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  • jQuery: .toggle() doesnt work properly on two different elements.

    - by Marius
    Hello there, This is my markup: <table class="col1table" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td><a class="tips_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_tips_venn.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="facebook_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_facebook.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="twitter_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_twitter.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="myspace_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_myspace.png" /></a></td> </tr> <tr> <td><a class="tips_trigger" href="#">TIPS EN VENN</a></td> <td><a class="facebook_trigger" href="#">FACEBOOK</a></td> <td><a class="twitter_trigger" href="#">TWITTER</a></td> <td><a class="myspace_trigger" href="#">MYSPACE</a></td> </tr> </table> This is the mark-up for a tool-tip: <div id="message_tips" class="toolTip">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet.<br /><br /><br /><br /><br /><br />Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet.</div> This is my code to hide/unhide tooltip for .tips_trigger (the tooltip has id: "#message_tips"). Notice that there is one .tips_trigger on each row in the table. And there will be one tooltip per "..._trigger-class". $('.tips_trigger').toggle(function(event){ event.preventDefault(); $('#message_tips').css('display', 'block'); }, function(event){ $('#message_tips').css('display', 'none'); }); I have two problems: 1. Each of the tips_trigger-classes seems to work the script independatly. What I mean by that is if I click tips_trigger in the first row, it displays the tool-tip. If i click tips_trigger in the second row straight after, it displays the tool-tip again. I have to click the exact same tips_trigger-class istance twice for it to hide it. How can I overcome this problem? 2. Each of the "..._trigger"-classes will have a tool-tip, not just ".tips_trigger". Is there a way to alter my current script so that it works for multiple unhides/hides instead of writing one script per class? Kind regards, Marius

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  • What's the standard algorithm for syncing two lists of objects?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm pretty sure this must be in some kind of text book (or more likely in all of them) but I seem to be using the wrong keywords to search for it... :( A common task I'm facing while programming is that I am dealing with lists of objects from different sources which I need to keep in sync somehow. Typically there's some sort of "master list" e.g. returned by some external API and then a list of objects I create myself each of which corresponds to an object in the master list. Sometimes the nature of the external API will not allow me to do a live sync: For instance the external list might not implement notifications about items being added or removed or it might notify me but not give me a reference to the actual item that was added or removed. Furthermore, refreshing the external list might return a completely new set of instances even though they still represent the same information so simply storing references to the external objects might also not always be feasible. Another characteristic of the problem is that both lists cannot be sorted in any meaningful way. You should also assume that initializing new objects in the "slave list" is expensive, i.e. simply clearing and rebuilding it from scratch is not an option. So how would I typically tackle this? What's the name of the algorithm I should google for? In the past I have implemented this in various ways (see below for an example) but it always felt like there should be a cleaner and more efficient way. Here's an example approach: Iterate over the master list Look up each item in the "slave list" Add items that do not yet exist Somehow keep track of items that already exist in both lists (e.g. by tagging them or keeping yet another list) When done iterate once more over the slave list Remove all objects that have not been tagged (see 4.) Update Thanks for all your responses so far! I will need some time to look at the links. Maybe one more thing worthy of note: In many of the situations where I needed this the implementation of the "master list" is completely hidden from me. In the most extreme cases the only access I might have to the master list might be a COM-interface that exposes nothing but GetFirst-, GetNext-style methods. I'm mentioning this because of the suggestions to either sort the list or to subclass it both of which is unfortunately not practical in these cases unless I copy the elements into a list of my own and I don't think that would be very efficient. I also might not have made it clear enough that the elements in the two lists are of different types, i.e. not assignment-compatible: Especially, the elements in the master list might be available as interface references only.

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  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

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  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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  • Is there any way to get the combine two xml into one xml in Linux.

    - by Tattat
    XML one is something like that: <dict> <key>2</key> <array> <string>A</string> <string>B</string> </array> <key>3</key> <array> <string>C</string> <string>D</string> <string>E</string> </array> </dict> XML Two is something like that: <dict> <key>A</key> <array> <string>A1</string> <false/> <false/> <array> <string>Apple</string> <string>This is an apple</string> </array> <array> <string>Apple Pie</string> <string>I love Apple Pie.</string> </array> </array> <key>B</key> <array> <string>B7</string> <false/> <false/> <array> <string>Boy</string> <string>I am a boy.</string> </array> </array> </dict> I want to convert to this: <dict> <key>2</key> <array> <string>A, Apple, Apple Pie</string> <string>B, Boy</string> </array> ... </dict>

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  • Searching for duplicate records within a text file where the duplicate is determined by only two fie

