Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 238/278 | < Previous Page | 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245  | Next Page >

  • What is the common way to program action listeners?

    - by Roman
    I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

    Read the article

  • Problem with RSA-encrypting a string in PHP and passing it to .NET service

    - by jonasaxelsson
    I need to call a web service that requires a login url containing an RSA encrypted, base_64 encoded and url-encoded login data. I don't have a formal php training, but even for me it seems like an easy task, however when calling the service I get an 'Invalid Format' response. What am I doing wrong and is there another way to come up with the encrypted string? Code example below. Thank you for your help! http://www.edsko.net/misc/ for encryption. $message = '?id=112233&param1=hello&[email protected]&name=Name'; $keyLength = '2048'; $exponent = '65537'; $modulus = '837366556729991345239927764652........'; $encryptedData = rsa_encrypt($message, $exponent, $modulus, $keyLength); $data = urlencode(base64_encode($encryptedData)); $loginurl = 'http://www.somedomain.com/LoginWB.aspx?Id=9876&Data='.$data; echo '<iframe src="'.$loginurl.'" width="570px" height="800px">'; echo '</iframe>'; ?

    Read the article

  • free( ) pointers

    - by user1043625
    I'm required to use a special library to keep track of my memory leaks where malloc()= allocate( ) and free( ) = unallocate( ). I'm trying to complete free a linked-list but it seems like the "root" value isn't being freed. typedef struct _node { struct _node *child; char *command; } Command_list; void delete_commands(Command_list **root) { Command_list *temp; while( *root != NULL ){ temp = (*root)->child; //printf("STRING: %s\n", *root->command ); unallocate( *root ); *root = temp; } } The function that's calling it void file_processing( .... ){ Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)); root = NULL; .... delete_commands( &root ); } } I believe that Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)) isn't being properly de-allocated for some reason. Anyone can give me some hints? UPDATE: I found out that instead of Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)); root = NULL; this works: Command_list *root = NULL;

    Read the article

  • RegExpValidator never matches

    - by babyangel86
    Hi, I've got a class that's meant to validate input fields to make sure the value is always a decimal. I've tested the regex here: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=validators_7.html, and it looks like it does the right thing, but in my app, I can't seem to get it to match to a number format. Class Definition: public class DecimalValidator { //------------------------------- ATTRIBUTES public var isDecimalValidator:RegExpValidator; //------------------------------- CONSTRUCTORS public function DecimalValidator() { isDecimalValidator = new RegExpValidator(); isDecimalValidator.expression = "^-?(\d+\.\d*|\.\d+)$"; isDecimalValidator.flags = "g"; isDecimalValidator.required = true; isDecimalValidator.property = "text"; isDecimalValidator.triggerEvent = FocusEvent.FOCUS_OUT; isDecimalValidator.noMatchError = "Float Expected"; } } Setting the source here: public function registerDecimalInputValidator(inputBox:TextInput, valArr:Array):void { // Add Validators var dValidator:DecimalValidator = new DecimalValidator(); dValidator.isDecimalValidator.source = inputBox; dValidator.isDecimalValidator.trigger = inputBox; inputBox.restrict = "[0-9].\\.\\-"; inputBox.maxChars = 10; valArr.push(dValidator.isDecimalValidator); } And Calling it here: registerDecimalInputValidator(textInput, validatorArr); Where textInput is an input box created earlier. Clearly I'm missing something simple yet important, but I'm not entirely sure what! Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Simple Oracle File repository with folder hierarchy

