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• How can I execute a Java program within a php script?

  - by user450775

  I am writing a simple web upload script. The goal is to upload a file using php, and then calling a java program to process this file. I have done the work for uploading the file, but I cannot get a java program to be successfully run from within the php script. I have tried exec(), shell_exec(), and system() with no results. For the command, I have used "java Test", "java < directory /Test", "/usr/bin/java < directory /Test", I have even set up the application as a jar file with no results. The actual line of code I have used is: echo shell_exec("java Test"); Usually there is no output. However, if I have just shell_exec("java"), then the last line of the help from java ("show splash screen with specified image") is displayed, which shows that the command has been executed. If I use, for example, shell_exec("whoami") I get "nobody" returned, which is correct. The only thing the java file does is create a file so that I can see that the application has been successfully run (the application runs successfully if I run it on the command line). I have set the permissions for the java file to 777 to rule out any possibility of permission errors. I have been struggling with this for a while trying all sorts of options with no results - the file is never created (the file is created with an absolute path so it's not being created and I just can't find the file). Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks.

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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• Trouble using 'eval' to define a toplevel function when called from within an object.

  - by mschaef

  I've written (in JavaScript) an interactive read-eval-print-loop that is encapsulated within an object. However, I recently noticed that toplevel function definitions specified to the interpreter do not appear to be 'remembered' by the interpreter. After some diagnostic work, I've reduced the core problem to this: var evaler = { eval: function (str) { return eval(str); }, }; eval("function t1() { return 1; }"); // GOOD evaler.eval("function t2() { return 2; }"); // FAIL After running this script, I have a definition for t1, and no defintion for t2. The act of calling eval from within evaler is sufficiently different from the toplevel call that the global definition does not get recorded. What does happen is that the call to evaler.eval returns a function object, so I'm presuming that t2 is being defined and stored in some other set of bindings that I don't have access to. (It's not defined as a member in evaler.) Is there any easy fix for this? I've tried all sorts of fixes, and haven't stumbled upon one that works. (Most of what I've done has centered around putting the call to eval in an anonymous function, and altering the way that's called, chainging __parent__, etc.) Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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• How do I check if a scalar has a compiled regex in it with Perl?

  - by Robert P

  Let's say I have a subroutine/method that a user can call to test some data that (as an example) might look like this: sub test_output { my ($self, $test) = @_; my $output = $self->long_process_to_get_data(); if ($output =~ /\Q$test/) { $self->assert_something(); } else { $self->do_something_else(); } } Normally, $test is a string, which we're looking for anywhere in the output. This was an interface put together to make calling it very easy. However, we've found that sometimes, a straight string is problematic - for example, a large, possibly varying number of spaces...a pattern, if you will. Thus, I'd like to let them pass in a regex as an option. I could just do: $output =~ $test if I could assume that it's always a regex, but ah, but the backwards compatibility! If they pass in a string, it still needs to test it like a raw string. So in that case, I'll need to test to see if $test is a regex. Is there any good facility for detecting whether or not a scalar has a compiled regex in it?

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• Completed Event not triggering for web service on some systems

  - by Farukh

  Hi, This is rather weird issue that I am facing with by WCF/Silverlight application. I am using a WCF to get data from a database for my Silverlight application and the completed event is not triggering for method in WCF on some systems. I have checked the called method executes properly has returns the values. I have checked via Fiddler and it clearly shows that response has the returned values as well. However the completed event is not getting triggered. Moreover in few of the systems, everything is fine and I am able to process the returned value in the completed method. Any thoughts or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. I have tried searching around the web but without any luck :( Following is the code.. Calling the method.. void RFCDeploy_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { btnSelectFile.IsEnabled = true; btnUploadFile.IsEnabled = false; btnSelectFile.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnSelectFile_Click); btnUploadFile.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnUploadFile_Click); RFCChangeDataGrid.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(RFCChangeDataGrid_KeyDown); btnAddRFCManually.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnAddRFCManually_Click); ServiceReference1.DataService1Client ws = new BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.DataService1Client(); ws.GetRFCChangeCompleted += new EventHandler<BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.GetRFCChangeCompletedEventArgs>(ws_GetRFCChangeCompleted); ws.GetRFCChangeAsync(); this.BusyIndicator1.IsBusy = true; } Completed Event.... void ws_GetRFCChangeCompleted(object sender, BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.GetRFCChangeCompletedEventArgs e) { PagedCollectionView view = new PagedCollectionView(e.Result); view.GroupDescriptions.Add(new PropertyGroupDescription("RFC")); RFCChangeDataGrid.ItemsSource = view; foreach (CollectionViewGroup group in view.Groups) { RFCChangeDataGrid.CollapseRowGroup(group, true); } this.BusyIndicator1.IsBusy = false; } Please note that this WCF has lots of other method as well and all of them are working fine.... I have problem with only this method... Thanks...

