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  • Why is it that an int in C++ that isnt initialized (then used) doesn't return an error?

    - by omizzle
    I am new to C++ (just starting). I come from a Java background and I was trying out the following piece of code that would sum the numbers between 1 and 10 (inclusive) and then print out the sum: /* * File: main.cpp * Author: omarestrella * * Created on June 7, 2010, 8:02 PM */ #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { int sum; for(int x = 1; x <= 10; x++) { sum += x; } cout << "The sum is: " << sum << endl; return 0; } When I ran it it kept printing 32822 for the sum. I knew the answer was supposed to be 55 and realized that its print the max value for a short (32767) plus 55. Changing int sum; to int sum = 0; would work (as it should, since the variable needs to be initialized!). Why does this behavior happen, though? Why doesnt the compiler warn you about something like this? I know Java screams at you when something isnt initialized. Thank you.

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  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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  • sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

    - by ila
    I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

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  • Is there a better way to keep track of session variable creation/access throughout different pages?

    - by Brandon
    Here's what I am working on. At my website I have multiple processes with each one containing multiple steps. Now in one of the processes, there is an error checking routine executed before proceeding to the next step of that process. A session var is set indicating the error status and it will either redirect back to the referrer or display the next page's contents. Now this kind of functionality, I believe, is common throughout web development. The issue that is occurring is that session vars are left around and are not being cleaned up properly. At times this introduces undesired behavior. My website is growing and I find that I am requiring more and more session vars to keep track of different system and error states. So I was thinking about creating a kind of "session variable keeper" to keep track of session var usage. The idea is fairly simple. It will have the notion of a context (e.g. registration process) and allow access to a predefined set of session vars within that context. In addition, the var and context will be paired with an action to proceed to some form of event handling. So if you haven't noticed I'm new to web development. Any thoughts or comments on the idea that I am proposing would be greatly appreciated. The back-end is written in PHP/MySQL.

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  • In Java, is there a gain in using interfaces for complex models?

    - by Gnoupi
    The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public method from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations.

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • In C/C++ mode in Emacs, change face of code in #if 0...#endif block to comment face

    - by pogopop77
    I'm trying to add functionality found in some other code editors to my Emacs configuration, whereby C/C++ code within #if 0...#endif blocks is automatically set to the comment face/font. Based on my testing, cpp-highlight-mode does something like what I want, but requires user action. It seems like tying into the font-lock functionality is the correct option to make the behavior automatic. I have successfully followed examples in the GNU documentation to change the face of single-line regular expressions. For example: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("\\<\\(FIXME\\|TODO\\|HACK\\|fixme\\|todo\\|hack\\)" 1 font-lock-warning-face t))))) works fine to highlight debug related keywords anywhere in a file. However, I am having problems matching #if 0...#endif as a multiline regular expression. I found some useful information in this post (How to compose region like ""), that suggested that Emacs must be told specifically to allow for multiline matches. But this code: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () '(progn (setq font-lock-multiline t) (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("#if 0\\(.\\|\n\\)*?#endif" 1 font-lock-comment-face t)))))) still does not work for me. Perhaps my regular expression is wrong (though it appears to work using M-x re-builder), I've messed up my syntax, or I'm following the wrong approach entirely. I'm using Aquamacs 2.1 (which is based on GNU Emacs 23.2.50.1) on OS X 10.6.5, if that makes a difference. Any assistance would be appreciated!

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  • Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

    - by Lucas T
    I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

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  • Populate table fields on query execution

