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• Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

  - by omatase

  I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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• OpenGL Polygon Stipple Not Working On Different Machine

  - by FranticPedantic

  I have a situation where I am trying to draw a semi-transparent rectangle over a background that is not using openGL and so I can not use blending. I decided to use polygon stippling for a 'screen door transparency' effect as recommended by some. It works fine on my machine and some others, but on some machines with slightly old Intel graphics cards it's failing to render the rectangle at all. If I turn off polygon stipple, it renders fine (but without the stipple). I have compared many of the state variables that I thought might affect it (see code) between machines and they are all the same, and I get no errors. static const GLubyte stipplePatternChkr[128]; //definition omitted for clarity //but works on my machine // stipple the box glPolygonMode(GL_FRONT_AND_BACK, GL_FILL); glColor4ubv(Color(COLORREF_PADGRAY)); glEnable(GL_POLYGON_STIPPLE); glPolygonStipple(stipplePatternChkr); CRect rcStipple(dim); rcStipple.DeflateRect(padding - 1, padding - 1); glBegin(GL_QUADS); glVertex2i(rcStipple.left, rcStipple.bottom); glVertex2i(rcStipple.right, rcStipple.bottom); glVertex2i(rcStipple.right, rcStipple.top); glVertex2i(rcStipple.left, rcStipple.top); glEnd(); glDisable(GL_POLYGON_STIPPLE); int err = glGetError(); if (err != GL_NO_ERROR) { TRACE("glError(%s: %s)\n", s, gluErrorString(err)); } float x; glGetFloatv(GL_UNPACK_ALIGNMENT, &x); TRACE("unpack alignment %f\n", x); glGetFloatv(GL_UNPACK_IMAGE_HEIGHT, &x); TRACE("unpack height %f\n", x); glGetFloatv(GL_UNPACK_LSB_FIRST, &x); TRACE("unpack lsb %f\n", x); glGetFloatv(GL_UNPACK_ROW_LENGTH, &x); TRACE("unpack length %f\n", x); glGetFloatv(GL_UNPACK_SKIP_PIXELS, &x); TRACE("upnack skip %f\n", x); glGetFloatv(GL_UNPACK_SWAP_BYTES, &x); TRACE("upnack swap %f\n", x);

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• ProgressDialog does not display until after AsyncTask completes

  - by tedwards

  I am trying to display an indefinite ProgressDialog, while an AsyncTask binds to a RemoteService. The RemoteService builds a list of the users contacts when the service is first created. For a long list of contacts this may take 5~10 seconds. The problem I am having, is that the ProgressDialog does not display until after the RemoteService has built it's list of contacts. I even tried putting a Thread.sleep in to give the ProgressDialog time to show up. With the sleep statement the ProgressDialog loads and starts spinning, but then locks up as soon as the RemoteService starts doing it's work. If I just turn the AsyncTask into dummy code, and just let it sleep for a while, everything works fine. But when the task has to do actual work, it is like the UI just sits and waits. Any ideas on what Im doing wrong ? @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Log.d(IM,"Start Me UP!!"); setContentView(R.layout.main); Log.d(IM, "Building List View for Contacts"); restoreMe(); if (myContacts==null){ myContacts = new ArrayList<Contact>(); this.contactAdapter = new ContactAdapter(this, R.layout.contactlist, myContacts); setListAdapter(this.contactAdapter); new BindAsync().execute(); } else{ this.contactAdapter = new ContactAdapter(this, R.layout.contactlist, myContacts); setListAdapter(this.contactAdapter); } } private class BindAsync extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, RemoteServiceConnection>{ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ super.onPreExecute(); Log.d(IM,"Showing Dialog"); showDialog(DIALOG_CONTACTS); } @Override protected RemoteServiceConnection doInBackground(Void... v) { Log.d(IM,"Binding to service in BindAsync"); try{ Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e){ } RemoteServiceConnection myCon; myCon = new RemoteServiceConnection(); Intent i = new Intent(imandroid.this,MyRemoteService.class); bindService(i, myCon, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); startService(i); Log.d(IM,"Bound to remote service"); return myCon; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(RemoteServiceConnection newConn){ super.onPostExecute(newConn); Log.d(IM,"Storing remote connection"); conn=newConn; } };

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• Turning off ASP.Net WebForms authentication for one sub-directory

  - by Keith

  I have a large enterprise application containing both WebForms and MVC pages. It has existing authentication and authorisation settings that I don't want to change. The WebForms authentication is configured in the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms blah... blah... blah /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Fairly standard so far. I have a REST service that is part of this big application and I want to use HTTP authentication instead for this one service. So, when a user attempts to get JSON data from the REST service it returns an HTTP 401 status and a WWW-Authenticate header. If they respond with a correctly formed HTTP Authorization response it lets them in. The problem is that WebForms overrides this at a low level - if you return 401 (Unauthorised) it overrides that with a 302 (redirection to login page). That's fine in the browser but useless for a REST service. I want to turn off the authentication setting in the web.config: <location path="rest"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None" /> <authorization><allow users="?" /></authorization> </system.web> </location> The authorisation bit works fine, but when I try to change the authentication I get an exception: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. I'm configuring this at application level though - it's in the root web.config How do I override the authentication so that all of the rest of the site uses WebForms authentication and this one directory uses none? This is similar to another question: 401 response code for json requests with ASP.NET MVC, but I'm not looking for the same solution - I don't want to just remove the WebForms authentication and add new custom code globally, there's far to much risk and work involved. I want to change just the one directory in configuration.

