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• Using tarantula to test a Rails app

  - by Benjamin Oakes

  I'm using Tarantula to test a Rails app I'm developing. It works pretty well, but I'm getting some strange 404s. After looking into it, Tarantula is following DELETE requests (destroy actions on controllers) throughout my app when it tests. Since Tarantula gets the index action first (and seems to keep a list of unvisited URLs), it eventually tries to follow a link to a resource which it had deleted... and gets a 404. Tarantula is right that the URL doesn't exist anymore (because it deleted the resource itself). However, it's flagging it as an error -- that's hardly the behavior I would expect. I'm basically just using the Rails scaffolding and this problem is happening. How do I prevent Tarantula doing this? (Or, is there a better way of specifying the links?) Updates: Still searching, but I found a relevant thread here: http://github.com/relevance/tarantula/issues#issue/3 Seems to be coming from relying on JS too much, in a way (see also http://thelucid.com/2010/03/15/rails-can-we-please-have-a-delete-action-by-default/)

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• how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

  - by rezna

  Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

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• Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

  - by stormin986

  I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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• I am confused about how to use @SessionAttributes

  - by yusaku

  I am trying to understand architecture of Spring MVC. However, I am completely confused by behavior of @SessionAttributes. Please look at SampleController below , it is handling post method by SuperForm class. In fact, just field of SuperForm class is only binding as I expected. However, After I put @SessionAttributes in Controller, handling method is binding as SubAForm. Can anybody explain me what happened in this binding. ------------------------------------------------------- @Controller @SessionAttributes("form") @RequestMapping(value = "/sample") public class SampleController { @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public String getCreateForm(Model model) { model.addAttribute("form", new SubAForm()); return "sample/input"; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String register(@ModelAttribute("form") SuperForm form, Model model) { return "sample/input"; } } ------------------------------------------------------- public class SuperForm { private Long superId; public Long getSuperId() { return superId; } public void setSuperId(Long superId) { this.superId = superId; } } ------------------------------------------------------- public class SubAForm extends SuperForm { private Long subAId; public Long getSubAId() { return subAId; } public void setSubAId(Long subAId) { this.subAId = subAId; } } ------------------------------------------------------- <form:form modelAttribute="form" method="post"> <fieldset> <legend>SUPER FIELD</legend> <p> SUPER ID:<form:input path="superId" /> </p> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>SUB A FIELD</legend> <p> SUB A ID:<form:input path="subAId" /> </p> </fieldset> <p> <input type="submit" value="register" /> </p> </form:form>

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• CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

  - by kurisukun

  I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

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• Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

  - by Curtis White

  Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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• Setting Nullable Integer to String Containing Nothing yields 0

  - by Brian MacKay

  I've been pulling my hair out over some unexpected behavior from nullable integers. If I set an Integer to Nothing, it becomes Nothing as expected. If I set an Integer? to a String that is Nothing, it becomes 0! Of course I get this whether I explicitly cast the String to Integer? or not. I realize I could work around this pretty easily but I want to know what I'm missing. Dim NullString As String = Nothing Dim NullableInt As Integer? = CType(NullString, Integer?) 'Expected NullableInt to be Nothing, but it's 0! NullableInt = Nothing 'This works -- NullableInt now contains Nothing. How is this EDIT: Previously I had my code up here so without the explicit conversion to 'Integer?' and everyone seemed to be fixated on that. I want to be clear that this is not an issue that would have been caught by Option Strict On -- check out the accepted answer. This is a quirk of the string-to-integer conversion rules which predate nullable types, but still impact them.

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• What happens to class members when malloc is used instead of new?

