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  • Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

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  • In Ruby, why does a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is use

    - by Jian Lin
    The following question is related to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2127836/ruby-print-inject-do-syntax The question is, can we insist on using DO and END and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work? What if a programmer insists that he uses do and end, can it be made to work directly with p or puts, without an extra temporary variable?

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  • T4MVC and duplicate controller names in different areas

    - by artvolk
    In my application I have controller named Snippets both in default area (in application root) and in my area called Manage. I use T4MVC and custom routes, like this: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss() ); And I get this error: Multiple types were found that match the controller named 'snippets'. This can happen if the route that services this request ('{controller}/{action}/{id}/') does not specify namespaces to search for a controller that matches the request. If this is the case, register this route by calling an overload of the 'MapRoute' method that takes a 'namespaces' parameter. The request for 'snippets' has found the following matching controllers: Snippets.Controllers.SnippetsController Snippets.Areas.Manage.Controllers.SnippetsController I know that there are overloads for MapRoute that take namespaces argument, but there are no such overloads with T4MVC support. May be I'm missing something? The possible syntax can be: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {"Snippets.Controllers"} ); or, it seems quite good to me to have namespace as T4MVC property: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {MVC.Snippets.Namespace} ); Thanks in advance!

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  • java applet stops running on exceptions

    - by Marius
    I've developed a simple applet that imports an image from the clipboard. When i run the class file from NetBeans, everything works fine. But when i try to run it as an applet ... it gives me lots of errors in the java console and does not run ... - The applet is signed - There is a static method in one class, called getImageFromClipboard(). When the applet runs, it calls this method. - getImageFromClipboard() method has a try-catch block and suppresses all errors. It simply returns either a BufferedImage or null. - When applet runs, it does some visual adjustments before calling getImageFromClipboard() Now the scenario is as follows: the class from netbeans runs, fails to import the image and adjusts the interface accordingly (displays an error in a label) But when i run it in a browser, java console is filled with errors and nothing after the getImageFromClipboard() line works. Although the applet itself loads and does everything it's supposed do do before importing the image. So why am i getting errors if i accept the certificate and all of the possible errors are in try-catch blocks? None of this code should throw any exceptions. Any ideas why this is happening? Or do you need to see the errors to tell? UPDATE I've managed to find out the problem myself. The class that i'm using is not in the jar file :( How do i add it in? I'm using "add jar folder" in netbeans on the libraries package to import it but it does not seem to get copied to the jar.

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  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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  • Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

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  • How to test for existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell?

    - by Damian Powell
    Is it possible to test for the existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell? I've been using the PowerShell Community Extensions (PSCX) but I've noticed that if you import the module while Set-PSDebug -Strict is set, an error is produced: The variable '$SCRIPT:helpCache' cannot be retrieved because it has not been set. At C:\Users\...\Modules\Pscx\Modules\GetHelp\Pscx.GetHelp.psm1:5 char:24 While investigating how I might fix this, I found this piece of code in Pscx.GetHelp.psm1: #requires -version 2.0 param([string[]]$PreCacheList) if ((!$SCRIPT:helpCache) -or $RefreshCache) { $SCRIPT:helpCache = @{} } This is pretty straight forward code; if the cache doesn't exist or needs to be refreshed, create a new, empty cache. The problem is that calling $SCRIPT:helpCache while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force casues the error because the variable hasn't been defined yet. Ideally, we could use a Test-Variable cmdlet but such a thing doesn't exist! I thought about looking in the variable: provider but I don't know how to determine the scope of a variable. So my question is: how can I test for the existence of a variable while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force, without causing an error?

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  • Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

    - by Zarjay
    What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

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  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

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  • Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

    - by Phil Nash
    We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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  • How to implement progressbar(to show progress) using threading concept in win 32?