    - by plg
    First, Python Newbie; be patient/kind. Next, once a month I receive a large text file (think 7 Million records) to test for duplicate values. This is catalog information. I get 7 fields, but the two I'm interested in are a supplier code and a full orderable part number. To determine if the record is dupliacted, I compress all special characters from the part number (except . and #) and create a compressed part number. The test for duplicates becomes the supplier code and compressed part number combination. This part is fairly straight forward. Currently, I am just copying the original file with 2 new columns (compressed part and duplicate indicator). If the part is a duplicate, I put a "YES" in the last field. Now that this is done, I want to be able to go back (or better yet, at the same time) to get the previous record where there was a supplier code/compressed part number match. So far, my code looks like this: Compress Full Part to a Compressed Part and Check for Duplicates on Supplier Code and Compressed Part combination import sys import re import time ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ start=time.time() try: file1 = open("C:\Accounting\May Accounting\May.txt", "r") except IOError: print sys.stderr, "Cannot Open Read File" sys.exit(1) try: file2 = open(file1.name[0:len(file1.name)-4] + "_" + "COMPRESSPN.txt", "a") except IOError: print sys.stderr, "Cannot Open Write File" sys.exit(1) hdrList="CIGSUPPLIER|FULL_PART|PART_STATUS|ALIAS_FLAG|ACQUISITION_FLAG|COMPRESSED_PART|DUPLICATE_INDICATOR" file2.write(hdrList+chr(10)) lines_seen=set() affirm="YES" records = file1.readlines() for record in records: fields = record.split(chr(124)) if fields[0]=="CIGSupplier": continue #If incoming file has a header line, skip it file2.write(fields[0]+"|"), #Supplier Code file2.write(fields[1]+"|"), #Full_Part file2.write(fields[2]+"|"), #Part Status file2.write(fields[3]+"|"), #Alias Flag file2.write(re.sub("[$\r\n]", "", fields[4])+"|"), #Acquisition Flag file2.write(re.sub("[^0-9a-zA-Z.#]", "", fields[1])+"|"), #Compressed_Part dupechk=fields[0]+"|"+re.sub("[^0-9a-zA-Z.#]", "", fields[1]) if dupechk not in lines_seen: file2.write(chr(10)) lines_seen.add(dupechk) else: file2.write(affirm+chr(10)) print "it took", time.time() - start, "seconds." ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ file2.close() file1.close() It runs in less than 6 minutes, so I am happy with this part, even if it is not elegant. Right now, when I get my results, I import the results into Access and do a self join to locate the duplicates. Loading/querying/exporting results in Access a file this size takes around an hour, so I would like to be able to export the matched duplicates to another text file or an Excel file. Confusing enough? Thanks.

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  • How can I link two Java serialised objects back together?

    - by Kidburla
    Sometimes (quite a lot, actually) we get a situation in Java where two objects are pointing to the same thing. Now if we serialise these separately it is quite appropriate that the serialised forms have separate copies of the object as it should be possible to open one without the other. However if we now deserialise them both, we find that they are still separated. Is there any way to link them back together? Example follows. public class Example { private static class ContainerClass implements java.io.Serializable { private ReferencedClass obj; public ReferencedClass get() { return obj; } public void set(ReferencedClass obj) { this.obj = obj; } } private static class ReferencedClass implements java.io.Serializable { private int i = 0; public int get() { return i; } public void set(int i) { this.i = i; } } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { //Initialise the classes ContainerClass test1 = new ContainerClass(); ContainerClass test2 = new ContainerClass(); ReferencedClass ref = new ReferencedClass(); //Make both container class point to the same reference test1.set(ref); test2.set(ref); //This does what we expect: setting the integer in one (way of accessing the) referenced class sets it in the other one test1.get().set(1234); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test2.get().get())); //Now serialise the container classes java.io.ObjectOutputStream os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); os.writeObject(test1); os.close(); os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); os.writeObject(test2); os.close(); //And deserialise them java.io.ObjectInputStream is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); ContainerClass test3 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); ContainerClass test4 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); //We expect the same thing as before, and would expect a result of 4321, but this doesn't happen as the referenced objects are now separate instances test3.get().set(4321); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test4.get().get())); } }

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  • php script gets two ajax requests, only returns one?