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• jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

  - by boomturn

  I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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• Structuring Win32 GUI code

  - by kraf

  I wish to improve my code and file structure in larger Win32 projects with plenty of windows and controls. Currently, I tend to have one header and one source file for the entire implementation of a window or dialog. This works fine for small projects, but now it has come to the point where these implementations are starting to reach 1000-2000 lines, which is tedious to browse. A typical source file of mine looks like this: static LRESULT CALLBACK on_create(const HWND hwnd, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { setup_menu(hwnd); setup_list(hwnd); setup_context_menu(hwnd); /* clip */ return 0; } static LRESULT CALLBACK on_notify(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { const NMHDR* header = (const NMHDR*)lp; /* At this point I feel that the control's event handlers doesn't * necessarily belong in the same source file. Perhaps I could move * each control's creation code and event handlers into a separate * source file? Good practice or cause of confusion? */ switch (header->idFrom) { case IDC_WINDOW_LIST: switch (header->code) { case NM_RCLICK: return on_window_list_right_click(hwnd, wp, lp); /* clip */ } } } static LRESULT CALLBACK wndmain_proc(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { switch (msg) { case WM_CREATE: return on_create(hwnd, wp, lp); case WM_CLOSE: return on_close(hwnd, wp, lp); case WM_NOTIFY: return on_notify(hwnd, wp, lp); /* It doesn't matter much how the window proc looks as it just forwards * events to the appropriate handler. */ /* clip */ default: return DefWindowProc(hwnd, msg, wp, lp); } } But now as the window has a lot more controls, and these controls in turn have their own message handlers, and then there's the menu click handlers, and so on... I'm getting lost, and I really need advice on how to structure this mess up in a good and sensible way. I have tried to find good open source examples of structuring Win32 code, but I just get more confused since there are hundreds of files, and within each of these files that seem GUI related, the Win32 GUI code seems so far encapsulated away. And when I finally find a CreateWindowEx statement, the window proc is nowhere to be found. Any advice on how to structure all the code while remaining sane would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! I don't wish to use any libraries or frameworks as I find the Win32 API interesting and valuable for learning. Any insight into how you structure your own GUI code could perhaps serve as inspiration.

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• Unique element ID, even if element doesn't have one

  - by Robert J. Walker

  I'm writing a GreaseMonkey script where I'm iterating through a bunch of elements. For each element, I need a string ID that I can use to reference that element later. The element itself doesn't have an id attribute, and I can't modify the original document to give it one (although I can make DOM changes in my script). I can't store the references in my script because when I need them, the GreaseMonkey script itself will have gone out of scope. Is there some way to get at an "internal" ID that the browser uses, for example? A Firefox-only solution is fine; a cross-browser solution that could be applied in other scenarios would be awesome. Edit: If the GreaseMonkey script is out of scope, how are you referencing the elements later? They GreaseMonkey script is adding events to DOM objects. I can't store the references in an array or some other similar mechanism because when the event fires, the array will be gone because the GreaseMonkey script will have gone out of scope. So the event needs some way to know about the element reference that the script had when the event was attached. And the element in question is not the one to which it is attached. Can't you just use a custom property on the element? Yes, but the problem is on the lookup. I'd have to resort to iterating through all the elements looking for the one that has that custom property set to the desired id. That would work, sure, but in large documents it could be very time consuming. I'm looking for something where the browser can do the lookup grunt work. Wait, can you or can you not modify the document? I can't modify the source document, but I can make DOM changes in the script. I'll clarify in the question. Can you not use closures? Closuses did turn out to work, although I initially thought they wouldn't. See my later post. It sounds like the answer to the question: "Is there some internal browser ID I could use?" is "No."

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• Error in facebook.dll facebooksdk

  - by Surendar Radhakrishnan

  I got the web application working with facebooksdk and when i deployed it...it is running fine for sometime and it is throwing the error like this... Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Assembly Load Trace: The following information can be helpful to determine why the assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' could not be loaded. WRN: Assembly binding logging is turned OFF. To enable assembly bind failure logging, set the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog] (DWORD) to 1. Note: There is some performance penalty associated with assembly bind failure logging. To turn this feature off, remove the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog]. Stack Trace: [FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied.] Secured_Login.FacebookVerification() +0 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +71 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +3048 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:4.0.30319; ASP.NET Version:4.0.30319.1 i got this method in pageload protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { FacebookVerification(); } protected void FacebookVerification() { try { FacebookApp fbApp = new FacebookApp(); if (fbApp.Session != null) { dynamic myinfo = fbApp.Get("me"); String firstname = myinfo.first_name; String lastname = myinfo.last_name; lblFBStatus.Text = "you signed in as " + firstname + " " + lastname ; } else { lblFBStatus.Text = "Please sign in with facebook"; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } }

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• XSD sequence shows as abiguous!

