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• iPhone SpeakHere example produces different number of samples

  - by pion

  I am looking at the SpeakHere example and added the following: // Overriding the output audio route UInt32 audioRouteOverride = kAudioSessionOverrideAudioRoute_Speaker; AudioSessionSetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideAudioRoute, sizeof (audioRouteOverride), &audioRouteOverride); assert(status == noErr); // Changing the default output route. The new output route remains in effect unless you change the audio session category. This option is available starting in iPhone OS 3.1. UInt32 doChangeDefaultRoute = 1; status = AudioSessionSetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryDefaultToSpeaker, sizeof(doChangeDefaultRoute), &doChangeDefaultRoute); assert(status == noErr); // Enable Bluetooth. See audioRouteOverride & doChangeDefaultRoute above // http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/Audio/Conceptual/AudioSessionProgrammingGuide/Cookbook/Cookbook.html#//apple_ref/doc/uid/TP40007875-CH6-SW2 UInt32 allowBluetoothInput = 1; status = AudioSessionSetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryEnableBluetoothInput, sizeof(allowBluetoothInput), &allowBluetoothInput); assert(status == noErr); Also, void AQRecorder::handleInputBufferCallback(void *aqData, ... ... if (inNumPackets > 0) { NSLog(@"Number of samples = %d", inBuffer->mAudioDataByteSize/2); // print out the number of sample status = AudioFileWritePackets(aqr->mAudioFile, FALSE, inBuffer->mAudioDataByteSize, inPacketDesc, aqr->mCurrentPacket, &inNumPackets, inBuffer->mAudioData); assert(status == noErr); aqr->mCurrentPacket += inNumPackets; } ... Notice the "NSLog(@"Number of samples = %d", inBuffer-mAudioDataByteSize/2); // print out the number of sample" statement above. I am using iPhone SDK 3.1.3. I got the following results The number of samples is around 44,100 on Simulator The number of samples is around 22,000 on iPhone The number of samples is around 4,000 on iPhone using Jawbone Bluetooth I am new on this. Why did itproduce different number of samples? Thanks in advance for your help.

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• MySQLPython is ignoring my my.cnf file. Where does it get its information?

  - by ?????

  When I try to use MySQLPython (via SQLAlchemy) I get the error File "/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-x86_64.egg/MySQLdb/connections.py", line 188, in __init__ super(Connection, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs2) sqlalchemy.exc.OperationalError: (OperationalError) (2002, "Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/opt/local/var/run/mysql5/mysqld.sock' (2)") None None but no other mysql client on my machine sees it fine! My my.cnf file states: [client] port = 3306 socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [safe_mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld_safe] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock port = 3306 and the mysql.sock file is, indeed, located in /tmp/mysql I verified that ~/.my.cnf and /var/lib/mysql/my.cnf aren't overriding it. The mysql5 client program, etc, has no trouble connecting and neither does a groovy/grails installation on the same machine using jdbc/mysql connection thrilllap-2:~ swirsky$ mysql5 Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 6 Server version: 5.1.47 Source distribution Copyright (c) 2000, 2010, Oracle and/or its affiliates. All rights reserved. This software comes with ABSOLUTELY NO WARRANTY. This is free software, and you are welcome to modify and redistribute it under the GPL v2 license Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the current input statement. mysql> show databases; +--------------------+ | Database | +--------------------+ | information_schema | | test | +--------------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) mysql> Why can't MySQLdb for python figure this out? Where would it look if not the my.cnf files?

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• doubt in javascript name validation

  - by raja

  Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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• Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

  - by weevie

  ...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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• Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

  - by Ola Tuvesson

  I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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• Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

  - by Michael Bleigh

  I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

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• temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

  - by lau

  Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

  - by Justin

  I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

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• problems with async jquery and loops

  - by Seth Vargo

  I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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• How to remove the upper right close button

  - by tahdhaze09

  I need to kill the close 'x' button at the top of a jQuery UI modal dialog box. I have a modal that opens with an OK button that redirects to the site. The site behind the modal is in an iframe. When the user agrees to the statement in the dialog box and clicks the 'OK' button, it redirects to the site that is outside the iframe. If the user clicks on the 'x', it goes to the iframe site, which I do not want to have happen. I need the modal to work as a one-way to the site it goes to. It basically forces the user to accept the user agreement. I would post code, but its an intranet site. Thanks everyone for your help! EDIT: This site is a government intranet portal, not a commercial site. So the goal is NOT to trap a user into the site, but rather to let the user know that the use of this site is restricted and to make sure you understand and accept the user agreement or you cannot use the site.

