyDefaultDirPath;}} // etc... }

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  • Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

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  • How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

    - by Philip
    I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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  • Advice on Method overloads.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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  • Problem loading scripts from Ajax Response

    - by konathamrajesh
    The problem is I am using get_info() to make a ajax call to Result.lasso and paste the response in div with id 'test'.I am unable to use the sendForm() function from the page where i am calling the get_info(). I have also tried using different versions of jQuery 1.1.1.3 is working fine.But i am facing the problem while using higher versions of jquery. The error with higher versions is as follows missing } in XML expression [Break on this error] alert('hi');\n test.lasso (line 3) sendForm is not defined [Break on this error] sendForm(); get_info() function definition <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <SCRIPT> function get_info() { $.ajax({url: "Result.lasso", context: document.body, success: function(response){ document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = response ;},dataType:"script"}); } </SCRIPT> The code in Result.lasso is as follows [Content_Type: 'text/html; charset=UTF-8'] <script type="text/javascript"> function sendForm() { alert('hi'); } </script> [Date] form name= "abc" method = "get" action = "abcd.lasso"> input type ="text" name = "element1"/> input type = "button" value="Click" onClick = "javascript: sendForm();"/> </form> Please help me out in resolving this problem Thanks, Rajesh Konatham

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  • Windows service threading call to WCF service

    - by Sam Brinsted
    Hi, I have a windows service that is reading data from a database and then submitting it to a WCF serivce. Once that has finished it is stamping a processed date on the original record. Trouble I am currently having is to do with threading. The call to the WCF serivce is relatively long and I want to have a number of concurrent calls to the service to help improve the throughput of the windows service. Currently I have a submitToService method on a new worker class. Upon reading a new row from the database I am creating a new thread which is calling this method. This obviously isn't too good as the number of threads quickly shoots up and overburdens the WCF service. I have put a thread.sleep in the submit method and am sure to call System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.Abort(); after the submission has finished. However, I don't seem to see the number of threads go down. How can I just have a fixed number of threads that can be used in the windows service? I did think about using a thread pool but read somewhere that wasn't a good choice for a windows service. Thanks very much.

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  • UIView Animation Inconsistent Result

    - by Josh Kahane
    I am trying to make use of UIView animation to slide my views across the screen. I have a UIScrollView in my view controller, in which I have my UIViews. I alos have this method: -(void)translateView:(UIView *)view toRect:(CGRect)rect withDuration:(CGFloat)duration { [UIView animateWithDuration:duration animations:^ { view.frame = rect; } completion:^(BOOL finished) { //Finished }]; } I call this to move my UIView in an animated fashion to a CGRect of my choice over a certain time. I have a loop which creates and slides out 7 views. This works great, I call it like below, the loop of course calling this 7 times on different views: [self translateView:cell toRect:translationRect withDuration:0.7]; However, I can't then call this again immediately afterwards, just nothing happens. Although, lets say I call this again after a 2 second NSTimer, the animation does run, but then when i scroll my UIScrollView, the view I just animated jumps back to its previous CGRect. Hope you can help, its all feeling very un-explanetory, Ill post more code if it isn't making any sense, thanks.

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  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

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