  - by Tim C

  I have an XSD which was transformed from a RELAX NG schema with a few errors I am trying to fix. The big issue I have it with the following <xs:element name="list"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="preamble"/> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title"/> </xs:sequence> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title"/> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="preamble"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:choice> <xs:group maxOccurs="unbounded" ref="block-selectionListItem"/> </xs:sequence> <xs:attributeGroup ref="attlist-selectionList"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> As you can see the xs:choice block allows you to pick between two xs:sequence blocks. Seems to make sense except that Visual Studio gives the following warning on the second <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title/> element which is throwing everything off: Multiple definition of element 'title' causes the content model to become ambiguous. A content model must be formed such that during validation of an element information item sequence, the particle contained directly, indirectly or implicitly therein with which to attempt to validate each item in the sequence in turn can be uniquely determined without examining the content or attributes of that item, and without any information about the items in the remainder of the sequence. Because you can only choose one I do not see how this is ambiguous. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Edit: To be a bit more concise here are the possible outputs of the XML that would validate with this schema: <list> <preamble>My Preamble</preamble> <title>My Title</title> </list> or: <list> <title>My Title</title> <preamble>My Preamble</preamble> </list> As you can see it can be either one way or the other but not both. Also you could just have a title or a preamble and not both.

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• How can I test caching and cache busting?

  - by Nathan Long

  In PHP, I'm trying to steal a page from the Rails playbook (see 'Using Asset Timestamps' here): By default, Rails appends assets' timestamps to all asset paths. This allows you to set a cache-expiration date for the asset far into the future, but still be able to instantly invalidate it by simply updating the file (and hence updating the timestamp, which then updates the URL as the timestamp is part of that, which in turn busts the cache). It‘s the responsibility of the web server you use to set the far-future expiration date on cache assets that you need to take advantage of this feature. Here‘s an example for Apache: # Asset Expiration ExpiresActive On <FilesMatch "\.(ico|gif|jpe?g|png|js|css)$"> ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </FilesMatch> If you look at a the source for a Rails page, you'll see what they mean: the path to a stylesheet might be "/stylesheets/scaffold.css?1268228124", where the numbers at the end are the timestamp when the file was last updated. So it should work like this: The browser says 'give me this page' The server says 'here, and by the way, this stylesheet called scaffold.css?1268228124 can be cached for a year - it's not gonna change.' On reloads, the browser says 'I'm not asking for that css file, because my local copy is still good.' A month later, you edit and save the file, which changes the timestamp, which means that the file is no longer called scaffold.css?1268228124 because the numbers change. When the browser sees that, it says 'I've never seen that file! Give me a copy, please.' The cache is 'busted.' I think that's brilliant. So I wrote a function that spits out stylesheet and javascript tags with timestamps appended to the file names, and I configured Apache with the statement above. Now: how do I tell if the caching and cache busting are working? I'm checking my pages with two plugins for Firebug: Yslow and Google Page Speed. Both seem to say that my files are caching: "Add expires headers" in Yslow and "leverage browser caching" in Page Speed are both checked. But when I look at the Page Speed Activity, I see a lot of requests and waiting and no 'cache hits'. If I change my stylesheet and reload, I do see the change immediately. But I don't know if that's because the browser never cached in the first place or because the cache is busted. How can I tell?

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• How do I read Unicode characters from an MS Access 2007 database through Java?

  - by Peter

  In Java, I have written a program that reads a UTF8 text file. The text file contains a SQL query of the SELECT kind. The program then executes the query on the Microsoft Access 2007 database and writes all fields of the first row to a UTF8 text file. The problem I have is when a row is returned that contains unicode characters, such as "?". These characters show up as "?" in the text file. I know that the text files are read and written correctly, because a dummy UTF8 character ("?") is read from the text file containing the SQL query and written to the text file containing the resulting row. The UTF8 character looks correct when the written text file is opened in Notepad, so the reading and writing of the text files are not part of the problem. This is how I connect to the database and how I execute the SQL query: ---- START CODE Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb, *.accdb)};DBQ=C:/database.accdb;Pwd=temp"); ResultSet r = c.createStatement().executeQuery(sql); ---- END CODE I have tried making a charSet property to the Connection but it makes no difference: ---- START CODE Properties p = new Properties(); p.put("charSet", "utf-8"); p.put("lc_ctype", "utf-8"); p.put("encoding", "utf-8"); Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("...", p); ---- END CODE Tried with "utf8"/"UTF8"/"UTF-8", no difference. If I enter "UTF-16" I get the following exception: "java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Illegal replacement". Been searching around for hours with no results and now turn my hope to you. Please help! I also accept workaround suggestions. =) What I want to be able to do is to make a Unicode query (for example one that searches for posts that contain the "?" character) and to have results with Unicode characters receieved and saved correctly. Thank you!