  - by Felix

  I'm studying for a final exam and I stumbled upon a curious question that was part of the exam our teacher gave last year to some poor souls. The question goes something like this: Is the following program correct, or not? If it is, write down what the program outputs. If it's not, write down why. The program: #include<iostream.h> class cls { int x; public: cls() { x=23; } int get_x(){ return x; } }; int main() { cls *p1, *p2; p1=new cls; p2=(cls*)malloc(sizeof(cls)); int x=p1->get_x()+p2->get_x(); cout<<x; return 0; } My first instinct was to answer with "the program is not correct, as new should be used instead of malloc". However, after compiling the program and seeing it output 23 I realize that that answer might not be correct. The problem is that I was expecting p2->get_x() to return some arbitrary number (whatever happened to be in that spot of the memory when malloc was called). However, it returned 0. I'm not sure whether this is a coincidence or if class members are initialized with 0 when it is malloc-ed. Is this behavior (p2->x being 0 after malloc) the default? Should I have expected this? What would your answer to my teacher's question be? (besides forgetting to #include <stdlib.h> for malloc :P)

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• How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

  - by Brian Bassett

  I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

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• WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

  - by WayneC

  I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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• "Subforms" associated with tree view in VB

  - by knomdeguerre

  I am using VB Express 2008 to demonstrate my ideas for an improved UI for an existing product for my colleagues at work. The current UI has a certain page with ten tabs, allowing the user to define up to ten "things". The available choices for each of the ten "things" are all the same. On each of the ten tabs, there is a checkbox to enable that definition. Generally, a user will never use more than 5 or 6 unique definitions, the rest will remain disabled. So far, my prototype has a tree view control with one branch to contain this list of definitions, Add and Delete buttons. My idea is: there is one sub-branch to start with (corresponding to the first tab in the current UI); if the user wants addtional definitions, they click Add and other branches are added to the tree view, up to maximum of ten. I think I should be able to create a "class" that has a sub-UI (like a sub-form in Access) along with behavior code, that can be instantiated with each press of the Add button; each instantiation's settings can be set independently and is displayed in the main UI form )in a panel or frame) when selected in the tree view. For example, suppose the user Adds to make a total of three definitions: the tree view now has three sub-branches, each of which presents the same sub-UI with settings that can be set specific to the selected sub-branch. I'm sure it's possible but not sure how to do it. I know a comprehensive "answer" might be complicated and long, but I may just need some quick hints to get underway - don't be shy! Thanks in advance!

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• Refactor link to show/hide a table row

  - by abatishchev

  I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td> <!-- data --> </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

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• Struts 2 discard cache header

  - by Dewfy

  I have strange discarding behavior of struts2 while setting cache option for my image. I'm trying to put image from db to be cached on client side To render image I use ( http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/how-can-we-display-dynamic-or-static-images-that-can-be-provided-as-an-array-of-bytes.html ) where special result type render as follow: public void execute(ActionInvocation invocation) throws Exception { ...//some preparation HttpServletResponse response = ServletActionContext.getResponse(); HttpServletRequest request = ServletActionContext.getRequest(); ServletOutputStream os = response.getOutputStream(); try { byte[] imageBytes = action.getImage(); response.setContentType("image/gif"); response.setContentLength(imageBytes.length); //I want cache up to 10 min Date future = new Date(((new Date()).getTime() + 1000 * 10*60l)); ; response.addDateHeader("Expires", future.getTime()); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "max-age=" + 10*60 + ""); response.addHeader("cache-Control", "public"); response.setHeader("ETag", request.getRequestURI()); os.write(imageBytes); } catch(Exception e) { response.sendError(HttpServletResponse.SC_NOT_FOUND); } os.flush(); os.close(); } But when image is embedded to page it is always reloaded (Firebug shows code 200), and neither Expires, nor max-age are presented in header Host localhost:9090 Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://localhost:9090/web/result?matchId=1 Cookie JSESSIONID=4156BEED69CAB0B84D950932AB9EA1AC; If-None-Match /web/_srv/teamcolor Cache-Control max-age=0 I have no idea why it is dissapered, may be problem in url? It is forms with parameter: http://localhost:9090/web/_srv/teamcolor?loginId=3

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• Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

  - by goldierox

  I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

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• UIImagePickerController crashes on rapid scrolling, slower than photos app