    - by Dan.StackOverflow
    I'll start from the beginning. I'm building a wordpress plugin that does double duty, in that it can be inserted in to a post via a shortcode, or added as a sidebar widget. All it does is output some js to make jquery.post requests to a local php file. The local php file makes a request to a webservice for some data. (I had to do it this way instead of directly querying the web service with jquery.ajax because the url contains a license key that would be public if put in the js). Anyway, When I am viewing a page in the wordpress blog that has both the sidebar widget and the plugin output via shortcode only one of the requests work. I mean it works in that it gets a response back from the php script. Once the page is loaded they both work normally when manually told to. Webpage view - send 2 post requests to my php script - both elements should be filed in, but only one is. My php script is just: <?php if(isset($_POST["zip"])) { // build a curl object, execute the request, // and basically just echo what the curl request returns. } ?> Pretty basic. here is some js some people wanted to see: function widget_getActivities( zip ){ jQuery("#widget_active_list").text(""); jQuery.post("http://localhost/wordpress/wp-content/ActiveAjax.php", { zip: zip}, function(text) { jQuery(text).find("asset").each(function(j, aval){ var html = ""; html += "<a href='" + jQuery(aval).find("trackback").text() + "' target='new'> " + jQuery(aval).find("assetName").text() + "</a><b> at </b>"; jQuery("location", aval).each(function(i, val){ html += jQuery("locationName", val).text() + " <b> on </b>"; }); jQuery("date", aval).each(function(){ html += jQuery("startDate", aval).text(); <!--jQuery("#widget_active_list").append("<div id='ActivityEntry'>" + html + " </div>");--> jQuery("#widget_active_list") .append(jQuery("<div>") .addClass("widget_ActivityEntry") .html(html) .bind("mouseenter", function(){ jQuery(this).animate({ fontSize: "20px", lineHeight: "1.2em" }, 50); }) .bind("mouseleave", function(){ jQuery(this).animate({ fontSize: "10px", lineHeight: "1.2em" }, 50); }) ); }); }); }); } Now imagine there is another function identical to this one except everything that is prepended with 'widget_' isn't prepended. These two functions get called separately via: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ w_zip = jQuery("#widget_zip").val(); widget_getActivities( w_zip ); jQuery("#widget_updateZipLink").click(function() { //start function when any update link is clicked widget_c_zip = jQuery("#widget_zip").val(); if (undefined == widget_c_zip || widget_c_zip == "" || widget_c_zip.length != 5) jQuery("#widget_zipError").text("Bad zip code"); else widget_getActivities( widget_c_zip ); }); }) I can see in my apache logs that both requests are being made. I'm guessing it is some sort of race condition but that doesn't make ANY sense. I'm new to all this, any ideas? EDIT: I've come up with a sub-optimal solution. I have my widget detect if the plugin is also being used on the page, and if so it waits for 3 seconds before performing the request. But I have a feeling this same thing is going to happen if multiple clients perform a page request at the same time that triggers one of the requests to my php script, because I believe the problem is in the php script, which is scary.

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  • How to merge two xml files in classic asp?

    - by Alex
    hi i using classic asp in my project i wand to merge two xml's together? how i merge xml's togethe? Below is my sample code XML 1 <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <CATALOG> <CD> <TITLE>1</TITLE> <ARTIST>Bob Dylan</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>USA</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>Columbia</COMPANY> <PRICE>10.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1985</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>2</TITLE> <ARTIST>Bonnie Tyler</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>UK</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>CBS Records</COMPANY> <PRICE>9.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1988</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>3</TITLE> <ARTIST>Dolly Parton</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>USA</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>RCA</COMPANY> <PRICE>9.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1982</YEAR> </CD> </CATALOG> XML2 <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <CATALOG> <CD> <TITLE>4</TITLE> <ARTIST>Gary Moore</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>UK</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>Virgin records</COMPANY> <PRICE>10.20</PRICE> <YEAR>1990</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>5</TITLE> <ARTIST>Eros Ramazzotti</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>EU</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>BMG</COMPANY> <PRICE>9.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1997</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>6</TITLE> <ARTIST>Bee Gees</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>UK</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>Polydor</COMPANY> <PRICE>10.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1998</YEAR> </CD> </CATALOG> This is asp code, now i use <% Dim doc1 'As MSXML2.DOMDocument30 Dim doc2 'As MSXML2.DOMDocument30 Dim doc2Node 'As MSXML2.IXMLDOMNode Set doc1 = createobject("MSXML2.DOMDocument.3.0") Set doc2 = createobject("MSXML2.DOMDocument.3.0") doc1.Load "01.xml" doc2.Load "02.xml" For Each doc2Node In doc2.documentElement.childNodes doc1.documentElement.appendChild doc2Node Next response.write doc1.xml %> Now i getting an error Microsoft VBScript runtime error '800a01a8' Object required: 'documentElement'

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  • How to select chosen columns from two different entities into one DTO using NHibernate?