    - by Ope
    I have an application that stores large amount of files (XML and binary) in folder hierarchies. Currently the main method is storing them in file system or using a legacy CMS, which we want to get rid of. The CMS supports Oracle and a customer wants to keep the files in Oracle because of enterprise policies (backup etc.) The question is: Is there a simple implementation of file repository with folder hierarchy for Oracle? What I am looking for is a small .Net component or example code (PL/SQL and/or .Net) that would have the following methods: Create, Delete, Exists Folder CRUD file Move and potentially Copy file or directory Access to files and folders with paths like "/root/folder1/folder2/file.xml" Ability to get all the files and folders in a folder and potentially also the entire directory tree Tree traversal, getting the parent, all children etc. needs to be fast. I need the implementation in .Net, but if it was just the stored procedures, I could create the .Net calling code. I have pointers to generic articles for creating hierarchies in DB, so if I need to do it from scratch, I know where to start. What I am asking here, is there already an implementation that I could take without doing this from scratch? It seems like such a generic requirement... If the answer is a CMS, Document management system or such it should be Open Source or at least quite cheap (some hundreds / server) and it should be possible to deploy it XCopy - hopefully only couple of DLL:s. I do not need - or want - a full featured big CMS with dozens of dlls and especially not an msi-installation. I have tried to google this, but the words "repository", "CMS", "file hierarchy" etc. give so many answers, the searches are pretty much useless. Thanks, OPe

    Read the article

  • What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

    - by user366152
    I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

    Read the article

  • Visual C++ function suddenly 170x slower

    - by Mikael
    For the past few months I've been working on a Visual C++ project to take images from cameras and process them. Up until today this has taken about 65 ms to update the data but now it has suddenly increased significantly. What happens is: I launch my program and for the first 30 or so iterations it performs as expected, then suddenly the loop time increases from 65 ms to 250 ms. The odd thing is, after timing each function I found out that the part of the code which is causing the slowdown is fairly basic and has not been modified in over a month. The data which goes into it is unchanged and identical every iteration but the execution time which is initially less than 1 ms suddenly increases to 170 ms while the rest of the code is still performing as expected (time-wise). Basically, I am calling the same function over and over, for the first 30 calls it performs as it should, after that it slows down for no apparent reason. It might also be worth noting that it is a sudden change in execution time, not a gradual increase. What could be causing this? The code is leaking some memory (~50 kb/s) but not nearly enough to warrant a sudden 4x slowdown. If anyone has any ideas I'd love to hear them!

    Read the article

  • Printing a JFrame and its components

    - by Alex Terreaux
    I have been working in a big program and one of its functionalities should be to print the contents of the main window. I checked the API and found this example: http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/2d/printing/gui.html it was very helpful, I tried to use that code in my program by placing this inside the actionperformed method of my print button: PrinterJob job = PrinterJob.getPrinterJob(); job.setPrintable(this); boolean ok = job.printDialog(); if (ok) { try { job.print(); } catch (PrinterException ex) { /* The job did not successfully complete */ } } If I click the print button, I get a printer dialog and when I tell it to print, it just prints a blank document. I know the above code is not all I need, as I've seen in the API's examples there is a print() method, but apparently they never call it, so it is pretty confusing. I've tried calling and using it many times, but with no success. Also, I think that when I finally get it to print, my window will need to be printed in the landscape orientation, it even may need some scaling. Any ideas on how to do that? I would like any useful help to help me implement this code successfully. I know I should be able to do it by myself just by checking the documentation (I've tried for almost 2 days now) but I can't get it to work. I've learned all the programming I know through the internet. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Validation errors prevent the property setter being called

    - by HA
    Hi, I am looking for a simple solution to the following problem: I am using a simple TextBox control with the Text property bound to a property in the code behind. Additionally I am using a validation rule to notify the user of malformed input. ... error display style here ... Now after entering valid data into the TextBox the user can hit a button to send the data. When clicking the button the data from the bound property UserName in the code behind is evaluated and sent. The problem is that a user can enter valid data into the TextBox and this will be set in the property UserName. If the user then decides to change the text in the TextBox and the data becomes invalid, the setter of the property UserName is not called after the failed validation. This means that the last valid data remains in the property UserName, while the TextBox display the invalid data with the error indicator. If the user then clicks on the button to send the data, the last valid data will be sent instead of the current TextBox content. I know I could deactivate the button if the data is invalid and in fact I do, but the method is called in the setter of UserName. And if that is not called after a failed validation the button stays enabled. So the question is: How do I enable calling of the property setter after a failed validation?