    - by Rakesh
    I am trying to show a progress bar while my process is going on...in my application there will be a situation where I gotta read files and manipulate them(it will take some time to complete)..want to display a progress bar during this operation..the particular function I am calling is an win 32 ...so if you check my code below i am upto the point of creating the progress bar in a dialog window and creating a thread Now I dont know how to post the message and where to get the message and handle...Please help me..thanks in advance //my function int Myfunction(....) { HWND dialog = CreateWindowEx(0,WC_DIALOG,L"Proccessing...",WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW|WS_VISIBLE, 600,300,280,120,NULL,NULL,NULL,NULL); HWND pBar = CreateWindowEx(NULL,PROGRESS_CLASS,NULL,WS_CHILD|WS_VISIBLE,40,20,200, 20, dialog,(HMENU)IDD_PROGRESS,NULL,NULL); HANDLE getHandle = CreateThread(NULL,NULL,(LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SetFilesForOperation(...), NULL,NULL,0); } LPARAM SetFilesForOperation(...) { for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { *checkstate = *(checkState + index); if(*checkstate == -1) { *(getFiles+i) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(getFiles+i),*(dataFiles +index)); i++; } else { (*tempDataFiles)->Add(*(dataFiles+index)); *(checkState + localIndex) = *(checkState + index); localIndex++; } //SendMessage(pBar,PBM_SETSTEP,1,0); } }

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  • Actual element tags are not getting captured.

    - by user323719
    I am using the below piece of XSL code to construct a span tag calling a javascript function on mouseover. The input to the javascipt should be a html table. The output from the variable "showContent" gives just the text content but not along with the table tags. How can this be resolved. XSL: <xsl:variable name="aTable" as="element()*"> <table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <xsl:for-each select="$capturedTags"> <tr><td><xsl:value-of select="node()" /></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="start" select='concat("Tip(&#39;", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="end" select='concat("&#39;)", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="showContent"> <xsl:value-of select='concat($start,$aTable,$end)'/> </xsl:variable> <span xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" onmouseout="{$hideContent}" onmouseover="{$showContent}" id="{$textNodeId}"><xsl:value-of select="$textNode"></xsl:value-of></span> Actual Output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('content1')" id="d1t14"is my </span Expected output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('<table><tr><td>content1</td></tr>')" id="d1t14">is my </span> What is the change that needs to done in the above XSL for the table, tr and td tags to get passed?

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  • Sending URL as a parameter using javascript

    - by Prashant Singh
    I have to send a name and a link from client side to the server. I thought of using AJAX called by Javascript to do this. This is what I mean. I wished to make an ajax request to a file called abc.php with parameters :- 1. http://thumbs2.ebaystatic.com/m/m7dFgOtLUUUSpktHRspjhXw/140.jpg 2. Apple iPod touch, 3rd generation, 32GB To begin with, I encoded the URL and tried to send it. But the server says status Forbidden Any solution to this ? UPDATE :: It end up calling to http://abc.com/addToWishlist.php?rand=506075547542422&image=http://thumbs1.ebaystatic.com/m/mO64jQrMqam2jde9aKiXC9A/140.jpg&prod=Flat%20USB%20Data%20Sync%20Charging%20Charger%20Cable%20Apple%20iPhone%204G%204S%20iPod%20Touch%20Nano Javascript Code :: function addToWishlist(num) { var myurl = "addToWishlist.php"; var myurl1 = myurl; myRand = parseInt(Math.random()*999999999999999); var rand = "?rand="+myRand ; var modurl = myurl1+ rand + "&image=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][1]) + "&prod=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][0]); httpq2.open("GET", modurl, true); httpq2.onreadystatechange = useHttpResponseq2; httpq2.send(null); } function useHttpResponseq2() { if (httpq2.readyState == 4) { if(httpq2.status == 200) { var mytext = httpq2.responseText; document.getElementById('wish' + num).innerHTML = "Added to your wishlist."; } } } Server Code <?php include('/home/ankit/public_html/connect_db.php'); $image = $_GET['image']; $prod = $_GET['prod']; $id = $_GET['id']; echo $prod; echo $image; ?> As I mentioned, its pretty basics More Updates : On trying to send a POST request via AJAX to the server, it says :- Refused to set unsafe header "Content-length" Refused to set unsafe header "Connection"