    - by Jason
    I'm trying to build an ASP site that populates a Table based on the results of a selection in a ListBox. In order to do this, I've created a GridView table inside a div element. Currently the default behavior is to show all the items in the specified table in sortable order. However, I'd like to refine this further to allow for display of matches based on the results from the ListBox selection, but am not sure how to execute this. The ListBox fires off a OnSelectionChanged event to the method defined below and the GridView element is defined as <asp:GridView ID="dataListings" runat="server" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="LinqDataSource1" OnDataBinding="ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged"> protected void ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int itemSelected = selectTopics.SelectedIndex; string[] listing = null; switch (itemSelected)//assign listing the array of course numbers { case 0: break; case 1: listing = arts; break; case 2: listing = currentEvents; break; .... More cases here default: listing = arts; break; } using (OLLIDBDataContext odb = new OLLIDBDataContext()) { var q = from c in odb.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops where listing.Contains(c.tbl_Course_Description.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops.course_workshop_number) select c; dataListings.DataSource = q; dataListings.DataBind(); } } However, this method never gets fired. I can see a request being made when changing the selection, but setting a breakpoint at the method declaration does nothing at all. Based on this, setup, I have three related questions What do I need to modify to get the OnSelectionChanged event handler to fire? How can I alter the GridView area to be empty on page load? How do I send the results from the dataListings.DataBind() execution to show in the GridView?

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  • Script says Undefined

    - by user1058887
    I have this script that would let the user input a text and it would get translated into something else. It works only when the word has only 1 letter. When there is more than 1 letter it says Undefined. Here is the script : function copyit(theField) { var tempval=eval("document."+theField) tempval.focus() tempval.select() therange=tempval.createTextRange() therange.execCommand("Copy") } function results() { var behavior="form"; var text=document.csrAlpha.csrresult2.value; var ff22=text.toLowerCase(); var Words=new Array ; Words["b"]="Dadada"; Words["bob"]="Robert"; Words["flower"]="Banana"; Words["brad"]="Chair"; var trans=""; var regExp=/[\!@#$%^&*(),=";:\/]/; var stringCheck=regExp.exec(ff22); if(!stringCheck) { if(ff22.length > 0) { for(var i=0;i < ff22.length;i++) { var thisChar=ff22.charAt(i); trans += Words[thisChar] + " "; } } else { trans +="Please write something."; } } else { trans +="You entered invalid characters. Remove them and try again."; } document.csrAlpha.csrresult.value=trans; } Please insert your text below:

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  • jQuery code works for console but not in-page.

    - by justSteve
    I have a form element defined as: <div class="field"> <div class="name"> <label for="User_LastName"> Last name: <span class="asterisk">*</span></label> </div> <div class="value"> <%= Html.TextBox("User.LastName", Model.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("User.LastName")%> </div> </div> and a jQuery selector that is supposed to detect when the input gets focus and highlight the parent: $("input").focus(function() { //watching for an event where an input form comes into focus $(this) .parent() .addClass("curFocus") .children("div") .toggle(); }); If i paste this code into firebug's console - things work as planned. However, i'm running this from a 'RenderPartial' .net mvc page. Other jQuery code sitting within the same $(document).ready(function() { block work correctly. The form uses html helpers to generate the inputs which might complicate the process somewhat - but even so... i'm seeing correct behavior when that code's in console but not in a 'real-time' page. How do i troubleshoot this?

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  • MVC design for archived data view

    - by Hemant Tank
    Implementation of a standard archive process in ASP.Net MVC. Backend SQL Server 2005 We've an existing web app built in MVC. We've an Entity "Claim" and it has some child entities like ClaimDetails, Files, etc... A pretty standard setup in DB. Each entity has its own table and are linked via FK. Now, we need to have an "Archive" feature in web app which will allow admin to archive a Claim and its child entities. An archived Claim shud become readonly when visited again. Here're some points on which I need your valued opinion - To keep it simple and scalable (for a few million records) for now we plan to simply add a bit field "Archived" to the Claim table in db. And change the behavior accordingly in the web app. We've a 'Manage claim' page which renders a bunch of diff views for Claim and its child entities. Now, for a readonly view we can either use the same views or have a separate set of views. What do you suggest? At controller level, we can identify archived claim and select which view to render. At model level, though it'd be great to be able to use the same model used for Manage Claim - but it might not get us the "text" of some lookup fields. For example, Claim.BrandId is rendered as a dropdown in Manage claim (requires only BrandId) but for readonly view we need 'BrandText'. Any existing ref or architecture level example would be great. Here's my prev SO post but its more about db level changes: Design a process to archive data (SQL Server 2005) Thank you.