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• Giving event control back to xaml/callee to access check/uncheck

  - by dovholuk

  Hi All, I've scoured the Internet but my search-foo must not work if it's out there cause I just can't find the proper search terms to get me the answer I am looking for. So I turn to the experts here as a last resort to point me in the right direction. What I'm trying to do is create a composite control of a text box and a list box but I want to allow the control consumer to decide what to do when say the checkbox is checked/unchecked and I just can't figure it out... Maybe i'm going about it all wrong. What I've done thus far is to: create a custom control that extends ListBox expose a custom DP named "Text" (for the Text box but it's not the important part) craft the generic.xaml so that the list items have a default ItemTemplate/DataTemplate inside the DataTemplate I'm trying to set the "Checked" or "Unchecked" events expose 'wrapper' events as DPs in the custom control that would get 'set' via the template when instatiated As soon as I try something like the following (inside generic.xaml): <DataTemplate> <...> <CheckBox Checked="{TemplateBinding MyCheckedDP}"/> <...> </DataTemplate> I get runtime exceptions, the designer - vs2010 - pukes out a LONG list of errors that are all very similar and nothing I do can make it work. I went so far as to try using the VisualTreeHelper but no magic combination I could find would work nor would it allow me to traverse the tree because when the OnApplyTemplate method fires the listbox items don't exist yet and aren't in the tree. So hopefully this all makes sense but if not please let me know and I'll edit the post for clarifications. Thanks to all for any pointers or thoughts... Like I said maybe I'm heading about it in the wrong way from the start... EDIT (Request for xaml) generic.xaml datatemplate: <DataTemplate > <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <local:FilterCheckbox x:Name="chk"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Display}" /> </local:FilterCheckbox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> usercontrol.xaml (invocation of custom control) <local:MyControl FancyName="This is the fancy name" ItemChecked="DoThisWhenACheckboxIsChecked" <-- this is where the consumer "ties" to the checkbox events ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource someDataSource}}" />

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• jQuery, get datas in AJAX (done) then, display them as star (error)

  - by Tristan

  Hello, In my website, there are 2 steps : I get values from another domain with AJAX, it's numbers 100% working Then, i want to display those numbers in stars with this plugin (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1987524/turn-a-number-into-star-rating-display-using-jquery-and-css) The error : the stars plugin does not work for the value i recieve from my ajax request, but it's working for my values for my domain which are not JS manipulated you can see a demo here http://www.esl.eu/fr/test/test_atome/?killcache=true PS: the data in ajax are provided in JSON-P so i wrote a parser which look like this: jQuery.ajax({ type: "get", dataType: "jsonp", url: "http://www.foo.com/", data: {demandeur: "monkey" }, cache: true, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest){ var obj = null, length = data.length; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { widget = "<p>AVERAGES<p>"; widget += "<p><span class='stars'>"; widget += data[i].services; widget += "</span></p>"; widget += "<p><span class='stars'>"; widget += data[i].qualite; widget += "</span></p>"; jQuery('#gotserv').html(widget); } } }); }); Then i have the star plugin after this function : $.fn.stars = function() { $(this).each(function() { // Get the value var val = parseFloat($(this).html()); // Make sure that the value is in 0 - 5 range val = val 5 ? 5 : (val < 0 ? 0 : val); // Calculate physical size var size = 16 * val; // Create stars holder var stars = $(''); // Adjust yellow stars' width stars.find('span').width(size); // Replace the numerical value with stars $(this).replaceWith(stars); }); I hope you understand, i don't know if i'm clear Thank you

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• MS Access 2003 - Option Group frame: can I add text boxes that are part of the frame instead of rad