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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  • Facebook new js api and cross-domain file

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am building a simple facebook iframe application. I've decided since the code is separate from facebook none the less, I will also create a connect website as well. In my connect website I'm trying to figure out the following: I am using facebook's new api and I am calling the init function. I can't seem to figure out where I combine my cross-domain file. There's no mention of it in their documentation either. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/javascript/FB.init I am referring to these lines of code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'your app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

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  • what is the point of heterogenous arrays?

    - by aharon
    I know that more-dynamic-than-Java languages, like Python and Ruby, often allow you to place objects of mixed types in arrays, like so: ["hello", 120, ["world"]] What I don't understand is why you would ever use a feature like this. If I want to store heterogenous data in Java, I'll usually create an object for it. For example, say a User has int ID and String name. While I see that in Python/Ruby/PHP you could do something like this: [["John Smith", 000], ["Smith John", 001], ...] this seems a bit less safe/OO than creating a class User with attributes ID and name and then having your array: [<User: name="John Smith", id=000>, <User: name="Smith John", id=001>, ...] where those <User ...> things represent User objects. Is there reason to use the former over the latter in languages that support it? Or is there some bigger reason to use heterogenous arrays? N.B. I am not talking about arrays that include different objects that all implement the same interface or inherit from the same parent, e.g.: class Square extends Shape class Triangle extends Shape [new Square(), new Triangle()] because that is, to the programmer at least, still a homogenous array as you'll be doing the same thing with each shape (e.g., calling the draw() method), only the methods commonly defined between the two.

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  • qTip jQuery Plugin not always Firing

    - by tonsils
    Hi, I am using the qTip jquery plugin qTip plugin for a website I'm working on based on another thread I raised here: stack overflow thread My question is, I have a navigation bar running along the top of my screen which is basically sets the title attribute based on the tab menu you are in, these are all stored within a javascript array. For example, I have three menu options running along the top of the screen, say Menu A, Menu B and Menu C. I also have an information image positioned at the rightmost position of the nav bar, which I set the title attribute, based on the Menu option selected in the Nav Bar. For example: Menu A => myRole[0] = "Admin" Menu B => myRole[1] = "Manager" Menu C => myRole[2] = "Guest" So basically as the user clicks on each of the menus in the nav bar, I set the title attribute in the information image to either "Admin","Manager" or "Guest". At startup, the qTip plugin works and displays "Admin" when I hover over it but when I change the menu to Menu C, it still displays "Admin" instead of "Guest" From the looks of it, it doesn't seem to be calling the qTip plugin, which I have positioned at the footer of the screen (see actual code below). Any ideas how to ensure that the qTip fires every time I click/change menu options and pickups value within javascript array? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.qtip-1.0.0-rc3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('div#infoi img[title]').qtip({ position: { adjust: { x:-110, y:0 }, corner: { target: 'bottomLeft', tooltip: 'topMiddle' } }, style: { width: 250, padding: 5, background: '#E7F1FA', color: 'black', textAlign: 'center', border: { width: 3, color: '#65a9d7' }, tip: 'topRight' } }); }); </script> Thanks.