    - by Pawel Krakowiak
    I have two classes (just recreating the problem): public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public virtual IList<OrgUnitMembership> OrgUnitMemberships { get; set; } } public class OrgUnitMembership { public virtual int UserId { get; set; } public virtual int OrgUnitId { get; set; } public virtual DateTime JoinDate { get; set; } public virtual DateTime LeaveDate { get; set; } } There's a Fluent NHibernate map for both, of course: public class UserMapping : ClassMap<User> { public UserMapping() { Table("Users"); Id(e => e.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(e => e.FirstName); Map(e => e.LastName); HasMany(x => x.OrgUnitMemberships) .KeyColumn(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(p => p.UserId))).ReadOnly().Inverse(); } } public class OrgUnitMembershipMapping : ClassMap<OrgUnitMembership> { public OrgUnitMembershipMapping() { Table("OrgUnitMembership"); CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x=>x.UserId) .KeyProperty(x=>x.OrgUnitId); Map(x => x.JoinDate); Map(x => x.LeaveDate); References(oum => oum.OrgUnit) .Column(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(oum => oum.OrgUnitId)).ReadOnly(); References(oum => oum.User) .Column(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(oum => oum.UserId)).ReadOnly(); } } What I want to do is to retrieve some users based on criteria, but I would like to combine all columns from the Users table with some columns from the OrgUnitMemberships table, analogous to a SQL query: select u.*, m.JoinDate, m.LeaveDate from Users u inner join OrgUnitMemberships m on u.Id = m.UserId where m.OrgUnitId = :ouid I am totally lost, I tried many different options. Using a plain SQL query almost works, but because there are some nullable enums in the User class AliasToBean fails to transform, otherwise wrapping a SQL query would work like this: return Session .CreateSQLQuery(sql) .SetParameter("ouid", orgUnitId) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean<UserDTO>()) .List<UserDTO>() I tried the code below as a test (a few different variants), but I'm not sure what I'm doing. It works partially, I get instances of UserDTO back, the properties coming from OrgUnitMembership (dates) are filled, but all properties from User are null: User user = null; OrgUnitMembership membership = null; UserDTO dto = null; var users = Session.QueryOver(() => user) .SelectList(list => list .Select(() => user.Id) .Select(() => user.FirstName) .Select(() => user.LastName)) .JoinAlias(u => u.OrgUnitMemberships, () => membership) //.JoinQueryOver<OrgUnitMembership>(u => u.OrgUnitMemberships) .SelectList(list => list .Select(() => membership.JoinDate).WithAlias(() => dto.JoinDate) .Select(() => membership.LeaveDate).WithAlias(() => dto.LeaveDate)) .TransformUsing(Transformers.AliasToBean<UserDTO>()) .List<UserDTO>();

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  • Why does one of two identical Javascripts work in Firefox?

    - by Gigpacknaxe
    Hi, I have two image swap functions and one works in Firefox and the other does not. The swap functions are identical and both work fine in IE. Firefox does not even recognize the images as hyperlinks. I am very confused and I hope some one can shed some light on this for me. Thank you very much in advance for any and all help. FYI: the working script swaps by onClick via DIV elements and the non-working script swaps onMouseOver/Out via "a" elements. Remember both of these work just fine in IE. Joshua Working Javascript in FF: <script type="text/javascript"> var aryImages = new Array(); aryImages[1] = "/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_profile.jpg"; aryImages[2] = "/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_tread.jpg"; aryImages[3] = "/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_side.jpg"; for (i=0; i < aryImages.length; i++) { var preload = new Image(); preload.src = aryImages[i]; } function swap(imgIndex, imgTarget) { document[imgTarget].src = aryImages[imgIndex]; } <div id="image-container"> <div style="text-align: right">Click small images below to view larger.</div> <div class="thumb-box" onclick="swap(1, 'imgColor')"><img src="/tires/images/thumbs/mich_prim_mxv4_profile_thumb.jpg" width="75" height="75" /></div> <div class="thumb-box" onclick="swap(2, 'imgColor')"><img src="/tires/images/thumbs/mich_prim_mxv4_tread_thumb.jpg" width="75" height="75" /></div> <div class="thumb-box" onclick="swap(3, 'imgColor')"><img src="/tires/images/thumbs/mich_prim_mxv4_side_thumb.jpg" width="75" height="75" /></div> <div><img alt="" name="imgColor" src="/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_profile.jpg" /></div> <div><a href="mich-prim-102-large.php"><img src="/tires/images/super_view.jpg" border="0" /></a></div> Not Working in FF: <script type="text/javascript"> var aryImages = new Array(); aryImages[1] = "/images/home-on.jpg"; aryImages[2] = "/images/home-off.jpg"; aryImages[3] = "/images/services-on.jpg"; aryImages[4] = "/images/services-off.jpg"; aryImages[5] = "/images/contact_us-on.jpg"; aryImages[6] = "/images/contact_us-off.jpg"; aryImages[7] = "/images/about_us-on.jpg"; aryImages[8] = "/images/about_us-off.jpg"; aryImages[9] = "/images/career-on.jpg"; aryImages[10] = "/images/career-off.jpg"; for (i=0; i < aryImages.length; i++) { var preload = new Image(); preload.src = aryImages[i]; } function swap(imgIndex, imgTarget) { document[imgTarget].src = aryImages[imgIndex]; } <td> <a href="home.php" onMouseOver="swap(1, 'home')" onMouseOut="swap(2, 'home')"><img name="home" src="/images/home-off.jpg" alt="Home Button" border="0px" /></a> </td>