    Read the article

  • How to make sure an action completes before you continue

    - by HurkNburkS
    I am trying to close a UIView thats in one method from another method by calling it, The UIView closes fine but not untill after all of the processes are finished in the current method. I would like to know if there is a way to force the first thing to happen first (i.e. close UIviews) then continue the current method? This is what my method looks like - (void)selectDeselectAllPressed:(UIButton*)button { int id = button.tag; [SVProgressHUD showWithStatus:@"Updating" maskType:SVProgressHUDMaskTypeGradient]; [self displaySelected]; // removes current view so you can load hud will not be behind it if (id == 1) { [self selectAllD]; } else if (id == 2) { [self deselectAllD]; } else if (id == 3) { [self selectAllI]; } else if (id == 4) { [self deselectAllI]; } } as you can see what happens is this method is called when a button is pressed, I would like for the displaySelected method to do what it needs to do before any of the other methods are called? Currently what happes when i debug this is displaySelected method is called the thread walks through that then continues to the if statment then after the method in the if statment has finished then displaySelected changes are made... its so weird. any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Is this an error in "More Effective C++" in Item28?

    - by particle128
    I encountered a question when I was reading the item28 in More Effective C++ .In this item, the author shows to us that we can use member template in SmartPtr such that the SmartPtr<Cassette> can be converted to SmartPtr<MusicProduct>. The following code is not the same as in the book,but has the same effect. #include <iostream> class Base{}; class Derived:public Base{}; template<typename T> class smart{ public: smart(T* ptr):ptr(ptr){} template<typename U> operator smart<U>() { return smart<U>(ptr); } ~smart(){delete ptr;} private: T* ptr; }; void test(const smart<Base>& ) {} int main() { smart<Derived> sd(new Derived); test(sd); return 0; } It indeed can be compiled without compilation error. But when I ran the executable file, I got a core dump. I think that's because the member function of the conversion operator makes a temporary smart, which has a pointer to the same ptr in sd (its type is smart<Derived>). So the delete directive operates twice. What's more, after calling test, we can never use sd any more, since ptr in sd has already been delete. Now my questions are : Is my thought right? Or my code is not the same as the original code in the book? If my thought is right, is there any method to do this? Thanks very much for your help.

    Read the article

  • Question about singleton property

    - by Jack
    I'm reading the java tutorial for enums located here and have a question: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/enums.html#Card The part i'm confused about is as follows: "The Card class, above, contains a static factory that returns a deck, but there is no way to get an individual card from its rank and suit. Merely exposing the constructor would destroy the singleton property (that only a single instance of each card is allowed to exist). Here is how to write a static factory that preserves the singleton property, using a nested EnumMap: " Now as I understand, changing the original private "Card" constructor to public would allow us to instantiate an unlimited number of copies of a "Card" object with a given suit+rank. The solution as proposed was to create an EnumMap which would store four Maps (one for each suit), which themselves contained 13 Card objects with the rank as their keys. And so now if you wanted to retrieve a specific Card object from the deck, you would just call the "valueOf" method. My question now is, what's the prevent you with calling the valueOf method as many times as you like? Wouldn't that lead to the same problem as making the original private constructor public? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • javascript error handling

    - by pankaj
    I have a javascript function for checking errors which I am calling on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error I want to stop execution of the click event. But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in the javascript function.

    Read the article

  • Efficient way to call .Sum() on multiple properties

    - by SherCoder
    I have a function that uses Linq to get data from the database and then I call that function in another function to sum all the individual properties using .Sum on each individual property. I was wondering if there is an efficient way to sum all the properties at once rather than calling .Sum() on each individual property. I think the way I am doing as of right now, is very slow (although untested). public OminitureStats GetAvgOmnitureData(int? fnsId, int dateRange) { IQueryable<OminitureStats> query = GetOmnitureDataAsQueryable(fnsId, dateRange); int pageViews = query.Sum(q => q.PageViews); int monthlyUniqueVisitors = query.Sum(q => q.MonthlyUniqueVisitors); int visits = query.Sum(q => q.Visits); double pagesPerVisit = (double)query.Sum(q => q.PagesPerVisit); double bounceRate = (double)query.Sum(q => q.BounceRate); return new OminitureStats(pageViews, monthlyUniqueVisitors, visits, bounceRate, pagesPerVisit); }

    Read the article

  • What to throw in a C++ class wrapping a C library ?