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  • Strange befaviour of spring transaction support for JPA + Hibernate +@Transactional annotation

    - by abovesun
    I found out really strange behavior on relatively simple use case, probably I can't understand it because of not deep knowledges of spring @Transactional nature, but this is quite interesting. I have simple User dao that extends spring JpaDaoSupport class and contains standard save method: @Transactional public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().persist(user); return user; } If was working fine until I've add new method to same class: User getSuperUser(), this method should return user with isAdmin == true, and if there is no super user in db, method should create one. Thats how it was looking like: public User createSuperUser() { User admin = null; try { admin = (User) getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { return em.createQuery("select u from UserImpl u where u.admin = true").getSingleResult(); } }); } catch (EmptyResultDataAccessException ex) { User admin = new User('login', 'password'); admin.setAdmin(true); save(admin); // THIS IS THE POINT WHERE STRANGE THING COMING OUT } return admin; } As you see code is strange forward and I was very confused when found out that no transaction was created and committed on invocation of save(admin) method and no new user wasn't actually created despite @Transactional annotation. In result we have situation: when save() method invokes from outside of UserDAO class - @Transactional annotation counted and user successfully created, but if save() invokes from inside of other method of the same dao class - @Transactional annotation ignored. Here how I was change save() method to force it always create transaction. public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(user); em.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); return user; } As you see I manually invoke begin and commit. Any ideas?

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  • Is there anything on a local network or desktop environment that could effect JScript execution?

    - by uku
    I know this sounds odd. The JS on my project functions perfectly, except when the web site is accessed using computers at one specific company. To make things even more difficult, the JS fails only about 50% of the time when run from that company. The JS failure occurs with FireFox, Chrome, and IE. I have tested this myself using FF and Chrome on a thumb drive. The browsers on my thumb always display my project site perfectly, except when run from a computer on said company's network where they fail at the same rate as the installed browsers. My JS is using jQuery and making some Ajax calls. The Ajax calls are where the failure is occurring. To diagnose the problem I created a logging function for my Ajax calls and recorded success and failure. Over a one month period, there were only a handful of failures (about 1%) from all access points other than this company. Oddly enough, the Ajax calls in the logging function are not failing. There is nothing exotic there - Just Win XP SP3. I have never noticed any other unusual behavior from their network. The company is a division of a mega ISP and is on their corporate network. Any other suggestions for troubleshooting would be welcome.

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  • Custom ASP.net UserControl List<T> Property, having trouble setting declaratively

    - by Chris McCall
    I'm developing a custom UserControl to inject JQuery hotkeys into a page declaratively on the server side. Here's the control (the important parts anyway): [AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), DefaultProperty("HotKeys"), ParseChildren(true, "HotKeys"), ToolboxData("<{0}:HotKeysControl runat=\"server\"> </{0}:HotKeysControl>")] public partial class HotKeysControl : System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebControl { private string crlf = Environment.NewLine; public List<HotKey> _HotKeys; public HotKeysControl() { if (_HotKeys == null) { _HotKeys = new List<HotKey>(); } // if I uncomment this line, script is injected into the page // _HotKeys.Add(new HotKey("ctrl+r","thisControl")); } [ Category("Behavior"), Description("The hotkeys collection"), DesignerSerializationVisibility( DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), Editor(typeof(HotKeyCollectionEditor), typeof(UITypeEditor)), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty) ] public List<HotKey> HotKeys { set { _HotKeys = value; } get { return _HotKeys; } } Here's the .aspx code: <%@ Register Assembly="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" Namespace="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" TagPrefix="uc" %> ... <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="false"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="firstControl" KeyCode="ctrl+1" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+2" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> Nothing happens, as if no HotKeys objects are being added to the property collection. What Am I doing wrong? If I uncomment out the line above and "manually" add items, it works. It's something about how I'm declaratively adding hotkeys to the page. Any ideas?