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  • Setting PIdgin up for Lync2013

    - by Stu2000
    I having difficulty setting up pidgin to work with my company's microsoft 365's communicator lync 2013 (not 2010) account. I either receive a message stating authentication failed, or Incompatible authentication scheme chosen: NTLM depending upon the user agent values used from this wiki It appears that both the user agent values that start with UCCAPI provide authentication failed error, which I'm guessing is "closer" to the solution. I have triple checked that the password is correct. Below are some images of my settings (I have changed the company name to "company" for annonymity. I am running pidgin with a script in order to fix a write error issue: export NSS_SSL_CBC_RANDOM_IV=0 pidgin -d I am also using the latest version of SIPE (1.10.1) by using this ppa: https://launchpad.net/~aavelar/+archive/ppa What settings do I need to change/add to get it to work?

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  • HTTP Basic Auth Protected Services using Web Service Data Control

    - by vishal.s.jain(at)oracle.com
    With Oracle JDeveloper 11g (11.1.1.4.0) one can now create Web Service Data Control for services which are protected with HTTP Basic Authentication.So when you provide such a service to the Data Control Wizard, a dialog pops up prompting you to entry the authentication details:After you give the details, you can proceed with the creation of Data Control.Once the Data Control is created, you can use the WSDC Tester to quickly test the service.In this case, since the service is protected, we need to first edit the connection to provide username details:Enter the authentication details against username and password. Once done, select DataControl.dcx and using the context menu, select 'Run'. This will bring up the Tester.On the Tester, select the Service Node and using context menu pick 'Operations'. This will bring up the methods which you can test:Now you can pick a method, provide the input parameters and hit execute to see the results.

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  • Sesame update du jour: SL 4, OOB, Azure, and proxy support

    I've just published a new version of Sesame Data Browser. Here's what's new this time: Upgraded to Silverlight 4 Can run out-of-browser (OOB), with elevated permissions. This gives you an icon on your desktop and enables new scenarios. Note: The application is unsigned for the moment. Support for Windows Azure authentication Support for SQL Azure authentication If you are behind a proxy that requires authentication, just give Sesame a new try after clicking on "If you are behind a proxy that...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • NX/SSH remote access with Remmina

    - by Niklas
    After many days and a lot of frustration, I managed to get freenx to work on my home server. I can connect to it with nomachine's linux client, but I want to use Remmina for this purpose. The problem is that I don't exactly know how to connect to a NX-server with the program. In the connection dialog, I've chosen SSH as the protocol, and I've correctly added the IP and port. Under "SSH Authentication" I've added my user name on the server, and I choose "identity file" and selected the ssh-key I generated (which works with nxclient). (When am I supposed to provide my password for the user on the server?) When I try to connect I get the message: SSH public key authentication failed: Public key file doesn't exist Why do I get this message? How shall I proceed correctly to get the authentication working? Thank you for your time!

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  • 32 bit unsigned int php

    - by Zeta Two
    Hello! Does anyone know of a class/library/etc. that can simulate 32 bit unsigned integers on a 32 bit platform in PHP? I'm porting a C lib into PHP and it uses a lot of integers that are greater than the maximum for 32 bit signed int.

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  • How do I drag and drop between two listboxes in XUL?