    - by ereOn
    I have to create a set of wrapping C++ classes around an existing C library. For many objects of the C library, the construction is done by calling something like britney_spears* create_britney_spears() and the opposite function void free_britney_spears(britney_spears* brit). If the allocation of a britney_spears fails, create_britney_spears() returns NULL. This is, as far as I know, a very common pattern. Now I want to wrap this inside a C++ class. //britney_spears.hpp class BritneySpears { public: BritneySpears(); private: boost::shared_ptr<britney_spears> m_britney_spears; }; And here is the implementation: // britney_spears.cpp BritneySpears::BritneySpears() : m_britney_spears(create_britney_spears(), free_britney_spears) { if (!m_britney_spears) { // Here I should throw something to abort the construction, but what ??! } } So the question is in the code sample: What should I throw to abort the constructor ? I know I can throw almost anything, but I want to know what is usually done. I have no other information about why the allocation failed. Should I create my own exception class ? Is there a std exception for such cases ? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • jquery ajax problem in chrome

    - by spaceman
    i have the following jquery code running on my page just fine in FF and IE, but chrome seems to be freaking out.. in FF and IE the call is made and the result is appended to the div. in chrome, it calls ajaxfailed on failure. the XMLHttpRequest passed to the AjaxFailed function has a status code of "200" and the statusText is "ok". the readystate is 4 and the responseText is set to the data i wish to append to the div.. basically from what i can see its calling the failure method but it isn't failing.. i have tried with both get and post requests and it always breaks in chrome. function getBranchDetails(contactID, branchID) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: urlToRequestTo, data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: branchDetailsSuccess, error: AjaxFailed }); } function branchDetailsSuccess(result) { $("#divBranchControl").empty(); $("#divBranchControl").append(" " + result); $("#branchDiv").tabs(); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert("FAILED : " + result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); }

    Read the article

  • PHP delete script, return to 'viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=NO VALUE'

    - by Derek
    Hi, As the title states... I am deleting a 'subject' from a 'classroom' I view classrooms, then can click on a classroom to view the subject for that classroom. So the link where I am viewing subjects looks like: viewsubjects.php?classroom=23 When the user selects the delete button (in a row) to remove a subject from a class, I simply want the user to be redirected back to the list of subjects for the classroom (exactly where they were before!!) So I though this is simply a case of calling up the classroom ID within my delete script. Here is what I have: EDIT: corrected spelling mistake in code (this was not the problem) $subject_id = $_GET['subject_id']; $classroom_id = $_GET['classroom_id']; $sql = "DELETE FROM subjects WHERE subject_id=".$subject_id; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("MySQL Error: ".mysql_error()); header("Location: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=".$classroom_id); exit(); The subject is being removed from the DB, but when I am redirected back the URI is displaying with an empty classroom ID like: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id= Is there a way to carry the classroom ID through successfully through the delete script so it can be displayed after, allowing the user to be redirected back to the page? Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • POSIX Sockets: How to detect Ctrl-C sent over Telnet?

    - by ogott
    Short Question What's the right way to handle a Ctrl-C event sent over Telnet on the server side? Long Question After calling recv() on a socket, I'd like to handle some situations appropriately. One of them is to return a certain error code when Ctrl-C was received. What's the correct way to detect this? The following works, but it just doesn't seem right: size_t recv_count; static char ctrl_c[5] = {0xff, 0xf4, 0xff, 0xfd, 0x06}; recv_count = recv(socket, buffer, buffer_size, 0); if (recv_count == sizeof(ctrl_c) && memcmp(buffer, ctrl_c, sizeof(ctrl_c) == 0) { return CTRL_C_RECEIVED; } I found a comment on Ctrl-C in a side-note in this UNIX Socket FAQ: [...] (by the way, out-of-band is often used for that ctrl-C, too). As I understand, receiving out-of-band data is done using recv() with a certain flag as the last parameter. But when I'm waiting for data using recv() as I do in the code above, I can't read out-of-band data at the same time. Apart from that, I'm getting something using recv() without that oob-flag.

