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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • Where do I put the logic of my MFC program?

    - by Matthew
    I created an application core, in C++, that I've compiled into a static library in Visual Studio. I am now at the process of writing a GUI for it. I am using MFC to do this. I figured out how to map button presses to execute certain methods of my application core's main class (i.e. buttons to have it start and stop). The core class however, should always be sampling data from an external source every second or two. The GUI should then populate some fields after each sample is taken. I can't seem to find a spot in my MFC objects like CDialog that I can constantly check to see if my class has grabbed the data.. then if it has put that data into some of the text boxes. A friend suggested that I create a thread on the OnInit() routine that would take care of this, but that solution isn't really working for me. Is there no spot where I can put an if statement that keeps being called until the program quits? i.e. if( coreapp.dataSampleReady() ) { // put coreapp.dataItem1() in TextBox1 // set progress bar to coreapp.dataItem2() // etc. // reset dataSampleReady }

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  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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  • Generics vs inheritance (when no collection classes are involved)

    - by Ram
    This is an extension of this questionand probably might even be a duplicate of some other question(If so, please forgive me). I see from MSDN that generics are usually used with collections The most common use for generic classes is with collections like linked lists, hash tables, stacks, queues, trees and so on where operations such as adding and removing items from the collection are performed in much the same way regardless of the type of data being stored. The examples I have seen also validate the above statement. Can someone give a valid use of generics in a real-life scenario which does not involve any collections ? Pedantically, I was thinking about making an example which does not involve collections public class Animal<T> { public void Speak() { Console.WriteLine("I am an Animal and my type is " + typeof(T).ToString()); } public void Eat() { //Eat food } } public class Dog { public void WhoAmI() { Console.WriteLine(this.GetType().ToString()); } } and "An Animal of type Dog" will be Animal<Dog> magic = new Animal<Dog>(); It is entirely possible to have Dog getting inherited from Animal (Assuming a non-generic version of Animal)Dog:Animal Therefore Dog is an Animal Another example I was thinking was a BankAccount. It can be BankAccount<Checking>,BankAccount<Savings>. This can very well be Checking:BankAccount and Savings:BankAccount. Are there any best practices to determine if we should go with generics or with inheritance ?

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • Dynamically Run IQueryable Method

    - by Micah
    Hi! I'm trying to run the Count() function of a Linq statement in an overriden Gridview function. Basically, I want to be able to assign a linq query to a gridview, and on the OnDataBound(e) event in my new extended gridview have it retrieve the count, using the IQueryable. This is where I'm at so far: protected override void OnDataBound(EventArgs e) { IEnumerable _data = null; if (this.DataSource is IQueryable) { _data = (IQueryable)this.DataSource; } System.Type dataSourceType = _data.GetType(); System.Type dataItemType = typeof(object); if (dataSourceType.HasElementType) { dataItemType = dataSourceType.GetElementType(); } else if (dataSourceType.IsGenericType) { dataItemType = dataSourceType.GetGenericArguments()[0]; } else if (_data is IEnumerable) { IEnumerator dataEnumerator = _data.GetEnumerator(); if (dataEnumerator.MoveNext() && dataEnumerator.Current != null) { dataItemType = dataEnumerator.Current.GetType(); } } Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(dataItemType); object[] objArray = new object[] { o }; RowCount = (int)dataSourceType.GetMethod("Count").Invoke(_data, objArray); Any ideas? I'm really new with working with IQueryables and Linq so I may be way off. How can I get my _data to allow me to run the Count function?

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  • .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

    - by Phillip Theriault
    I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

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  • subquery in join with doctrine dql

    - by Martijn de Munnik
    I want to use DQL to create a query which looks like this in SQL: select e.* from e inner join ( select uuid, max(locale) as locale from e where locale = 'nl_NL' or locale = 'nl' group by uuid ) as e_ on e.uuid = e_.uuid and e.locale = e_.locale I tried to use QueryBuilder to generate the query and subquery. I think they do the right thing by them selves but I can't combine them in the join statement. Does anybody now if this is possible with DQL? I can't use native SQL because I want to return real objects and I don't know for which object this query is run (I only know the base class which have the uuid and locale property). $subQueryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $subQueryBuilder ->addSelect('e.uuid, max(e.locale) as locale') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->where($subQueryBuilder->expr()->in('e.locale', $localeCriteria)) ->groupBy('e.uuid'); $queryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $queryBuilder ->addSelect('e') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->join('('.$subQueryBuilder.') as', 'e_')->join ->where('e.uuid = e_.uuid') ->andWhere('e.locale = e_.locale');