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  • Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • Connection

    - by pepersview
    Hello, I would like to ask you about NSURLConnection in objective-c for iPhone. I have one app that needs to connect to one webservice to receive data (about YouTube videos), Then I have all the things that I need to connect (Similar to Hello_Soap sample code in the web). But now, my problem is that I create a class (inherits from NSObject) named Connection and I have implemented the methods: didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError and connectionDidFinishLoading. Also the method: -(void)Connect:(NSString *) soapMessage{ NSLog(soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://....."]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if( theConnection ) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"theConnection is NULL"); } } But when from my AppDelegate I create one Connection object: Connection * connect = [[Connection alloc] Init:num]; //It's only one param to test. [connect Connect:method.soapMessage]; And I call this method, when this finishes, it doesn't continue calling didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError or connectionDidFinishLoading. I'm trying to do this but I can't for the moment. The thing I would like to do is to be able to call this class "Connection" each time that I want to receive data (after that to be parsed and displayed in UITableViews). Thank you.

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  • How do I update blackberry UI items from a thread?

    - by Andrei T. Ursan
    public class PlayText extends Thread { private int duration; private String text; private PlayerScreen playerscrn; public PlayText(String text, int duration) { this.duration = duration; this.text = text; this.playerscrn = (PlayerScreen)UiApplication.getUiApplication().getActiveScreen(); } public void run() { synchronized(UiApplication.getEventLock()) { try{ RichTextField text1player = new RichTextField(this.text, Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text1player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(this.duration); RichTextField text2player = new RichTextField("hahhaha", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text2player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(1000); RichTextField text3player = new RichTextField("Done", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text3player); playerscrn.invalidate(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("I HAVE AN ERROR"); } } } } With the above code I'm trying to create a small text player. Instead to get all the text labels one by one, something like display text1player wait this.duration milliseconds display text2player wait 1000 milliseconds display text3player thread done. The screens waits this.duration + 1000 milliseconds and displays all the labels at once. I tried with a runnable and calling .invokeLater or .invokeAndWait but I still get the same behavior, and even if I get dirty like above using synchronized it still doesn't work. Does anyone know how I can display each label at a time? Thank you!

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • XSLT: need to replace document('')

    - by Daziplqa
    I've the following xslt file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <!-- USDomesticCountryList - USE UPPERCASE LETTERS ONLY --> <xsl:variable name="USDomesticCountryList"> <entry name="US"/> <entry name="UK"/> <entry name="EG"/> </xsl:variable> <!--// USDomesticCountryList --> <xsl:template name="IsUSDomesticCountry"> <xsl:param name="countryParam"/> <xsl:variable name="country" select="normalize-space($countryParam)"/> <xsl:value-of select="normalize-space(document('')//xsl:variable[@name='USDomesticCountryList']/entry[@name=$country]/@name)"/> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I need to replace the "document('')" xpath function, what should I use instead? I've tried to remove it completely but the xsl document doesn't work for me! I need to to so because the problem is : I am using some XSLT document that uses the above file, say document a. So I have document a that includes the above file (document b). I am using doc a from java code, I am do Caching for doc a as a javax.xml.transform.Templates object to prevent multiple reads to the xsl file on every transformation request. I found that, the doc b is re-calling itself from the harddisk, I believe this is because of the document('') function above, so I wanna replace/remove it. Thanks.

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  • MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

    - by Josh Clark
    I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

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  • How to execute PHPUnit?

    - by user1280667
    PHPUnit can execute script like this: phpunit --log-junit classname filename.php (i need the XML report , for my continus integreation platform) but my problem is that i work with a MVC framework and all pages are called through pathofproject/indexCLI.php module=moduleName class=className ect with 3 arguments in total(when i use the shell commande and path/index.php argum=... with url) so i cant call phpunit pathofproject/indexCLI.php module=moduleName class=className . So i think to a lot of solution , i hope you can help me to use one of them. first how can i use phpunit commande with this type of calling, because i cant do it because he is waiting a classname and a filename (default comportement) if it possible !! when i call the same link in shell like this : php path/indexCLI.php module="blabla" ect ... i have the result of assertion in my consol , but cant use XML Junit option , can i do it ? my last solution is to call the link in a navigator like mozzila , but i dont know how to say to phpunit runner to chose XML report and not HTML report. the aim for me , is to have a XML report .

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