  - by Justin

  Ok so this maybe a simple/silly question but I don't know so here goes: In access let's say I want to have a frame control, so I click the option group button and add it to the desgin surface. However, I am not wanting to use this as a option group with radio button selection, instead I would like to add text boxes instead the frame, so that when I reference the frame, it references every control instead of it, hence the text boxes, cbo boxes, etc.....just as it would if they were radio option selections. So can you do this? I want whatever controls I add inside the frame to be easily referenced (i.e. make all controls visible just by using frameExample.visible = true) so that I can build my own tab control groupings..... can this be done? Thanks! EDIT: What I am trying to accomplish is having a form that includes a collection of controls (input controls - cbo boxes, text boxes, etc), that serve as the Main record information. These are saved to a table via an INSERT statement on button_click because this form is unbound. Next I have 8 categories that are relative per each main record (and data that goes along with it). Each of these categories could have a sub form area and a button click that bring it's relative form into the sub form area. These sub forms would be unbound as well as I would just save data via SQL statement. So i know I could accomplish this by running the insert statement from the parent form, on the main collection control's data that would create the KeyID number, then run a SQL statement that would turn around and load that KeyID number right back onto the page in a hidden text box. Then when I click one of the sub forms and load its relative collection of controls, I could then save that data along with KeyID for each of these sub-forms/tables. SO...... I was wondering if instead you could define these controls as a collection so that you could hide and make visible all the ones you need on button clicks and avoid the need for additional forms (subs). I know that if a user enters data into a text box, and then somewhere along the way that box becomes hidden, the data still exists in it and still ends up in the SQL statement.... So I want all these controls to exist on the same form, but I thought what is I could encapsulate them into a frame like an option group, then I could call the frame and all the relative controls would be called up (made visible) as needed. Sorry for the long explanation but I thought it would help.

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• casting, converting, and input from textbox controls

  - by Matt

  Working on some .aspx.cs code and decided I would forget how to turn a textbox value into a useable integer or decimal. Be warned I'm pretty new to .asp. Wish I could say the same for c sharp. So the value going into my textbox (strawberryp_textbox) is "1" which I presume I can access with the .text property. Which I then parse into a int. The Error reads Format Exception was unhandled by user code. My other question is can I do operations on a session variable? protected void submit_order_button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int strawberryp; int strawberrys; decimal money1 = decimal.Parse(moneybox1.Text); decimal money2 = decimal.Parse(moneybox2.Text); decimal money3 = decimal.Parse(moneybox3.Text); decimal money4 = decimal.Parse(moneybox4.Text); decimal money5 = decimal.Parse(moneybox5.Text); strawberryp = int.Parse(strawberryp_Textbox.Text); //THE PROBLEM RIGHT HERE! strawberrys = int.Parse(strawberrys_Textbox.Text); // Needs fixed int strawberryc = int.Parse(strawberryc_Textbox.Text); //fix int berryp = int.Parse(berryp_Textbox.Text); //fix int raspberryp = int.Parse(raspberryp_Textbox.Text); /fix decimal subtotal = (money1 * strawberryp) + (money2 * strawberrys) + (money3 * strawberryc) + (money4 * berryp) + (money5 * raspberryp); //check to see if you can multiply decimal and int to get a deciaml!! Session["passmysubtotal"] = subtotal; //TextBox2.Text; (strawberryp_Textbox.Text);//TextBox4.Text; add_my_order_button.Enabled = true; add_my_order_button.Visible = true; submit_order_button.Enabled = false; submit_order_button.Visible = false; strawberryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; strawberrys_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; strawberryc_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; berryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; raspberryp_Textbox.ReadOnly = false; Response.Redirect("reciept.aspx"); } Thanks for the help

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• derby + hibernate ConstraintViolationException using manytomany relationships

  - by user364470

  Hi, I'm new to Hibernate+Derby... I've seen this issue mentioned throughout the google, but have not seen a proper resolution. This following code works fine with mysql, but when I try this on derby i get exceptions: ( each Tag has two sets of files and vise-versa - manytomany) Tags.java @Entity @Table(name="TAGS") public class Tags implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) public long getId() { return id; } @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Files.class ) @ForeignKey(name="USER_TAGS_FILES",inverseName="USER_FILES_TAGS") @JoinTable(name="USERTAGS_FILES", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="TAGS_ID"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="FILES_ID")) public Set<data.Files> getUserFiles() { return userFiles; } @ManyToMany(mappedBy="autoTags", targetEntity=data.Files.class) public Set<data.Files> getAutoFiles() { return autoFiles; } Files.java @Entity @Table(name="FILES") public class Files implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) public long getId() { return id; } @ManyToMany(mappedBy="userFiles", targetEntity=data.Tags.class) public Set getUserTags() { return userTags; } @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Tags.class ) @ForeignKey(name="AUTO_FILES_TAGS",inverseName="AUTO_TAGS_FILES") @JoinTable(name="AUTOTAGS_FILES", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="FILES_ID"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="TAGS_ID")) public Set getAutoTags() { return autoTags; } I add some data to the DB, but when running over Derby these exception turn up (the don't using mysql) Exceptions SEVERE: DELETE on table 'FILES' caused a violation of foreign key constraint 'USER_FILES_TAGS' for key (3). The statement has been rolled back. Jun 10, 2010 9:49:52 AM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: could not delete: [data.Files#3] at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:96) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.delete(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2712) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.delete(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2895) at org.hibernate.action.EntityDeleteAction.execute(EntityDeleteAction.java:97) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.execute(ActionQueue.java:268) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:260) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:184) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener.performExecutions(AbstractFlushingEventListener.java:321) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultFlushEventListener.onFlush(DefaultFlushEventListener.java:51) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.flush(SessionImpl.java:1206) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:613) at org.hibernate.context.ThreadLocalSessionContext$TransactionProtectionWrapper.invoke(ThreadLocalSessionContext.java:344) at $Proxy13.flush(Unknown Source) at data.HibernateORM.removeFile(HibernateORM.java:285) at data.DataImp.removeFile(DataImp.java:195) at booting.DemoBootForTestUntilTestClassesExist.main(DemoBootForTestUntilTestClassesExist.java:62) I have never used derby before so maybe there is something crutal that i'm missing 1) what am I doing wrong? 2) is there any way of cascading properly when I have 2 many-to-many relationships between two classes? Thanks!