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  • Declare models elsewhere than in "models.py"

    - by sebpiq
    Hi ! I have an application that splits models into different files. Actually the folder looks like : >myapp __init__.py models.py >hooks ... ... myapp don't care about what's in the hooks, folder, except that there are models, and that they have to be declared somehow. So, I put this in myapp.__init__.py : from django.conf import settings for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : __import__(hook) except ImportError as e : print "Got import err !", e #where HOOKS = ("myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1", ...) The problem is that it doesn't work when I run syncdb(and throws some strange "Got import err !"... strange considering that it's related to another module of my program that I don't even import anywhere :/ ) ! So I tried successively : 1) for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : exec ("from %s import *" % hook) doesn't work either : syncdb doesn't install the models in hooks 2) from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import * This works 3) exec("from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import *") This works to So I checked that in the test 1), the statement executed is the same than in tests 2) and 3), and it is exactly the same ... Any idea ???

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  • How can I get type information at runtime from a DMP file in a Windbg extension?

    - by pj4533
    This is related to my previous question, regarding pulling objects from a dmp file. As I mentioned in the previous question, I can successfully pull object out of the dmp file by creating wrapper 'remote' objects. I have implemented several of these so far, and it seems to be working well. However I have run into a snag. In one case, a pointer is stored in a class, say of type 'SomeBaseClass', but that object is actually of the type 'SomeDerivedClass' which derives from 'SomeBaseClass'. For example it would be something like this: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : Ptr32 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass I need someway to find out what the ACTUAL type of 'field1' is. To be more specific, using example addresses: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : 0cae2e24 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass 0:000> dt SomeBaseClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeBaseClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 0:000> dt SomeDerivedClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeDerivedClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 +0x040 derivedfield1 : 357 +0x044 derivedfield2 : timecode_t When I am in WinDbg, I can do this: dt 0x02de89e4 And it will show the type: 0:000> dt 0x02de89e4 SomeDerivedClass::`vftable' Symbol not found. But how do get that inside an extension? Can I use SearchMemory() to look for 'SomeDerivedClass::`vftable'? If you follow my other question, I need this type information so I know what type of wrapper remote classes to create. I figure it might end up being some sort of case-statement, where I have to match a string to a type? I am ok with that, but I still don't know where I can get that string that represents the type of the object in question (ie SomeObject-field1 in the above example).

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  • Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

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  • Generated sql from LINQ to SQL

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Following code ProductPricesDataContext db = new ProductPricesDataContext(); var products = from p in db.Products where p.ProductFields.Count > 3 select new { ProductIDD = p.ProductId, ProductName = p.ProductName.Contains("hotel"), NumbeOfProd = p.ProductFields.Count, totalFields = p.ProductFields.Sum(o => o.FieldId + o.FieldId) }; Generated follwing sql SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], (CASE WHEN [t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%' THEN 1 WHEN NOT ([t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%') THEN 0 ELSE NULL END) AS [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 Why is this CASE statement for ProductName and because of this instead of ProductName i am just getting 0 in my result set. It should generate sql like following, (where ProductName like '%hotel%' SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 AND t0.ProductName like '%hotel%' Thanks.

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  • Iterate through every node in a XML

    - by Rachel
    Hi I am trying to iterate through every node in a xml, be it the element node, text node or comment. With the below XSL in the very first statement prints the complete xml. How do i copy the very first node in $nodes and call the template process-nodes again removing teh first node in my next iteration? <?xml version='1.0'?> <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:call-template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:with-param name="nodes" select="//node()" as="node()*"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:param name="nodes" as="node()*" /> <xsl:copy-of select="$nodes[1]"/> <xsl:if test="$nodes"> <xsl:call-template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:with-param name="nodes" select="remove($nodes, 1)" /> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Note: I am looking for fixing the issue in this kind of implementation rather than changing the template match to <xsl:template match="@* | node()"> as I need to have some processing which requires this approach. Thanks.