    - by pc1oad1etter
    I am trying to implement drag and drop between two listboxes. I have a few problems 1) I am not detecting any drag events of any kind from the source list box/ I do not seem to be able to drag from it 2) I can drag from my desktop to the target listbox and I am able to detect 'dragenter' 'dragover' and 'dragexit' events. I am noticing that the event parameter is undefined in my 'dragenter' callback - is this a problem? 3) I cannot figure out how to complete the drag and drop operation. From https://developer.mozilla.org/En/DragDrop/Drag_Operations#Performing_... "If the mouse was released over an element that is a valid drop target, that is, one that cancelled the last dragenter or dragover event, then the drop will be successful, and a drop event will fire at the target. Otherwise, the drag operation is cancelled and no drop event is fired." This seems to be referring to a 'drop' event, though there is not one listed at https://developer.mozilla.org/en/XUL/Events . I can't seem to detect the end of the drag in order to call one of the example 'doDrop()' functions that I find on MDC. My example, so far: http://pastebin.mozilla.org/713676 <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/ there.is.only.xul" onload="initialize();"> <vbox> <hbox> <vbox> <description>List1</description> <listbox id="source" draggable="true"> <listitem label="1"/> <listitem label="3"/> <listitem label="4"/> <listitem label="5"/> </listbox> </vbox> <vbox> <description>List2</description> <listbox id="target" ondragenter="onDragEnter();"> <listitem label="2"/> </listbox> </vbox> </hbox> </vbox> <script type="application/x-javascript"> <![CDATA[ function initialize(){ jsdump('adding events'); var origin = document.getElementById("source"); origin.addEventListener("drag", onDrag, false); origin.addEventListener("dragdrop", onDragDrop, false); origin.addEventListener("dragend", onDragEnd, false); origin.addEventListener("dragstart", onDragStart, false); var target = document.getElementById("target"); target.addEventListener("dragenter", onDragEnter, false); target.addEventListener("dragover", onDragOver, false); target.addEventListener("dragexit", onDragExit, false); target.addEventListener("drop", onDrop, false); target.addEventListener("drag", onDrag, false); target.addEventListener("dragdrop", onDragDrop, false); } function onDrag(){ jsdump('onDrag'); } function onDragDrop(){ jsdump('onDragDrop'); } function onDragStart(){ jsdump('onDragStart'); } function onDragEnd(){ jsdump('onDragEnd'); } function onDragEnter(event){ //debugger; if(event){ jsdump('onDragEnter event.preventDefault()'); event.preventDefault(); }else{ jsdump("event undefined in onDragEnter"); } } function onDragExit(){ jsdump('onDragExit'); } function onDragOver(event){ //debugger; if(event){ //jsdump('onDragOver event.preventDefault()'); event.preventDefault(); }else{ jsdump("event undefined in onDragOver"); } } function onDrop(event){ jsdump('onDrop'); var data = event.dataTransfer.getData("text/plain"); event.target.textContent = data; event.preventDefault(); } function jsdump(str) { Components.classes['[email protected]/consoleservice;1'] .getService(Components.interfaces.nsIConsoleService) .logStringMessage(str); } ]]> </script> </window>

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  • ejabberd won't look at my host_config option

    - by John
    I'm new with ejabberd. What I want is to have a host myhost.domain.com which has an ldap authentication method. This all works fine if i modify the global options in AUTHENTICATION section in my ejabberd.cfg file. I am able to create two clients( defined in my LDAP directory ), and comunicate between them. Like i said, this works fine. But by aplying this authentication method globaly, it means that every hostname that i declare must use that. So i'm looking at {host_config, "myhost.domain.com" ...} But somehow i can't get ejabberd to look at that configuration, it just skips it. If i declare it like: {xhost_config, ...}, than in my ejabberd.log file i get a bad return error( so it knows that the configuration is there, but it won't look at it). Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Access Control Service v2: Registering Web Identities in your Applications [concepts]