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• problem with custom NSProtocol and caching on iPhone

  - by TomSwift

  My iPhone app embeds a UIWebView which loads html via a custom NSProtocol handler I have registered. My problem is that resources referenced in the returned html, which are also loaded via my custom protocol handler, are cached and never reloaded. In particular, my stylesheet is cached: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./styles.css" /> The initial request to load the html in the UIWebView looks like this: NSString* strUrl = [NSMutableString stringWithFormat: @"myprotocol:///entry?id=%d", entryID ]; NSURL* url = [NSURL URLWithString: strUrl]; [_pCurrentWebView loadRequest: [NSURLRequest requestWithURL: url cachePolicy: NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringLocalCacheData timeoutInterval: 60 ]]; (note the cache policy is set to ignore, and I've verified this cache policy carries through to subsequent requests for page resources on the initial load) The protocol handler loads the html from a database and returns it to the client using code like this: // create the response record NSURLResponse *response = [[NSURLResponse alloc] initWithURL: [request URL] MIMEType: mimeType expectedContentLength: -1 textEncodingName: textEncodingName]; // get a reference to the client so we can hand off the data id client = [self client]; // turn off caching for this response data [client URLProtocol: self didReceiveResponse:response cacheStoragePolicy: NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed]; // set the data in the response to our jfif data [client URLProtocol: self didLoadData:data]; [data release]; (Note the response cache policy is "not allowed"). Any ideas how I can make it NOT cache my styles.css resource? I need to be able to dynamically alter the content of this resource on subsequent loads of html that references this file. I thought clearing the shared url cache would work, but it doesnt: [[NSURLCache sharedURLCache] removeAllCachedResponses]; One thing that does work, but it's terribly inefficient, is to dynamically cache-bust the url for the stylesheet by adding a timestamp parameter: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./styles.css?ts=1234567890" /> To make this work I have to load my html from the db, search and replace the url for the stylesheet with a cache-busting parameter that changes on each request. I'd rather not do this. My presumption is that there is no problem if I were to load my content via the built-in HTTP protocol. In that case, I'm guessing that the UIWebView looks at any Cache-Control flags in the NSURLHTTPResponse object's http headers and abides by them. Since my NSURLResponseObject has no http headers (it's not http...) then perhaps UIWebView just decides to cached the resource (ignoring the NSURLRequest caching directive?). Ideas???

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• why is this rails association loading individually after an eager load?

  - by codeman73

  I'm trying to avoid the N+1 queries problem with eager loading, but it's not working. The associated models are still being loaded individually. Here are the relevant ActiveRecords and their relationships: class Player < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :tableau end Class Tableau < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :player has_many :tableau_cards has_many :deck_cards, :through => :tableau_cards end Class TableauCard < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :tableau belongs_to :deck_card, :include => :card end class DeckCard < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card has_many :tableaus, :through => :tableau_cards end class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :deck_cards end and the query I'm using is inside this method of Player: def tableau_contains(card_id) self.tableau.tableau_cards = TableauCard.find :all, :include => [ {:deck_card => (:card)}], :conditions => ['tableau_cards.tableau_id = ?', self.tableau.id] contains = false for tableau_card in self.tableau.tableau_cards # my logic here, looking at attributes of the Card model, with # tableau_card.deck_card.card; # individual loads of related Card models related to tableau_card are done here end return contains end Does it have to do with scope? This tableau_contains method is down a few method calls in a larger loop, where I originally tried doing the eager loading because there are several places where these same objects are looped through and examined. Then I eventually tried the code as it is above, with the load just before the loop, and I'm still seeing the individual SELECT queries for Card inside the tableau_cards loop in the log. I can see the eager-loading query with the IN clause just before the tableau_cards loop as well. EDIT: additional info below with the larger, outer loop Here's the larger loop. It is inside an observer on after_save def after_save(pa) @game = Game.find(turn.game_id, :include => :goals) @game.players = Player.find :all, :include => [ {:tableau => (:tableau_cards)}, :player_goals ], :conditions => ['players.game_id =?', @game.id] for player in @game.players player.tableau.tableau_cards = TableauCard.find :all, :include => [ {:deck_card => (:card)}], :conditions => ['tableau_cards.tableau_id = ?', player.tableau.id] if(player.tableau_contains(card)) ... end end end

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• iPhone noob - setting NSMutableDictionary entry inside Singleton?