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  • Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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  • Trouble decoding JSON string with PHP

    - by Anthony
    I'm trying to send an array of objects from JS to PHP using JSON. I have an array of players as follows: var player; var players = new Array(); //loop for number of players player = new Object(); player.id = theID; players[i] = player; Then my AJAX call looks like this: JSONplayers = JSON.stringify(players); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/ajax_send_players.php", data: { "players" : JSONplayers } On the PHP side the decode function looks like this $players = $_REQUEST['players']; echo var_dump($players); $players = json_decode($players); echo 'players: ' .$players. '--'. $players[0] . '--'. $players[0]->id; Debugging in chrome, the JSON players var looks like this before it is sent: JSONplayers: "[{"id":"Percipient"},{"id":"4"}]" And when I vardump in PHP it looks OK, giving this: string(40) "[{\"id\":\"Percipient\"},{\"id\":\"4\"}]" But I can't access the PHP array, and the echo statement about starting with players: outputs this: players: ---- Nothing across the board...maybe it has something to do with the \'s in the array, I am new to this and might be missing something very simple. Any help would be greatly appreciated. note I've also tried json_decode($players, true) to get it as an assoc array but get similar results.

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  • QSqlQuery UPDATE/INSERT DateTime with server's time (eg CURRENT_TIMESTAMP)

    - by Skinniest Man
    I am using QSqlQuery to insert data into a MySQL database. Currently all I care about is getting this to work with MySQL, but ideally I'd like to keep this as platform-independent as possible. What I'm after, in the context of MySQL, is to end up with code that effectively executes something like the following query: UPDATE table SET time_field=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP() WHERE id='5' The following code is what I have attempted, but it fails: QSqlQuery query; query.prepare("INSERT INTO table SET time_field=? WHERE id=?"); query.addBindValue("CURRENT_TIMESTAMP()"); query.addBindValue(5); query.exec(); The error I get is: Incorrect datetime value: 'CURRENT_TIMESTAMP()' for column 'time_field' at row 1 QMYSQL3: Unable to execute statement. I am not surprised as I assume Qt is doing some type checking when it binds values. I have dug through the Qt documentation as well as I know how, but I can't find anything in the API designed specifically for supporting MySQL's CURRENT_TIMESTAMP() function, or that of any other DBMS. Any suggestions?

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  • Overloading generic implicit conversions

    - by raichoo
    Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

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  • how to put header authentication into a form using php?

    - by SkyWookie
    Hey guys, for the page I am doing needs a login authentication using Twitter (using tweetphp API). For test purposes I used this code below to do a successful login: if (!isset($_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER'])){ header('WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Enter your Twitter username and password:"'); header('HTTP/1.0 401 Unauthorized'); echo 'Please enter your Twitter username and password to view your followers.'; exit(); } $username = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; $password = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_PW']; The problem now is, I want to integrate it into a form, so far I have the following: <form action="logincheck.php" method="post" class="niceform" > <fieldset> <legend>Twitter Login:</legend> <dl> <dt><label for="email">Twitter Username:</label></dt> <dd><input type="text" name="username" id="username" size="32" maxlength="128" /></dd> </dl> <dl> <dt><label for="password">Password:</label></dt> <dd><input type="password" name="password" id="password" size="32" maxlength="32" /></dd> </dl> </fieldset> <fieldset class="action"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> I am sending it to logincheck.php, this is where I think I get stuck. I am not sure how to compare the form data with Twitter's login data. I was trying a similar if statement as I used in the first code (box that pops up before page loads), but I couldn't wrap my head around it. Thanks again guys!

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  • Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

    - by Fernando Miguélez
    We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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  • Have to click twice to submit the form

    - by phil
    Intended function: require user to select an option from the drop down menu. After user clicks submit button, validate if an option is selected. Display error message and not submit the form if user fails to select. Otherwise submit the form. Problem: After select an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. I have no clue at all.. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <style> p{display: none;} </style> </head> <script> $(function(){ // language as an array var language=['Arabic','Cantonese','Chinese','English','French','German','Greek','Hebrew','Hindi','Italian','Japanese','Korean','Malay','Polish','Portuguese','Russian','Spanish','Thai','Turkish','Urdu','Vietnamese']; $('#muyu').append('<option value=0>Select</option>'); //loop through array for (i in language) //js unique statement for iterate array { $('#muyu').append($('<option>',{id:'muyu'+i,val:language[i], html:language[i]})) } $('form').submit(function(){ alert('I am being called!'); // check if submit event is triggered if ( $('#muyu').val()==0 ) {$('#muyu_error').show(); } else {$('#muyu_error').hide(); return true;} return false; }) }) </script> <form method="post" action="match.php"> I am fluent in <select name='muyu' id='muyu'></select> <p id='muyu_error'>Tell us your native language</p> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • How SQLite on Android handles long strings?