    - by Your DisplayName here!
    ACS v2 support two fundamental types of client identities– I like to call them “enterprise identities” (WS-*) and “web identities” (Google, LiveID, OpenId in general…). I also see two different “mind sets” when it comes to application design using the above identity types: Enterprise identities – often the fact that a client can present a token from a trusted identity provider means he is a legitimate user of the application. Trust relationships and authorization details have been negotiated out of band (often on paper). Web identities – the fact that a user can authenticate with Google et al does not necessarily mean he is a legitimate (or registered) user of an application. Typically additional steps are necessary (like filling out a form, email confirmation etc). Sometimes also a mixture of both approaches exist, for the sake of this post, I will focus on the web identity case. I got a number of questions how to implement the web identity scenario and after some conversations it turns out it is the old authentication vs. authorization problem that gets in the way. Many people use the IsAuthenticated property on IIdentity to make security decisions in their applications (or deny user=”?” in ASP.NET terms). That’s a very natural thing to do, because authentication was done inside the application and we knew exactly when the IsAuthenticated condition is true. Been there, done that. Guilty ;) The fundamental difference between these “old style” apps and federation is, that authentication is not done by the application anymore. It is done by a third party service, and in the case of web identity providers, in services that are not under our control (nor do we have a formal business relationship with these providers). Now the issue is, when you switch to ACS, and someone with a Google account authenticates, indeed IsAuthenticated is true – because that’s what he is! This does not mean, that he is also authorized to use the application. It just proves he was able to authenticate with Google. Now this obviously leads to confusion. How can we solve that? Easy answer: We have to deal with authentication and authorization separately. Job done ;) For many application types I see this general approach: Application uses ACS for authentication (maybe both enterprise and web identities, we focus on web identities but you could easily have a dual approach here) Application offers to authenticate (or sign in) via web identity accounts like LiveID, Google, Facebook etc. Application also maintains a database of its “own” users. Typically you want to store additional information about the user In such an application type it is important to have a unique identifier for your users (think the primary key of your user database). What would that be? Most web identity provider (and all the standard ACS v2 supported ones) emit a NameIdentifier claim. This is a stable ID for the client (scoped to the relying party – more on that later). Furthermore ACS emits a claims identifying the identity provider (like the original issuer concept in WIF). When you combine these two values together, you can be sure to have a unique identifier for the user, e.g.: Facebook-134952459903700\799880347 You can now check on incoming calls, if the user is already registered and if yes, swap the ACS claims with claims coming from your user database. One claims would maybe be a role like “Registered User” which can then be easily used to do authorization checks in the application. The WIF claims authentication manager is a perfect place to do the claims transformation. If the user is not registered, show a register form. Maybe you can use some claims from the identity provider to pre-fill form fields. (see here where I show how to use the Facebook API to fetch additional user properties). After successful registration (which may include other mechanisms like a confirmation email), flip the bit in your database to make the web identity a registered user. This is all very theoretical. In the next post I will show some code and provide a download link for the complete sample. More on NameIdentifier Identity providers “guarantee” that the name identifier for a given user in your application will always be the same. But different applications (in the case of ACS – different ACS namespaces) will see different name identifiers. This is by design to protect the privacy of users because identical name identifiers could be used to create “profiles” of some sort for that user. In technical terms they create the name identifier approximately like this: name identifier = Hash((Provider Internal User ID) + (Relying Party Address)) Why is this important to know? Well – when you change the name of your ACS namespace, the name identifiers will change as well and you will will lose your “connection” to your existing users. Oh an btw – never use any other claims (like email address or name) to form a unique ID – these can often be changed by users.

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  • Product Support Webcast for Existing Customers: Security Scenarios with Oracle WebCenter Content

    - by John Klinke
    Learn how user authentication and authorization is now implemented in Oracle WebCenter Content by attending this 1-hour Advisor Webcast "Security Scenarios with WebCenter Content" on September 27, 2012 at 11:00am Eastern (16:00 UK / 17:00 CET / 8:00am Pacific / 9:00am Mountain) This 1-hour session is recommended for technical and functional users of Oracle WebCenter Content. In this session, we will explain how user authentication and authorization is implemented in WebCenter Content 11g as well as ways that single sign-on (SSO) can be used. Topics will include: - How authentication and authorization was handled in previous WebCenter Content Server versions - The WebLogic Server mechanisms now used to provide user access and content security - Dealing with external and internal users - Overview of the WebLogic Server LDAP provider configuration - How to differentiate Roles and Accounts - WebCenter Content credential mapping - Single Sign-on (SSO) - SAML and Kerberos Register now at http://bit.ly/PH7zDj

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  • When building a web application project, TFS 2008 builds two separate projects in _PublishedFolder.