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• How do I cast a void pointer to a struct in C?

  - by Rowhawn

  In a project I'm writing code for, I have a void pointer, "implementation", which is a member of a "Hash_map" struct, and points to an "Array_hash_map" struct. The concepts behind this project are not very realistic, but bear with me. The specifications of the project ask that I cast the void pointer "implementation" to an "Array_hash_map" before I can use it in any functions. My question, specifically is, what do I do in the functions to cast the void pointers to the desired struct? Is there one statement at the top of each function that casts them or do I make the cast every time I use "implementation"? Here are the typedefs the structs of a Hash_map and Array_hash_map as well as a couple functions making use of them. typedef struct { Key_compare_fn key_compare_fn; Key_delete_fn key_delete_fn; Data_compare_fn data_compare_fn; Data_delete_fn data_delete_fn; void *implementation; } Hash_map; typedef struct Array_hash_map{ struct Unit *array; int size; int capacity; } Array_hash_map; typedef struct Unit{ Key key; Data data; } Unit; functions: /* Sets the value parameter to the value associated with the key parameter in the Hash_map. */ int get(Hash_map *map, Key key, Data *value){ int i; if (map == NULL || value == NULL) return 0; for (i = 0; i < map->implementation->size; i++){ if (map->key_compare_fn(map->implementation->array[i].key, key) == 0){ *value = map->implementation->array[i].data; return 1; } } return 0; } /* Returns the number of values that can be stored in the Hash_map, since it is represented by an array. */ int current_capacity(Hash_map map){ return map.implementation->capacity; }

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• Observer Design Pattern - multiple event types

  - by David

  I'm currently implementing the Observer design pattern and using it to handle adding items to the session, create error logs and write messages out to the user giving feedback on their actions (e.g. You've just logged out!). I began with a single method on the subject called addEvent() but as I added more Observers I found that the parameters required to detail all the information I needed for each listener began to grow. I now have 3 methods called addMessage(), addStorage() and addLog(). These add data into an events array that has a key related to the event type (e.g. log, message, storage) but I'm starting to feel that now the subject needs to know too much about the listeners that are attached. My alternative thought is to go back to addEvent() and pass an event type (e.g. USER_LOGOUT) along with the data associated and each Observer maintains it's own list of event handles it is looking for (possibly in a switch statement), but this feels cumbersome. Also, I'd need to check that sufficient data had also been passed along with the event type. What is the correct way of doing this? Please let me know if I can explain any parts of this further. I hope you can help and see the problem I'm battling with.

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• How to keep activity on Force Close?

  - by SushiRoll

  I have this piece of code that's really prone to errors so I wrapped it with try{}catch statement. I don't want to go back to the previous activity, I just want it to stay on the current activity so that the user can edit whatever is wrong with them. How do I implement this? try{ orgi.insertOrThrow(tableName, null, values); Toast.makeText(this, "You have successfully created a new profile!", 2).show(); gotoProfileList(); Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(),"Successfully added to database"); }catch(SQLiteException se){ Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "Database connection failed!" + se); //Stay in this activity... }finally{ if (orgi != null){ orgi.close(); } } Forget it, I was able to solve my own problem by showing up an alertDialog that tells the user about the error. Thanks anyways. :) try{ orgi.insertOrThrow(tableName, null, values); Toast.makeText(this, "You have successfully created a new profile!", 2).show(); gotoProfileList(); Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(),"Successfully added to database"); }catch(SQLiteException se){ Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "Database connection failed!" + se); displayError(); //stayInThisActivity(); }finally{ if (orgi != null){ orgi.close(); } public void displayError(){ AlertDialog.Builder error = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); error.setMessage("That profile name already exists, try another one.").setCancelable(false).setPositiveButton("Yes",new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.cancel(); } }); AlertDialog alert = error.create(); alert.setTitle("Error"); alert.show(); }

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• C++ casted realloc causing memory leak