    Read the article

  • Cannot Display Data from MySQL table

    - by MxmastaMills
    I've got a pretty standard call to a MySQL database and for some reason I can't get the code to work. Here's what I have: $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost","username","password"); if (!$mysqli) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } session_start(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM jobs ORDER BY id DESC"; $result = $mysqli->query($sql); $num_rows = mysqli_num_rows($result); Now, first, I know that it is connecting properly because I'm not getting the die method plus I added an else conditional in there previously and it checked out. Then the page displays but I get the errors: Warning: mysqli_num_rows() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in blablabla/index.php on line 11 Warning: mysqli_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in blablabla/index.php on line 12 I've double-checked my database and there is a table called jobs with a row of "id" (it's the primary row). The thing that confuses me is this is code that I literally copied and pasted from another site I built and for some reason the code doesn't work on this one (I obviously copy and pasted it and then just changed the table name and rows accordingly). I saw the error and tried: $num_rows = $mysqli_result->num_rows; $row_array = $mysqli_result->fetch_array; and that fixed the errors but resulted in no data being passed (because obviously $mysqli_result has no value). I don't know why the error is calling for that (is it a difference in version of MySQL or PHP from the other site)? Can someone help me track down the problem? Thanks so much. Sorry if it's something super simple that I'm overlooking, I've been at it for a while.

    Read the article

  • Add a smaller subView with new origin

    - by ReachWest
    I can't get my head around this - I know it must be simple.. I'm starting to feel pretty stupid. I have two viewControllers. MainViewController.h/m and LevelsViewController.h/m I want to add a subView from the LevelsViewController class and a view that is built in IB called levelsView. I am calling this from the MainViewController.m file. The levelsView is only 200x200 pixels and I want to offset it from the frame origin of the superView by x=140 pixels and y=50 pixels. I have this working - the view displays, but I can't figure out how to offset it. It only shows up at the 0,0 superView frame origin. (The superView shows below it, which is what I want). Here is the code I call in the method in the MainViewController.m that displays the levelsView.(I have commented out some of the things I have tried - but throws this error: error: request for member 'frame' in 'myLevelsView', which is of non-class type 'LevelsViewController*' ) - (void) displayLevelsPage { if (self.theLevelsView == nil) // Does not yet exist - therefore create { LevelsViewController * myLevelsView = [[LevelsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"levelsView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; NSLog(@"NEW theLevelsView instance created!"); CGRect frame2 = CGRectMake(140, 50, 200, 200); //myLevelsView.frame = frame2; self.theLevelsView = myLevelsView; [myLevelsView release]; } [self.view addSubview: theLevelsView.view]; NSLog(@"Levels View has been activated"); } Any insight would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Linq2Sql - attempting to update but the Set statement in sql is empty

    - by MrTortoise
    This is weird ... done updates loads of times before but cannot spot why this is different. I have a client class from the dbml I added a method called update public void UpdateSingle() { L2SDataContext dc = new L2SDataContext(); Client c = dc.Clients.Single<Client>(p => p.ID == this.ID); c.CopyToMe(this); c.updatedOn = DateTime.Now; dc.SubmitChanges(); dc.Dispose(); } The CopytoMe method public void CopyToMe(Client theObject) { if (ID != theObject.ID) { ID = theObject.ID; } /// this is redundant as generated code checks field for a change. deleted = theObject.deleted; deletedBy = theObject.deletedBy; deletedOn = theObject.deletedOn; insertedBy = theObject.insertedBy; insertedOn = theObject.insertedOn; name = theObject.name; updatedBy = theObject.updatedBy; updatedOn = theObject.updatedOn; } Im taking a client that was selected, changing its name and then calling this update method. The generated sql is as follows exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE [dbo].[tblClient] SET WHERE ([ID] = @p0) AND ([name] = @p1) AND ([insertedOn] = @p2) AND ([insertedBy] = @p3) AND ([updatedOn] = @p4) AND ([updatedBy] = @p5) AND ([deletedOn] IS NULL) AND ([deletedBy] IS NULL) AND (NOT ([deleted] = 1))',N'@p0 int,@p1 varchar(8000),@p2 datetime,@p3 int,@p4 datetime,@p5 int',@p0=103,@p1='UnitTestClient',@p2=''2010-05-17 11:33:22:520'',@p3=3,@p4=''2010-05-17 11:33:22:520'',@p5=3 I have no idea why this is not working ... used this kind of select object, set field to new value submit the selected object pattern many times and not had this problem. there is also nothing obviously wrong with the dbml - although this is probably a false statement any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I put back a character that I've read when I detect it's the start of a new row?