  - by codemonkey

  Yet another iPhone/Objective-C noob question. I'm using a singleton to store app state information. I'm including the singleton in a Utilities class that holds it (and eventually other stuff). This utilities class is in turn included and used from various view controllers, etc. The utilities class is set up like this: // Utilities.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Utilities : NSObject { } + (id)GetAppState; - (id)GetAppDelegate; @end // Utilities.m #import "Utilities.h" #import "CHAPPAppDelegate.h" #import "AppState.h" @implementation Utilities CHAPPAppDelegate* GetAppDelegate() { return (CHAPPAppDelegate *)[UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate; } AppState* GetAppState() { return [GetAppDelegate() appState]; } @end ... and the AppState singleton looks like this: // AppState.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface AppState : NSObject { NSMutableDictionary *challenge; NSString *challengeID; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *challenge; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *challengeID; + (id)appState; @end // AppState.m #import "AppState.h" static AppState *neoAppState = nil; @implementation AppState @synthesize challengeID; @synthesize challenge; # pragma mark Singleton methods + (id)appState { @synchronized(self) { if (neoAppState == nil) [[self alloc] init]; } return neoAppState; } + (id)allocWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { @synchronized(self) { if (neoAppState == nil) { neoAppState = [super allocWithZone:zone]; return neoAppState; } } return nil; } - (id)copyWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { return self; } - (id)retain { return self; } - (unsigned)retainCount { return UINT_MAX; //denotes an object that cannot be released } - (void)release { // never release } - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { challengeID = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"0"]; challenge = [NSMutableDictionary dictionary]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { // should never be called, but just here for clarity [super dealloc]; } @end ... then, from a view controller I'm able to set the singleton's "challengeID" property like this: [GetAppState() setValue:@"wassup" forKey:@"challengeID"]; ... but when I try to set one of the "challenge" dictionary entry values like this: [[GetAppState() challenge] setObject:@"wassup" forKey:@"wassup"]; ... it fails giving me an "unrecognized selector sent..." error. I'm probably doing something really obviously dumb? Any insights/suggestions will be appreciated.

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• Zend_Form MultiCheckbox not checking boxes

  - by azz0r

  $groups = Model_UserGroup::load_links($object->id); foreach ($groups as $item) { $object->group[$item->group_id] = $item->enabled; } $array_object = (array) $object;//turn the object to an array so zend_form can use it $form->populate($array_object); enabled = 1 or 0 In the form class: $group = new Zend_Form_Element_MultiCheckbox('group'); $groups = Model_Group::load_all(); $new_item = array(); foreach ($groups as $item) { $group->addMultiOption($item->id, $item->name); } However the top group is the only one ever checked. Anyone spot anything glaringly wrong? I know its difficult to get a grasp of my layout/setup for this. Here is the array_object: Array ( [table_name] => User [id] => 112 [updated] => 1269428783 [created] => 1153237813 [group] => Array ( [1] => 1 [3] => 1 ) ) Here is the html zend_form is creating: <dd id="group-element"> <label for="group-1"><input name="group[]" id="group-1" value="1" checked="checked" type="checkbox">Administrator Access</label><br> <label for="group-2"><input name="group[]" id="group-2" value="2" type="checkbox">Content Admin</label><br> <label for="group-3"><input name="group[]" id="group-3" value="3" type="checkbox">Administrator</label><br> <label for="group-4"><input name="group[]" id="group-4" value="4" type="checkbox">Studio</label> </dd> edit: just done a small test and made the $groups (in the first set of code tags) empty and it still ticks the first box. hm Fixed this by doing: // $selected_groups = Model_UserGroup::load_links($object->id); $group_ticks = array(); foreach ($selected_groups as $item) { if ($item->enabled == 1) { $group_ticks[] = $item->group_id;//$form->group->setValue($item->group_id); } } $form->group->setValue($group_ticks); //

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• Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

  - by xTRUMANx

  I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU. UPDATE Vlad asked me to check what the CurrentThread's CurrentUICulture is. So I added a MessageBox on my constructor to tell me what the CurrentUICulture two-letter code is as well as the value of my Language user string. MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Current Language: {0}\nCurrent UI Culture: {1}", Properties.Settings.Default.Language, Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName)); When the wrong language is loaded, both the Language string and CurrentUICulture have the wrong language. So I guess the CurrentUICulture has been cleared and my problem is actually with the Language Setting. So I guess the problem is that my application sometimes loads the previously saved language string rather than the last saved language string. If the app is restarted, it will then load the actual saved language string.