  - by wyatt

  I'm using a function I found here to save a webpage to memory with cURL: struct WebpageData { char *pageData; size_t size; }; size_t storePage(void *input, size_t size, size_t nmemb, void *output) { size_t realsize = size * nmemb; struct WebpageData *page = (struct WebpageData *)output; page->pageData = (char *)realloc(page->pageData, page->size + realsize + 1); if(page->pageData) { memcpy(&(page->pageData[page->size]), input, realsize); page->size += realsize; page->pageData[page->size] = 0; } return realsize; } and find the line: page->pageData = (char *)realloc(page->pageData, page->size + realsize + 1); is causing a memory leak of a few hundred bytes per call. The only real change I've made from the original source is casting the line in question to a (char *), which my compiler (gcc, g++ specifically if it's a c/c++ issue, but gcc also wouldn't compile with the uncast statement) insisted upon, but I assume this is the source of the leak. Can anyone elucidate? Thanks

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• NHibernate One to One Foreign Key ON DELETE CASCADE

  - by xll

  I need to implement One-to-one association between Project and ProjecSettings using fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .UniqueKey(MapUtils.Col<Project>(x => x.Id)) .GeneratedBy.HiLo("NHHiLoIdentity", "NextHiValue", "1000", string.Format("[EntityName] = '[{0}]'", MapUtils.Table<Project>())) .Not.Nullable(); HasOne(x => x.ProjectSettings) .PropertyRef(x => x.Project); } } public class ProjectSettingsMap : ClassMap<ProjectSettings> { public ProjectSettingsMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .UniqueKey(MapUtils.Col<ProjectSettings>(x => x.Id)) .GeneratedBy.HiLo("NHHiLoIdentity", "NextHiValue", "1000", string.Format("[EntityName] = '[{0}]'", MapUtils.Table<ProjectSettings>())); References(x => x.Project) .Column(MapUtils.Ref<ProjectSettings, Project>(p => p.Project, p => p.Id)) .Unique() .Not.Nullable(); } } This results in the following sql for Project Settings: CREATE TABLE ProjectSettings ( Id bigint PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL, Project_Project_Id bigint NOT NULL UNIQUE, /* Foreign keys */ FOREIGN KEY (Project_Project_Id) REFERENCES Project() ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); What I am trying to achieve is to have ON DELETE CASCADE for the FOREIGN KEY (Project_Project_Id), so that when the project is deleted through sql query, it's settings are deleted too. How can I achieve this ? EDIT: I know about Cascade.Delete() option, but it's not what I need. Is there any way to intercept the FK statement generation?

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• how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

  - by user151841

  I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

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• Tagging in Subversion - how do I make the decision about continuing to work on my trunk vs. the new

  - by Howiecamp

  I'm running Tortoise SVN to manage a project. Obviously the principles around tagging apply to any implementation of SVN but in this question I'll be referring to some TortoiseSVN-specific dialog boxes and messages. My working directory and the subversion repository structure both have a Source root directory and the Trunk, Tags and Branches directories underneath. (I couldn't figure out how to do a multilevel indented hierarchy in markdown without using bullets, so if someone could edit and fix this I'd appreciate it.) I'm working out of the Trunk directory in my working copy and it's pointing at the Trunk directory in the repo. I want to apply a Tag "Release1" so I click the "Branch/tag..." menu option and set the repo path as my [repo_path/bla/Source/Tags/Release1" tag. This dialog box gives me the option to "Switch my working copy to new branch/tag". I understand that if this option is left unchecked, the new "Release1" branch under /Tags" will be created but my working copy will remain on the previous "Trunk" path. If I do check this option (or use the Switch command) I understand that my working copy will switch to the new "Release1" branch under "/Tags". Where I'm missing a concept is how to make this decision. It doesn't seem like I want to switch my working directory to the recently created tag since by definition (?) I want that tag to be a snapshot of my code as of a point in time. If I don't switch the working directory, I'll continue working off Trunk and when I'm ready to take another snapshot I'll make another tag. And so on... Am I understanding this right or am I stating something incorrectly in the previous paragraph (e.g. the statement about not wanting to switch to the tag since the tag should represent a point in time snapshot) or otherwise missing something regarding how to make this decision?