    - by gcc
    char nm; int i=0; double thelow, theupp; double numbers[200]; for(i=0;i<4;++i) { { char nm; double thelow,theupp; /*after erased ,created again*/ scanf("%c %lf %lf", &nm, &thelow, &theupp); for (k = 0; ; ++k) ; { scanf("%lf",numbers[k]); if(numbers[k]=='\n') break; } /*calling function and sending data(nm,..) to it*/ } /*after } is seen (nm ..) is erased*/ ; } I want say compiler : hey my dear code read only i-th row,dont touch characters at placed in next line. because characters at placed in next line is token after i increased by 1 and nm ,thelow,theupp is being zero or erased after then again created. how can I do ? input; D -1.5 0.5 .012 .025 .05 .1 .1 .1 .025 .012 0 0 0 .012 .025 .1 .2 .1 .05 .039 .025 .025 B 1 3 .117 .058 .029 .015 .007 .007 .007 .015 .022 .029 .036 .044 .051 .058 .066 .073 .080 .088 .095 .103

    Read the article

  • Yii 'limit' on related model's scope

    - by pethee
    I have a model called Guesses that has_many Comments. I'm making eager queries to this to then pass on as JSON as response to an API call. The relations are obviously set between the two models and they are correct(one2many <= belongs2) I added a scope to Comments called 'api' like this: public function scopes() { return array( 'api' => array( 'select' => 'id, comment, date', 'limit'=>3, 'order'=>'date DESC', 'together'=>true, ), ); } And I'm running the following one-liner query: $data = Guesses::model()->with('comments:api')->findAll(); The issue here is that when calling the 'api' scope using a with('relation'), the limit property simply doesn't apply. I added the 'together'=true there for another type of scope, plus I hear it might help. It doesn't make a difference. I don't need all the comments of all Guesses. I want the top 3 (or 5). I am also trying to keep the one-liner call intact and simple, manage everything through scopes, relations and parameterized functions so that the API call itself is clean and simple. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • redirecting _top page from asp:login control in iframe onloggedin

    - by jumpdart
    So yeah, Im building a little authenticated content(.NET app) to a large html site managed by another group. They are only comfortable with managing html so all my app content will be contained in iframes. Everything is working fine as far as navigation and calling services and whatnot but i cant bust out of the frame with my asp:login control. Im trying to register some JS on logged in but with no success. Thanks protected void login_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { StringBuilder strScript = new StringBuilder(); strScript.Append("<script language='javascript'>"); string sHome = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["AppHomePageURL"].ToString(); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.navigate('{0}');", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("parent.location.href='{0}';", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.open('{0}', '_top', '', false);", sHome); strScript.AppendFormat("top.location.href='{0}';", sHome); strScript.Append("WTF_let_me_outa_here();"); strScript.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(typeof(Page), "LoginGO", strScript.ToString()); }

    Read the article

  • Kill process started with System.Diagnostic.Process.Start("FileName")

    - by PedroC88
    Hello; I am trying to create an app that will perform actions on specific times (much like the Windows Task Scheduler). I am currently using Process.Start() to lunch the file (or exe) required by the task. I am initiating a process by calling a file (an .mp3) and the process starts WMP (since it is the default application), so far so good. Now I wan't to kill that process. I know that it is normal behavior for the Process.Start(string, string) to return nothing (null in C#) in this case. So I am asking how can i close WMP when I called it through Process.Start(string, string)?? Edit: Please note that I am not opening WMP directly with Process.Start() and this is the line with which I run the process: VB: Me._procs.Add(Process.Start(Me._procInfo)) C#: this._procs.Add(Process.Start(this._procInfo)) _procInfo is a ProcessStartInfo instance. _procInfo.FileName is "C:\route\myFile.mp3". That is why WMP opens. In any case, all of the Start() methods, except for the instance-one which returns a boolean, return nothing (null in C#), because WMP is not the process that was directly created (please note that WMP is run and the song does play).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245  | Next Page >