  - by vvanhee

  Most of the time, my image picker works perfectly (iOS 4.2.1). However, if I scroll very rapidly up and down about 4-6 times through my camera roll of about 300 photos, I get a crash. This never happens with the "photos" app on the same iPhone 3Gs. Also, I'm noticing that the stock "photos" app scrolls much more smoothly than my image picker. Has anyone else noticed this behavior? I'd be interested if others could attempt this in their own apps and see if they crash. I don't think it's related to other objects hogging memory on my iPhone because it's a simple app, and this happens right after I start the app. It also doesn't seem to be related to messages sent to other released objects or overreleasing of other objects in viewdidunload, based on my crash logs and the fact that the simulator responds well to simulated memory warnings. I think it might be a bug in the internal implementation of the UIImagePickerController... This is how I start the picker. I've done this multiple ways (including setting a retain property for the UIImagePickerController in my header and releasing on dealloc). This seems to be the best way (crashes least): UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeSavedPhotosAlbum; picker.allowsEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; This is the crashed thread (I get various exception types): Exception Type: SIGSEGV Exception Codes: SEGV_ACCERR at 0xfffffffff4faafa4 Crashed Thread: 8 ... Thread 8 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x000494ea -[__NSArrayM replaceObjectAtIndex:withObject:] + 98 1 PhotoLibrary 0x00008e0f -[PLImageTable _segmentAtIndex:] + 527 2 PhotoLibrary 0x00008a21 -[PLImageTable _mappedImageDataAtIndex:] + 221 3 PhotoLibrary 0x0000893f -[PLImageTable dataForEntryAtIndex:] + 15 4 PhotoLibrary 0x000087e7 PLThumbnailManagerImageDataAtIndex + 35 5 PhotoLibrary 0x00008413 -[PLThumbnailManager _dataForPhoto:format:width:height:bytesPerRow:dataWidth:dataHeight:imageDataOffset:imageDataFormat:preheat:] + 299 6 PhotoLibrary 0x000b6c13 __-[PLThumbnailManager preheatImageDataForImages:withFormat:]_block_invoke_1 + 159 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6680 _dispatch_call_block_and_release + 20 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6ba0 _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 128 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0007b251 _pthread_wqthread + 265

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• jQuery replacement for javascript confirm

  - by dcp

  Let's say I want to prompt the user before allowing them to save a record. So let's assume I have the following button defined in the markup: <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" OnClick="btnSave_Click"></asp:Button> To force a prompt with normal javascript, I could wire the OnClick event for my save button to be something like this (I could do this in Page_Load): btnSave.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('are you sure you want to save?');"); The confirm call will block until the user actually presses on of the Yes/No buttons, which is the behavior I want. For the jquery dialog that is the equivalent, I tried something like this (see below). But the problem is that unlike javascript confirm(), it's going to get all the way through this function (displayYesNoAlert) and then proceed into my btnSave_OnClick method on the C# side. I need a way to make it "block", until the user presses the Yes or No button, and then return true or false so the btnSave_OnClick will be called or not called depending on the user's answer. Currently, I just gave up and went with javascript's confirm, I just wondered if there was a way to do it. function displayYesNoAlert(msg, closeFunction) { dialogResult = false; // create the dialog if it hasn't been instantiated if (!$("#dialog-modal").dialog('isOpen') !== true) { // add a div to the DOM that will store our message $("<div id=\"dialog-modal\" style='text-align: left;' title='Alert!'>").appendTo("body"); $("#dialog-modal").html(msg).dialog({ resizable: true, modal: true, position: [300, 200], buttons: { 'Yes': function () { dialogResult = true; $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'No': function () { dialogResult = false; $(this).dialog("close"); } }, close: function () { if (closeFunction !== undefined) { closeFunction(); } } }); } $("#dialog-modal").html(msg).dialog('open'); }

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• How might one cope with the ambiguous value produced by GetDllDirectory?