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • NHibernate: What are child sessions and why and when should I use them?

    - by stefando
    In the comments for the ayende's blog about the auditing in NHibernate there is a mention about the need to use a child session:session.GetSession(EntityMode.Poco). As far as I understand it, it has something to do with the order of the SQL operation which session.Flush will emit. (For example: If I wanted to perform some delete operation in the pre-insert event but the session was already done with deleting operations, I would need some way to inject them in.) However I did not find documentation about this feature and behavior. Questions: Is my understanding of child sessions correct? How and in which scenarios should I use them? Are they documented somewhere? Could they be used for session "scoping"? (For example: I open the master session which will hold some data and then I create 2 child-sessions from the master one. I'd expect that the two child-scopes will be separated but the will share objects from the master session cache. Is this the case?) Are they first class citizens in NHibernate or are they just hack to support some edge-case scenarios? Thanks in advance for any info.

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  • How to specify generic method type parameters partly

    - by DNNX
    I have an extension method like below: public static T GetValueAs<T, R>(this IDictionary<string, R> dictionary, string fieldName) where T : R { R value; if (!dictionary.TryGetValue(fieldName, out value)) return default(T); return (T)value; } Currently, I can use it in the following way: var dictionary = new Dictionary<string, object(); //... var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A"); // this may throw ClassCastException - this is expected behavior; It works pretty fine, but the second type parameter is really annoying. Is it possible in C# 4.0 rewrite GetValueAs is such a way that the method will still be applicable to different types of string-keyed dictionaries AND there will be no need to specify second type parameter in the calling code, i.e. use var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int("A"); or at least something like var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, ?("A"); instead of var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A");

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  • How to change Hibernate´s auto persistance strategy

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    I just noted that my hibernate entities are automatically persisted to the database (or at least to cache) before I call any save() or update() method. To me this is a pretty strange default behavior but ok, as long as I can disable it, it´s fine. The problem I have is I want to update my entity´s state (from 1 to 2) only if the entity in the database still has the state it had when I retrieved [1] (this is to eliminate concurrency issues when another server is updating this same object). For this reason I have created a custom NamedQuery that will only update the entity if state is 1. So here is some pseudo-code: //Get the entity Entity item = dao.getEntity(); item.getState(); //==1 //Update the entity item.setState(2); //Here is the problem, this effectively changes the state of my entity braking my query that verifies that state is still == 1. dao.customUpdate(item); //Returns 0 rows changes since state != 1. So, how do I make sure the setters don´t change the state in cache/db? Thanks, Kristofer

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  • nservicebus deleting subscription record after inserting it?

    - by Justin Holbrook
    I have been playing with nservicebus for a few weeks now and since everything was going well on my local machine I decided to try to set up a test environment and work on deployment. I am using the generic host that comes with nservicebus and was using the nservicebus.Integration profile when running locally, but would like to use Nservicebus.Production in the test environment. I set up a sql server 2008 database, made changes to my app.config and everything seemed to work fine. But after a few attempts, I noticed messages were not being picked up by my subscriber. I checked the subscription table and it was empty. Upon examination of the logs I noticed the following: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Insert 0: INSERT INTO [Subscription] (SubscriberEndpo int, MessageType) VALUES (?, ?) 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Update 0: 2010-05-06 15:07:57,416 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPers ister [(null)] <(null) - Delete 0: DELETE FROM [Subscription] WHERE Subscriber Endpoint = ? AND MessageType = ? Why would it insert then delete my subscription right afterwards? To try to rule out a nhibernate dialect issue I tried switching my subscription storage to an oracle 10g database. It behaved exactly the same, it worked the first 2 times, then I started seeing my subscriptions being deleted right after they were inserted. Any ideas what is causing this behavior?