    - by Steve Johnson
    I am trying to perform build automation on one of my web application projects built using VS 2008. The _PublishedWebSites contains two folders: Web and Deploy. I want TFS 2008 to generate only the deploy folder and not the web folder. Here is my TFSBuild.proj file: <Project ToolsVersion="3.5" DefaultTargets="Compile" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Import Project="$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\Microsoft\VisualStudio\TeamBuild\Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.targets" /> <Import Project="$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v9.0\Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets" /> <ItemGroup> <SolutionToBuild Include="$(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/MySoftware.sln"> <Targets></Targets> <Properties></Properties> </SolutionToBuild> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <ConfigurationToBuild Include="Release|AnyCPU"> <FlavorToBuild>Release</FlavorToBuild> <PlatformToBuild>Any CPU</PlatformToBuild> </ConfigurationToBuild> </ItemGroup> <!--<ItemGroup> <SolutionToBuild Include="$(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/MySoftware.sln"> <Targets></Targets> <Properties></Properties> </SolutionToBuild> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <ConfigurationToBuild Include="Release|x64"> <FlavorToBuild>Release</FlavorToBuild> <PlatformToBuild>x64</PlatformToBuild> </ConfigurationToBuild> </ItemGroup>--> <ItemGroup> <AdditionalReferencePath Include="C:\3PR" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="GetCopyToOutputDirectoryItems" Outputs="@(AllItemsFullPathWithTargetPath)" DependsOnTargets="AssignTargetPaths;_SplitProjectReferencesByFileExistence"> <!-- Get items from child projects first. --> <MSBuild Projects="@(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent)" Targets="GetCopyToOutputDirectoryItems" Properties="%(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent.SetConfiguration); %(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent.SetPlatform)" Condition="'@(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent)'!=''"> <Output TaskParameter="TargetOutputs" ItemName="_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPathNotFiltered"/> </MSBuild> <!-- Remove duplicates. --> <RemoveDuplicates Inputs="@(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPathNotFiltered)"> <Output TaskParameter="Filtered" ItemName="_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath"/> </RemoveDuplicates> <!-- Target outputs must be full paths because they will be consumed by a different project. --> <CreateItem Include="@(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath->'%(FullPath)')" Exclude= "$(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/Web/Bin*.pdb; *.refresh; *.vshost.exe; *.manifest; *.compiled; $(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/Web/Auth/MySoftware.dll; $(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/Web/BinApp_Web_*.dll;" Condition="'%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='Always' or '%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='PreserveNewest'" > <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="AllItemsFullPathWithTargetPath"/> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="_SourceItemsToCopyToOutputDirectoryAlways" Condition="'%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='Always'"/> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="_SourceItemsToCopyToOutputDirectory" Condition="'%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='PreserveNewest'"/> </CreateItem> </Target> <!-- To modify your build process, add your task inside one of the targets below and uncomment it. Other similar extension points exist, see Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets. <Target Name="BeforeBuild"> </Target> <Target Name="BeforeMerge"> </Target> <Target Name="AfterMerge"> </Target> <Target Name="AfterBuild"> </Target> --> </Project> I want to build everything that the builtin Deploy project is doing for me. But I don't want the generated web project as it contains App_Web_xxxx.dll assemblies instead of a single compiled assembly. How can I do this?

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  • Refer to te current directory in a shell script

    - by One Two Three
    How do I refer to the current directory in a shell script So I have this script which calls another script in the same directory #! /bin/sh #Call the other script ./foo.sh # do something ... For this I got ./foo.sh: No such file or directory So I changed it to: #! /bin/sh #Call the other script foo.sh # do something ... But this would call the foo script which is, by default, in the PATH. This is not what I want. So the question is, what's the syntax of doing './` in a shell script?

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  • What is the preferred sql server column definition to use for a LINQ to SQL Version property?

    - by Mike Two
    We are using the IsVersion property on the ColumnAttribute on a property in a LINQ to SQL class for optimistic concurrency checks. What should the column definition be in the database? Currently we are using version_number int NOT NULL IDENTITY (1, 1) Do we need Identity? Can we get LINQ to SQL to update the version number for us? The only issue with Identity is that every row has a different number. We'd like to see the number increment by 1 when the row is updated.

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  • lighten background color on button click per binding

    - by one of two
    I want to lighten a buttons background on click. So I did the following: <converter:ColorLightConverter x:Key="colorLightConverter" /> ... <Style BasedOn="{StaticResource default}" TargetType="{x:Type controls:Button}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type controls:Button}"> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <SolidColorBrush Color="{Binding Path=Background.Color, RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Converter={StaticResource colorLightConverter}}" /> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Border Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> ... </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> The converter: class ColorLightConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { Color color = (Color)value; System.Drawing.Color lightColor = ControlPaint.Light(System.Drawing.Color.FromArgb(color.A, color.R, color.G, color.B)); return Color.FromArgb(lightColor.A, lightColor.R, lightColor.G, lightColor.B); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } But the converter isn't called when I click the button. I think there is anything wrong with the binding, but I can't see the error... Can you help me? Maybe I'm completely wrong. What I basically want to do: When clicking the button, take the current background color and lighten it. Not more...

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  • Generics limitation, or lack of skillz ?

    - by Two Shoes
    I want to define the following class as such: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<T>> { private String name; private E value; public CollectionAttribute(String name, E value) { this.name = name; this.value = value; } public E getValue() { return value; } public void addValue(T value) { value.add(T); } } This won't compile (cannot resolve symbol T). If I replace the class declaration with the following: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<?>> Then I can't reference the parametrized type of the collection. Am I missing something or have I reached a limitation with generics in Java ?

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