  - by Integer Poet

  GetDllDirectory produces an ambiguous value. When the string this call produces is empty, it means one of the following: nobody has called SetDllDirectory somebody passed NULL to SetDllDirectory somebody passed an empty string to SetDllDirectory The first two cases are equivalent for my purposes, but the third case is a problem. If I want to write save/restore code (call GetDllDirectory to save the "old" value, SetDllDirectory to set a "new" value temporarily, and later SetDllDirectory again to restore the "old" value), I run the risk of reversing some other programmer's intent. If the other programmer intended for the current working directory to be in the DLL search order (in other words, one of the first two bullets is true), and I pass an empty string to SetDllDirectory, I will be taking the current working directory out of the DLL search order, reversing the other programmer's intent. Can anyone suggest an approach to eliminate or work around this ambiguity? P.S. I know having the current working directory in the DLL search order could be interpreted as a security hole. Nevertheless, it is the default behavior, and my code is not in a position to undo that; my code needs to be compatible with the expectations of all potential callers, many of which are large and old and beyond my control.

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• Searching Natural Language Sentence Structure

  - by Cerin

  What's the best way to store and search a database of natural language sentence structure trees? Using OpenNLP's English Treebank Parser, I can get fairly reliable sentence structure parsings for arbitrary sentences. What I'd like to do is create a tool that can extract all the doc strings from my source code, generate these trees for all sentences in the doc strings, store these trees and their associated function name in a database, and then allow a user to search the database using natural language queries. So, given the sentence "This uploads files to a remote machine." for the function upload_files(), I'd have the tree: (TOP (S (NP (DT This)) (VP (VBZ uploads) (NP (NNS files)) (PP (TO to) (NP (DT a) (JJ remote) (NN machine)))) (. .))) If someone entered the query "How can I upload files?", equating to the tree: (TOP (SBARQ (WHADVP (WRB How)) (SQ (MD can) (NP (PRP I)) (VP (VB upload) (NP (NNS files)))) (. ?))) how would I store and query these trees in a SQL database? I've written a simple proof-of-concept script that can perform this search using a mix of regular expressions and network graph parsing, but I'm not sure how I'd implement this in a scalable way. And yes, I realize my example would be trivial to retrieve using a simple keyword search. The idea I'm trying to test is how I might take advantage of grammatical structure, so I can weed-out entries with similar keywords, but a different sentence structure. For example, with the above query, I wouldn't want to retrieve the entry associated with the sentence "Checks a remote machine to find a user that uploads files." which has similar keywords, but is obviously describing a completely different behavior.

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• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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• How to change the meaning of pointer access operator

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, This may be very obvious question, pardon me if so. I have below code snippet out of my project, #include <stdio.h> class X { public: int i; X() : i(0) {}; }; int main(int argc,char *arv[]) { X *ptr = new X[10]; unsigned index = 5; cout<<ptr[index].i<<endl; return 0; } Question Can I change the meaning of the ptr[index] ? Because I need to return the value of ptr[a[index]] where a is an array for subindexing. I do not want to modify existing source code. Any new function added which can change the behavior is needed. Since the access to index operator is in too many places (536 to be precise) in my code, and has complex formulas inside the index subscript operator, I am not inclined to change the code in many locations. PS : 1. I tried operator overload and came to conclusion that it is not possible. 2. Also p[i] will be transformed into *(p+i). I cannot redefine the basic operator '+'. So just want to reconfirm my understanding and if there are any possible short-cuts to achieve. Else I need fix it by royal method of changing every line of code :) .

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• ImageViews sometimes not displaying in FrameLayout activity

  - by Ken

  The top level layout in my activity is a framelayout. I have completed, debugged and tested this app and it works exactly like it should in all respects on my g1 and on various emulators. But on 3.7-inch displays running 2.1+, some imageviews packed in a linearlayout are periodically not visible. I know that they are there because you can touch and drag them with effect in the app. So I assume somehow they have gotten under the SurfaceView that is the main component of the app. This is apparently so even though the SurfaceView is declared in the xml prior to the LinearLayout. However, the ImageViews IN the LinearLayout are added programmatically towards the end of onCreate(). Framelayout stacks everything that is added to it, one on top of the other--the only way you will see more than one child of a frame layout is if they are smaller than the screen and are placed apart from eachother. Oddly, sometimes the imageviews ARE visible--it is random. Anyway, I've been trying to combat this with framelayout.bringChildToFront(View v) on the linearlayout without success. I wonder if anyone has any insight into how the behavior could be random like that, and how I should code these imageviews to keep this from happening, and why the problem appears only to occur on 3.7 vs 3.2 inch screens (as it happens, the two 3.2-inch screens were both htc, so vendor might be factor too). [edit] Actually, I've determined that this is a 2.2 issue, not a screen size (or even vendor) issue. Can't ensure that ImageViews added to a framelayout with a SurfaceView in it will appear on top of the surfaceview. I ran some tests in the respective onDraw() methods and the imageviews are 'visible' (0), and nothing does anything to the alpha of the drawables, which are there as well at ondraw(). [/edit] Any insight would be welcomed. Ken T.