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• If statement within If statement's else

  - by maebe

  Still new to Java/android so trying to figure out the best way to code a multilevel if statement. What I'm trying to do is for a combat system that needs to check if player/npc is alive. If they are alive it then will check to see if they scored a critical hit. If they didn't critical hit then will see if they hit or missed. combat = mydbhelper.getCombat(); startManagingCursor(combat); if(playerCurHp == 0){ combat.moveToPosition(11); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(playerCritFlag.equals("Critical")){ combat.moveToPosition(2); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(playerHitFlag.equals("Hit")){ combat.moveToPosition(1); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} if(playerHitFlag.equals("Miss")){ combat.moveToPosition(3); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} }} if (npcCurHp == 0){ combat.moveToPosition(10); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(npcCritFlag.equals("Critical")){ combat.moveToPosition(5); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(npcHitFlag.equals("Hit")){ combat.moveToPosition(4); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} if(npcHitFlag.equals("Miss")){ combat.moveToPosition(6); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} }} } Is what I'm using. Was working when I had the if statements all separate. But it would check each one and do actions I don't need (If they hit, pull String, if crit pull another, then if dead pull again). Trying to make it stop when it finds the "Flag" that matches. When doing my rolls if the player hits it sets the flag to "Hit" like below code. Random attackRandom = new Random(); int attackRoll = attackRandom.nextInt(100); totalAtt = attackRoll + bonusAttack + weaponAtt + stanceAtt; Random defensiveRandom = new Random(); int defenseRoll = defensiveRandom.nextInt(100); npcDef = defenseRoll + npcDodge + npcBonusDodge; if (totalAtt > npcDef){ playerHitFlag = "Hit"; playerDamage();} else{playerHitFlag = "Miss"; npcAttack();} At the end it takes these playerCombatStory and npcCombatStory strings and uses them to setText to show the player what happened on that turn of combat.

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• How to use Wordpress' http.php in external projects?

  - by NJTechGuy

  I am trying to parse data from a pipe-delimited text file hosted on another server which in turn will be inserted in a database. My host (1and1) disabled allow_url_fopen in php.ini I guess. Error message : Warning: fopen() [function.fopen]: URL file-access is disabled in the server configuration in Code : <? // make sure curl is installed if (function_exists('curl_init')) { // initialize a new curl resource $ch = curl_init(); // set the url to fetch curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://abc.com/data/output.txt'); // don't give me the headers just the content curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); // return the value instead of printing the response to browser curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // use a user agent to mimic a browser curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.7.5) Gecko/20041107 Firefox/1.0'); $content = curl_exec($ch); // remember to always close the session and free all resources curl_close($ch); } else { // curl library is not installed so we better use something else } //$contents = fread ($fd,filesize ($filename)); //fclose ($fd); $delimiter = "|"; $splitcontents = explode($delimiter, $contents); $counter = ""; ?> <font color="blue" face="arial" size="4">Complete File Contents</font> <hr> <? echo $contents; ?> <br><br> <font color="blue" face="arial" size="4">Split File Contents</font> <hr> <? foreach ( $splitcontents as $color ) { $counter = $counter+1; echo "<b>Split $counter: </b> $colorn<br>"; } ?> Wordpress has this cool http.php file. Is there a better way of doing it? If not, how do I use http.php for this task? Thank you guys..

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• How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

  - by Josh Haberman

  Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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• Make a compiled binary run at native speed flawlessly without recompiling from source on a another system?

  - by unknownthreat

  I know that many people, at a first glance of the question, may immediately yell out "Java", but no, I know Java's qualities. Allow me to elaborate my question first. Normally, when we want our program to run at a native speed on a system, whether it be Windows, Mac OS X, or Linux, we need to compile from source codes. If you want to run a program of another system in your system, you need to use a virtual machine or an emulator. While these tools allow you to use the program you need on the non-native OS, they sometimes have problems of performance and glitches. We also have a newer compiler called "JIT Compiler", where the compiler will parse the bytecode program to native machine language before execution. The performance may increase to a very good extent with JIT Compiler, but the performance is still not the same as running it on a native system. Another program on Linux, WINE, is also a good tool for running Windows program on Linux system. I have tried running Team Fortress 2 on it, and tried experiment with some settings. I got ~40 fps on Windows at its mid-high setting on 1280 x 1024. On Linux, I need to turn everything low at 1280 x 1024 to get ~40 fps. There are 2 notable things though: Polygon model settings do not seem to affect framerate whether I set it low or high. When there are post-processing effects or some special effects that require manipulation of drawn pixels of the current frame, the framerate will drop to 10-20 fps. From this point, I can see that normal polygon rendering is just fine, but when it comes to newer rendering methods that requires graphic card to the job, it slows down to a crawl. Anyway, this question is rather theoretical. Is there anything we can do at all? I see that WINE can run STEAM and Team Fortress 2. Although there are flaws, they can run at lower setting. Or perhaps, I should also ask, "is it possible to translate one whole program on a system to another system without recompiling from source and get native speed?" I see that we also have AOT Compiler, is it possible to use it for something like this? Or there are so many constraints (such as DirectX call or differences in software architecture) that make it impossible to have a flawless and not native to the system program that runs at native speed?

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