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• Implementing deadlock condition

  - by Bhaskar

  I am trying to implementing deadlock condition but somehow I am not able to get it working. Both the threads Thread1 and Thread2 are entering in the run function but only one of them enters in Sub/Sum depending on who entered run first. Example : if Thread2 entered run first the it will call sub() and Thread1 never calls sum(). I have also added sleep time so that Thread2 sleeps before calling sum() and Thread1 gets enough time to enter Sum() but Thread1 never enters. public class ExploringThreads { public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub threadexample a1 = new threadexample(); Thread t1 = new Thread(a1, "Thread1"); Thread t2 = new Thread(a1,"Thread2"); t1.start(); t2.start(); } } class threadexample implements Runnable{ public int a = 10; public void run(){ if(Thread.currentThread().getName().equals("Thread1")) sum(); else if(Thread.currentThread().getName().equals("Thread2")) sub(); } public synchronized void sum() { try { Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()+"In Sum"); sub(); } public synchronized void sub() { try { Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()+"In Sub"); sum(); } }

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• What is the most efficient way of associating information with a Type in .Net?

  - by Miguel Angelo

  I want to associate custom data to a Type, and retrieve that data in run-time, blasingly fast. This is just my imagination, of my perfect world: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetMyInformation(); this would be very fast... of course this does not exist! If it did I would not be asking. hehe ;) This is the way using custom attributes: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetCustomAttribute("MyInformation"); this is slow because it requires a lookup of the string "MyInformation" This is a way using a Dictionary<Type, MyInformation: var myInfo = myInformationDictionary[typeof(MyClass)]; This is also slow because it is still a lookup of 'typeof(MyClass)'. I know that dictionary is very fast, but this is not enough... it is not as fast as calling a method. It is not even the same order of speed. I am not saying I want it to be as fast as a method call. I want to associate information with a type and access it as fast as possible. I am asking whether there is a better way, or event a best way of doing it. Any ideas?? Thanks!

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• When to use reinterpret_cast?

  - by HeretoLearn

  I am little confused with the applicability of reinterpret_cast vs static_cast. From what I have read the general rules are to use static cast when the types can be interpreted at compile time hence the word static. This is the cast the C++ compiler uses internally for implicit casts also. reinterpret_cast are applicable in two scenarios, convert integer types to pointer types and vice versa or to convert one pointer type to another. The general idea I get is this is unportable and should be avoided. Where I am a little confused is one usage which I need, I am calling C++ from C and the C code needs to hold on to the C++ object so basically it holds a void*. What cast should be used to convert between the void * and the Class type? I have seen usage of both static_cast and reinterpret_cast? Though from what I have been reading it appears static is better as the cast can happen at compile time? Though it says to use reinterpret_cast to convert from one pointer type to another?

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• WIN32 Logon question

  - by Lalit_M

  We have developed a ASP.NET 3.5 web application with Web Server 2008 and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. I need to get the token back after the authentication (authenticated \ password locked \ wrong password ) its futher use and based on logic showing different web pages Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Please answer the following issue: Is it possible to disable this behavior to create the folder as taking 2.78 MB of space for every new user and it eating my disck space? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. For any solution related to LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH, can you please confirm if that will stop creating the folders at location C:\users. Also for any possible solution I need either I am able to disable the folder to be created at C:\user or Any other option to authenticated user which will not creat folders.

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• WindowsFormsApplicationBase SplashScreen makes login form ignore keypresses until I click on it - how to debug?

  - by Tom Bushell

  My WinForms app has a simple modal login form, invoked at startup via ShowDialog(). When I run from inside Visual Studio, everything works fine. I can just type in my User ID, hit the Enter key, and get logged in. But when I run a release build directly, everything looks normal (the login form is active, there's a blinking cursor in the User ID MaskedEditBox), but all keypresses are ignored until I click somewhere on the login form. Very annoying if you are used to doing everything from the keyboard. I've tried to trace through the event handlers, and to set the focus directly with code, to no avail. Any suggestions how to debug this (outside of Visual Studio), or failing that - a possible workaround? Edit Here's the calling code, in my Main Form: private void OfeMainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { OperatorLogon(); } private void OperatorLogon() { // Modal dialogs should be in a "using" block for proper disposal using (var logonForm = new C21CfrLogOnForm()) { var dr = logonForm.ShowDialog(this); if (dr == DialogResult.OK) SaveOperatorId(logonForm.OperatorId); else Application.Exit(); } } Edit 2 Didn't think this was relevant, but I'm using Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase for it's splash screen and SingleInstanceController support. I just commented out the splash screen code, and the problem has disappeared. So that's opened up a whole new line of inquiry... Edit 3 Changed title to reflect better understanding of the problem