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• could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

  - by user1144695

  i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

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• Unity: Replace registered type with another type at runtime

  - by gehho

  We have a scenario where the user can choose between different hardware at runtime. In the background we have several different hardware classes which all implement an IHardware interface. We would like to use Unity to register the currently selected hardware instance for this interface. However, when the user selects another hardware, this would require us to replace this registration at runtime. The following example might make this clearer: public interface IHardware { // some methods... } public class HardwareA : IHardware { // ... } public class HardwareB : IHardware { // ... } container.RegisterInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareA()); // user selects new hardware somewhere in the configuration... // the following is invalid code, but can it be achieved another way? container.ReplaceInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareB()); Can this behavior be achieved somehow? BTW: I am completely aware that instances which have already been resolved from the container will not be replaced with the new instances, of course. We would take care of that ourselves by forcing them to resolve the instance once again.

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• How to unselect checkbox in chrome browser

  - by hudi

  in my wicket application I have 3 checkbox in form: add(new CheckBox("1").setOutputMarkupId(true)); add(new CheckBox("2").setOutputMarkupId(true)); add(new CheckBox("3").setOutputMarkupId(true)); form also contain behavior which unselect checboxes add(new AjaxEventBehavior("onclick") { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Override protected void onEvent(AjaxRequestTarget target) { List<Component> components = new ArrayList<Component>(); if (target.getLastFocusedElementId() != null) { if (target.getLastFocusedElementId().equals("1")) { components.add(get("2")); components.add(get("3")); } else if (target.getLastFocusedElementId().equals("2")) { components.add(get("1")); } else if (target.getLastFocusedElementId().equals("3")) { components.add(get("1")); } for (Component component : components) { component.setDefaultModelObject(null); target.add(component); } } } }); this works good on mozilla browser but in chrome this doesnt work. How I can improve to work this on chrome too ? UPDATE problem is in: target.getLastFocusedElementId() in mozilla this return what I want but in chrome it always return null but I dont know wh UPDATE 2 google chrome has bug in focus element: http://code.google.com/p/chromium/issues/detail?id=1383&can=1&q=window.focus%20type%3aBug&colspec=ID%20Stars%20Pri%20Area%20Type%20Status%20Summary%20Modified%20Owner so I need to do this in other way

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• Dealing with rapid tapping on Buttons

  - by Eric Burke

  I have a Button with an OnClickListener. For illustrative purposes, consider a button that shows a modal dialog: public class SomeActivity ... { protected void onCreate(Bundle state) { super.onCreate(state); findViewById(R.id.ok_button).setOnClickListener( new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // This should block input new AlertDialog.Builder(SomeActivity.this) .setCancelable(true) .show(); } }); } Under normal usage, the alert dialog appears and blocks further input. Users must dismiss the dialog before they can tap the button again. But sometimes the button's OnClickListener is called twice before the dialog appears. You can duplicate this fairly easily by tapping really fast on the button. I generally have to try several times before it happens, but sooner or later I'll trigger multiple onClick(...) calls before the dialog blocks input. I see this behavior in Android 2.1 on the Motorola Droid phone. We've received 4 crash reports in the Market, indicating this occasionally happens to people. Depending on what our OnClickListeners do, this causes all sorts of havoc. How can we guarantee that blocking dialogs actually block input after the first tap?

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