    - by Levara
    I'm wondering how Android's implementation of SQLite handles long Strings. Reading from online documentation on sqlite, it said that strings in sqlite are limited to 1 million characters. My strings are definitely smaller. I'm creating a simple RSS application, and after parsing a html document, and extracting text, I'm having problem saving it to a database. I have 2 tables in database, feeds and articles. RSS feeds are correctly saved and retrieved from feeds table, but when saving to the articles table, logcat is saying that it cannot save extracted text to it's column. I don't know if other columns are making problems too, no mention of them in logcat. I'm wondering, since text is from an article on web, are signs like (",',;) creating problems? Is Android automaticaly escaping them, or I have to do that. I'm using a technique for inserting similar to one in notepad tutorial: public long insertArticle(long feedid, String title, String link, String description, String h1,tring h2, String h3, String p, String image, long date) { ContentValues initialValues = new ContentValues(); initialValues.put(KEY_FEEDID, feedid); initialValues.put(KEY_TITLE, title); initialValues.put(KEY_LINK, link); initialValues.put(KEY_DESCRIPTION, description ); initialValues.put(KEY_H1, h1 ); initialValues.put(KEY_H2, h2); initialValues.put(KEY_H3, h3); initialValues.put(KEY_P, p); initialValues.put(KEY_IMAGE, image); initialValues.put(KEY_DATE, date); return mDb.insert(DATABASE_TABLE_ARTICLES,null, initialValues); } Column P is for extracted text, h1, h2 and h3 are for headers from a page. Logcat reports only column p to be the problem. The table is created with following statement: private static final String DATABASE_CREATE_ARTICLES = "create table articles( _id integer primary key autoincrement, feedid integer, title text, link text not null, description text," + "h1 text, h2 text, h3 text, p text, image text, date integer);";

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  • How to parallelize this groovy code?

    - by lucas
    I'm trying to write a reusable component in Groovy to easily shoot off emails from some of our Java applications. I would like to pass it a List, where Email is just a POJO(POGO?) with some email info. I'd like it to be multithreaded, at least running all the email logic in a second thread, or make one thread per email. I am really foggy on multithreading in Java so that probably doesn't help! I've attempted a few different ways, but here is what I have right now: void sendEmails(List<Email> emails) { def threads = [] def sendEm = emails.each{ email -> def th = new Thread({ Random rand = new Random() def wait = (long)(rand.nextDouble() * 1000) println "in closure" this.sleep wait sendEmail(email) }) println "putting thread in list" threads << th } threads.each { it.run() } threads.each { it.join() } } I was hoping the sleep would randomly slow some threads down so the console output wouldn't be sequential. Instead, I see this: putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list in closure sending email1 in closure sending email2 in closure sending email3 in closure sending email4 in closure sending email5 in closure sending email6 in closure sending email7 in closure sending email8 in closure sending email9 in closure sending email10 sendEmail basically does what you'd expect, including the println statement, and the client that calls this follows, void doSomething() { Mailman emailer = MailmanFactory.getExchangeEmailer() def to = ["one","two"] def from = "noreply" def li = [] def email (1..10).each { email = new Email(to,null,from,"email"+it,"hello") li << email } emailer.sendEmails li }

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  • Load images into separate movie clips from a XML, Flash, Actionscript 3.0

    - by James Dunay
    I have an xml image bank, pretty standard, and I have a loader, along with movie clips that I want the images loaded into, the problem that I am running into is I want the images to load into separate movie clips, so I’m using a case statement to specify where they go. However, I can only get them to load into a single movie clip, I assume they are loading ontop of each other and I don’t know how to get them to separate out. I’ll post my code. It doesn’t make any sense to me but if you have any suggestions that would be real great. I can make separate loaders and then just do 1 image per loader, but that just doesn’t sound right to me. var counterNumber:Number = 0; function callThumbs():void{ for (var i:Number = 0; i <3; i++){ thumbLoaded(); counterNumber++; } } function thumbLoaded(){ var photoLoader = new Loader(); switch (counterNumber){ case 1: photoLoader.load(new URLRequest(MovieClip(this.parent).xml.photos.imageOne.image.@url[0])); whole.boxOne.pictureLoader.addChild(photoLoader); trace("1Done"); break; case 2: photoLoader.load(new URLRequest(MovieClip(this.parent).xml.photos.imageTwo.image.@url[0])); whole.boxTwo.pictureLoader.addChild(photoLoader); trace("2Done"); break; } }

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