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• Receiving AJAX HTTP Response Code as 0

  - by shyam

  I have a pretty simple AJAX and PHP code. While calling the PHP through the AJAX it receives the response code as 0. The PHP code is successfully run, but I can't get the response. What does this status '0' denote and how can I solve this? function confirmUser(id) { xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); regid = id; if (xmlhttp==null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url="confirm.php"; url=url+"?id="+id; url=url+"&a=confirm"; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { $("#txtHint" + regid).text("Awaiting confirmation"); } else { alert (xmlhttp.status); //this shows '0' } }; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } Well, this is the javascript I used. Pardon me if I should've added anything more than this. Also tell me what I missed. I appreciate your help

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• Filtering Questions (posts) by tag_name in TagController#index passing /tags?tag_name=something

  - by bgadoci

  I am trying to get my TagsController#index action to display only the Questions that contain certain tags when passing the search parameter tag_name. I am not getting an error just can't get the filter to work correctly such that upon receiving the /tags?tag_name=something url, only those questions are displayed . Here is the setup: class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question def self.search(str) return [] if str.blank? cond_text = str.split.map{|w| "tag_name LIKE ? "}.join(" OR ") cond_values = str.split.map{|w| "%#{w}%"} all(:order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => (str ? [cond_text, *cond_values] : [])) end end and class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy end tag link that would send the URL to the TagsController looks like this: <%= link_to(tag_name, tags_path(:tag_name => tag_name)) %> and outputs: /tags?tag_name=something In my /views/tags/index.html.erb view I am calling the questions by rendering a partial /views/questions/_question.html.erb. <%= render :partial => @questions %> When I send the URL with the search parameter nothing happens. Here is my TagsController#index action: def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) @questions = Question.all( :order => 'created_at DESC', :limit => 50) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end How can I properly filter questions displayed in the /views/tags/index.html.erb file for the parameter tag.tag_name?

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• C++: inheritance problem

  - by Helltone

  It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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• Does this copy the reference or the object?

  - by Water Cooler v2

  Sorry, I am being both thick and lazy, but mostly lazy. Actually, not even that. I am trying to save time so I can do more in less time as there's a lot to be done. Does this copy the reference or the actual object data? public class Foo { private NameValueCollection _nvc = null; public Foo( NameValueCollection nvc) { _nvc = nvc; } } public class Bar { public static void Main() { NameValueCollection toPass = new NameValueCollection(); new Foo( toPass ); // I believe this only copies the reference // so if I ever wanted to compare toPass and // Foo._nvc (assuming I got hold of the private // field using reflection), I would only have to // compare the references and wouldn't have to compare // each string (deep copy compare), right? } I think I know the answer for sure: it only copies the reference. But I am not even sure why I am asking this. I guess my only concern is, if, after instantiating Foo by calling its parameterized ctor with toPass, if I needed to make sure that the NVC I passed as toPass and the NVC private field _nvc had the exact same content, I would just need to compare their references, right?

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• Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

  - by Neil Traft

  Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

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• How do I form a Rails link_to with custom field value as parameter

  - by rwheadon

  I have an invoice form where I'm giving the user opportunity to apply coupons to the invoice total. These coupons are held in another Model and I am going to do a lookup on the Coupon code (something like "20OFFONFRIDAY") which I will use to find what the restrictions and benefits of the coupon. (and to see if it even exists at all) The invoice does not have "coupon_code" on it so I hand forged the field onto my form with html: <% if (@invoice.status == 'new') %> <input id="coupon_code" name="coupon_code" type="text"/> <% end %> and I am calling a controller method with link_to and would like something like the following jquery enhanced link_to to work: <%= link_to "Apply Coupon", { :controller=>"invoices", :id=>@invoice.id, :coupon_code=>$('.coupon_code').val(), :action=>"apply_coupon_code" }, :method=>"post" %> ^formatted for easier reading Then inside my "apply_coupon_code" method I will go off to a couple other models and perform business logic before returning the updated invoice page. ...but maybe it's a pipe dream. I guess if push came to shove I could add the "coupon_code" field to my invoice model (even though it's persisted elsewhere.) so it's part of the entity and thus easily available on my form to send back into a controller, but I just hate adding a column to make a coupon validation easier. I figured I'd ping stackoverflow before taking that path.