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• Heavy Mysql operation & Time Constraints [closed]

  - by Rahul Jha

  There is a performance issue where that I have stuck with my application which is based on PHP & MySql. The application is for Data Migration where data has to be uploaded and after various processes (Cleaning from foreign characters, duplicate check, id generation) it has to be inserted into one central table and then to 5 different tables. There, an id is generated and that id has to be updated to central table. There are different sets of records and validation rules. The problem I am facing is that when I insert say(4K) rows file (containing 20 columns) it is working fine within 15 min it gets inserted everywhere. But, when I insert the same records again then at this time it is taking one hour to insert (ideally it should get inserted by marking earlier inserted data as duplicate). After going through the log file, I noticed is that there is a Mysql select statement where I am checking the duplicates and getting ID which are duplicates. Then I am calling a function inside for loop which is basically inserting records into 5 tables and updates id to central table. This Calling function is major time of whole process. P.S. The records has to be inserted record by record.. Kindly Suggest some solution.. //This is that sample code $query=mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT p1.ID FROM table1 p1, table2 p2, table3 a WHERE p2.datatype =0 AND (p1.datatype =1 || p1.datatype=2) AND p2.ID =0 AND p1.ID = a.ID AND p1.coulmn1 = p2.column1 AND p1.coulmn2 = p2.coulmn2 AND a.coulmn3 = p2.column3"); $num=mysql_num_rows($query); for($i=0;$i<$num;$i++) { $f=mysql_result($query,$i,"ID"); //calling function RecordInsert($f); }

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• String or binary data would be truncated -- Heisenberg problem

  - by harpo

  When you get this error, the first thing you ask is, which column? Unfortunately, SQL Server is no help here. So you start doing trial and error. Well, right now I have a statement like: INSERT tbl (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) SELECT A, B * 2, C, D, E, q.F, G FROM tbl ,othertable q WHERE etc etc Note that Some values are modified or linked in from another table, but most values are coming from the original table, so they can't really cause truncation going back to the same field (that I know of). Eliminating fields one at a time eventually makes the error go away, if I do it cumulatively, but — and here's the kicker — it doesn't matter which fields I eliminate. It's as if SQL Server is objecting to the total length of the row, which I doubt, since there are only about 40 fields in all, and nothing large. Anyone ever seen this before? Thanks. UPDATE: I have also done "horizontal" testing, by filtering out the SELECT, with much the same result. In other words, if I say WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100: Error WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 50: No error WHERE id BETWEEN 50 AND 100: No error I tried many combinations, and it cannot be limited to a single row.

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• JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

  - by Rob

  After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

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• Program repeats each time a character is scanned .. How to stop it ?

  - by ZaZu

  Hello there, I have a program that has this code : #include<stdio.h> main(){ int input; char g; do{ printf("Choose a numeric value"); printf(">"); scanf("\n%c",&input); g=input-'0'; }while((g>=-16 && g<=-1)||(g>=10 && g<=42)||(g>=43 && g<=79)); } It basically uses ASCII manipulation to allow the program to accept numbers only .. '0' is given the value 48 by default...the ASCII value - 48 gives a ranges of numbers above (in the while statement) Anyway, whenever a user inputs numbers AND alphabets, such as : abr39293afakvmienb23 The program ignores : a,b,r .. But takes '3' as the first input. For a b and r, the code under the do loop repeats. So for the above example, I get : Choose a numeric value >Choose a numeric value> Choose a numeric value >3 Is there a way I can stop this ??? I tried using \n%c to scan the character and account for whitespace, but that didnt work :( Please help thank you very much !

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• routing mvc on the web

  - by generic_noob

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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• Is it possible to refer to metadata of the target from within the target implementation in MSBuild?

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. My msbuild targets file contains the following section: <ItemGroup> <Targets Include="T1"> <Project>A\B.sln"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T1 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> <Targets Include="T2"> <Project>C\D.csproj"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T2 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> ... </ItemGroup> <Target Name="T1" DependsOnTargets="The targets T1 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="A\B.sln" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> <Target Name="T2" DependsOnTargets="The targets T2 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="C\D.csproj" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> As you can see, A\B.sln appears twice: As Project metadata of T1 in the ItemGroup section. In the Target statement itself passed to the MSBuild task. I am wondering whether I can remove the second instance and replace it with the reference to the Project metadata of the target, which name is given to the Target task? Exactly the same question is asked for the (Targets.DependsOnTargets) metadata. It is mentioned twice much like the %(Targets.Project) metadata. Thanks. EDIT: I should probably describe the constraints, which must be satisfied by the solution: I want to be able to build individual projects with ease. Today I can simply execute msbuild file.proj /t:T1 to build the T1 target and I wish to keep this ability. I wish to emphasize, that some projects depend on others, so the DependsOnTargets attribute is really necessary for them.

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• MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

  - by cbp

  Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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