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  • UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't work for last row

    - by GendoIkari
    I've come across a very similar question here: Inserting row to end of table with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom doesn't animate., though no answers have been given. His code was also a little different than mine. I have an extremely simple example, built from the Navigation application template. NSMutableArray *items; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; items = [[NSMutableArray array] retain]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemAdd target:self action:@selector(addItem)] autorelease]; } - (void)addItem{ [items insertObject:@"new" atIndex:0]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0]] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return items.count; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [items objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { [items removeObjectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationBottom]; } } The problem is, when I either insert or delete the very last row in the table, the animation doesn't work at all; the row just appears or disappears instantly. This only happens with UITableViewRowAnimationBottom, but that's the animation that makes the most sense for creating or deleting table cells in this way. Is this a bug in Apple's framework? Or does it do this on purpose? Would it make sense to add an extra cell to the count, and then setup this cell so that it looks like it's not there at all, just to get around this behavior?

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  • svg mouseup event not fired in IE9, unless the debugger is open

    - by Roberto Lupi
    I am using d3 to build a simple chart that the user can edit interactively with the mouse. It works on in all modern common browser (Chrome, Firefox, Safari), except for Internet Explorer 9 where I can start to drag an item but I never get the mouseup event. The strangest bit is that, if I open the debugger, the page works percetly on Internet Explorer 9 as well. My code looks like this: item.append("svg:circle") .attr("class", "handle") .attr("opacity",0.5) .attr("stroke","gray") .attr("cx", bx(0.5)-bx(0)) .attr("r", 10) .style("cursor", "crosshair") .style("pointer-events", "all") .call(d3.behavior.drag() .on("dragstart", function() { dragTarget = d3.select(this); }) .on("drag", function() { this.parentNode.appendChild(this); // put us on the front, not really needed var dragTarget = d3.select(this); dragTarget .attr("cy", function() { return d3.event.dy + parseInt(dragTarget.attr("cy"))}); }) .on("dragend", function(d, i) { newY = parseInt(d3.select(this).attr("cy")); newValue = y.invert(newY); var serieNo = this.__data__.serieNo; console.log([serieNo+1,i+1]); data[serieNo+1][i+1] = newValue; updateBarChart(); onchange(); }) );

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  • Flash Player: Any remedy for the stale video image data problem (in a reused NetStream object)?

    - by amn
    Has anyone experienced stale stills of a previous playback for a reused NetStream object? If so, what are the workarounds for this, except re-creating the object (which eats performance and time)? It is hard to reuse NetStream objects because of a (in my opinion) fundamental issue with NetStream objects - when you 'close' a playing stream and at a later point issue a 'play' call on it again with a different name, the stream appears to still contain a stale image lingering from previous playback, and this is of course displayed in the Video object for a moment - the moment I assume it takes for new stream data to become available from server. Because of this behavior, to improve my users' visual experience, I simply discard a NetStream object after a playback session, and assign a new NetStream object to the same variable, set it up, and play something else. It appears to work - no stale image - but what bugs me is that it's a work around and costs performance (construction and setting up the object again - event listeners and 'client' delegates and more memory usage - NetStream objects are not garbage collected immediately, it takes some time). It would be really nice to REALLY be able to reuse a stream. I am thinking of something akin to Video.clear method, but for the NetStream class. Am I missing something?

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  • What could trigger a change of http status to 500 on the client's end?

    - by VexedPanda
    We have a PHP web application that posts data to itself, and either displays an updated page based on that data, or redirects to another page. An example of this is a script with a paged list on it, where clicking on the Next link causes a post to the same page, which then returns an updated version of the page showing the new set of list items. One client is reporting that IE is displaying friendly error messages when the page updates itself instead of the correct behavior of displaying the updated page. Turning friendly error messages off "corrects" this problem, and displays the updated page normally, indicating no actual server error occurred. When testing from any location other than this client's our web app does not produce any http error statuses, and in this specific situation only produces 200 statuses. (According to Fiddler.) What could be interfering with the HTTP POST and changing the response's http status code to 500 (or another code that would trigger friendly errors in IE)? Are there certain proxies or other network tools that could be misconfigured or buggy in this manner? Is there any way we can alter our application (apart from avoiding posts to the same script, which is not feasible) to get around this misbehavior?

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