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• Complicated .NET factory design

  - by Tom W

  Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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• How can I store and access a filehandle in a Perl class?

  - by Haiyuan Zhang

  please look at the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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• overridePendingTransition doesn't work

  - by Ixx

  Have found already some people asking the same, but the solutions didn't work for me. I see no animation. Calling it this way: Intent intent = new Intent(this, MyActivity.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); fadein.xml and fadeout.xml are in the anim folder: fadein.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="0.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="1.0" /> </set> fadeout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="1.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="0.0" /> </set> Using min. API 7: manifest: <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> API 7 is also in my project.properties file: target=android-7 What am I doing wrong? P.D. Removing the lines with the interpolator doesn't change anything. Already seen / tried: overridePendingTransition doesn't work overridePendingTransition does not work when flag_activity_reorder_to_front is used Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Activity transition in Android

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• In Safari, using jQuery a Form Input Text Field does not receive focus after alert is displayed. Why

  - by Rob

  I have an ASPX web form. I use jQuery to simply my Javascript. I use a Javascript validation script to validate each of the form fields' values. If an error occurs, I popup an alert with an error message. Then I transfer focus to the underlying element. Here are examples I have tried. Using jQuery: var Form_FieldDef = function(name) { this.name = name; this.SetFocus = function() { $('#' + this.name)[0].focus(); } this.Validate = function() { var isvalid = true; if ( $.trim($('#' + this.name).val()) == '') { alert("Your entry is empty"); this.SetFocus(); isvalid = false; } return isvalid; } } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I don't have a Mac. So I changed the SetFocus method to this. this.SetFocus = function() { var fld = document.getElementById(this.name); if (fld != null) fld.focus(); } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I stepped through the code with VS 2008 debugger, and I'm calling the focus method on the underlying element.

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• Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

  - by akshay

  Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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• How i finding Internate network error using Try..........Catch in iphone?

  - by Rajendra Bhole

  Hi, I developing an application in which i calling web services on iphone. I want to implement Try.......Catch in that code for catching internet and GPRS connection error.The code is as follow, NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:mainURL5]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSHTTPURLResponse* urlResponse = nil; NSError *error = [[[NSError alloc] init] autorelease]; NSData *responseData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&urlResponse error:&error]; result5 = [[NSMutableString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; I was using Try......catch but it didn't work that code as follows, @try { //prepar request NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:mainURL5]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSHTTPURLResponse* urlResponse = nil; NSError *error = [[[NSError alloc] init] autorelease]; NSData *responseData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&urlResponse error:&error]; result5 = [[NSMutableString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; } @catch(NSException * e) { [clsMessageBox ShowMessageOK:@"some text" :[e reason]]; }

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• C# Casting system.__comobject to class type

  - by ijrufus

  I have an Excel Add-In that I'm currently trying to set up a unit test framework for. For the unit tests I've followed this guide: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/varsha/archive/2010/08/17/writing-automated-test-cases-for-vsto-application.aspx It seems to work fine, until I want to return a class object from my interface. Specifying the class object as the return type throws a "return argument has an invalid type" exception when calling the method. Changing the return type from the class to an object allows me to call the method and get the object, but now I'm unable to cast it as the class and use it as intended, getting this exception message when I try: > Unable to cast COM object of type 'System.__ComObject' to class type > 'anaplan.Utility.XYCoordinates'. Instances of types that represent COM > components cannot be cast to types that do not represent COM > components; however they can be cast to interfaces as long as the > underlying COM component supports QueryInterface calls for the IID of > the interface. I've retrieved the Type name using VisualBasic.Information.TypeName and it's showing it as the class I expect. Is there any way to get the comobject cast back to the class? Or another way to access the properties it has? Or am I just being a bit stupid here?

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• Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

  - by gojomo

  I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

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• Building simple jQuery plugin, need assistance

  - by kirisu_kun

  Hi there, I'm building my first ever jQuery plugin (it's just a simple experiment). Here's what I have so far: (function($){ $.fn.extend({ auchieFader: function(options) { var defaults = { mask: '', topImg : '', } var options = $.extend(defaults, options); return this.each(function() { var o = options; var obj = $(this); var masker = $(o.mask, obj); masker.hover(function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "0" }, "slow"); }, function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "1" }, "slow"); }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I'm then calling the plugin using: $('.fader').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); If I then add another request say: $('.fader2').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); Then no matter what instance of my 2 faders I hover both of them will trigger. I know this is because my mask mask and topImg options have the same class - but how can I modify the plugin to allow for these items to have the same class? I know it's probably something really simple, but I'm still finding my way with jQuery and Javascript in general. Any other tips on improving my code would also be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Chris

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