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• Can I load a UIImage from a URL?

  - by progrmr

  I have a URL for an image (got it from UIImagePickerController) but I no longer have the image in memory (the URL was saved from a previous run of the app). Can I reload the UIImage from the URL again? I see that UIImage has a imageWithContentsOfFile: but I have a URL. Can I use NSData's dataWithContentsOfURL: to read the URL? EDIT based on @Daniel's answer I tried the following code but it doesn't work... NSLog(@"%s %@", __PRETTY_FUNCTION__, photoURL); if (photoURL) { NSURL* aURL = [NSURL URLWithString:photoURL]; NSData* data = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:aURL]; self.photoImage = [UIImage imageWithData:data]; [data release]; } When I ran it the console shows: -[PhotoBox willMoveToWindow:] file://localhost/Users/gary/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/3.2/Media/DCIM/100APPLE/IMG_0004.JPG *** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0 *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0' Looking at the call stack, I'm calling URLWithString, which calls URLWithString:relativeToURL:, then initWithString:relativeToURL:, then _CFStringIsLegalURLString, then CFStringGetLength, then forwarding_prep_0, then forwarding, then -[NSObject doesNotRecognizeSelector]. Any ideas why my NSString (photoURL's address is 0x536fbe0) doesn't respond to length? Why does it say it doesn't respond to -[NSURL length]? Doesn't it know that param is an NSString, not a NSURL?

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• How to Change an MFC Modeless Dialog to be the child of a CView in an MDI application?

  - by Kieveli

  I have an MFC application that is a Doc/View/Frame implementation. One dialog is running as a modeless dialog which pops up on demand (from a menu option). I'm looking to add the modeless dialog to an MDI child view. Basically, I want to load the template from the resource file, and create it as a child of the CView in my new trio (doc/view/frame) that I am adding to the template lists for the MDI. I've tried a few things in my derived CMyView class: void CMyView::OnInitialUpdate() { m_ListDialog = new Dialogs::CListDialog( m_config, this ); m_ListDialog->Create( Dialogs::CListDialog::IDD, this ); m_ListDialog->ShowWindow( SW_SHOW ); } I've tried calling SetWindowPos, ModifyStyle (WS_CHILD, WS_VISIBLE, DS_CONTROL). I've tried modifying the resource file to set the child and control manually. Everytime it calls Create, the ListDialog's m_hWnd is left as 0. This tells me it's not getting created properly. Any call to SetWindowPos() or ShowWindow() fails because the m_hWnd is 0 (debug assertion fails). What do I need to do to get a modeless dialog to be constructed, created, and appear as a child to CMyView in my MDI application?

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• Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

  - by jon hanson

  A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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• How do I update blackberry UI items from a thread?

  - by Andrei T. Ursan

  public class PlayText extends Thread { private int duration; private String text; private PlayerScreen playerscrn; public PlayText(String text, int duration) { this.duration = duration; this.text = text; this.playerscrn = (PlayerScreen)UiApplication.getUiApplication().getActiveScreen(); } public void run() { synchronized(UiApplication.getEventLock()) { try{ RichTextField text1player = new RichTextField(this.text, Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text1player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(this.duration); RichTextField text2player = new RichTextField("hahhaha", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text2player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(1000); RichTextField text3player = new RichTextField("Done", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text3player); playerscrn.invalidate(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("I HAVE AN ERROR"); } } } } With the above code I'm trying to create a small text player. Instead to get all the text labels one by one, something like display text1player wait this.duration milliseconds display text2player wait 1000 milliseconds display text3player thread done. The screens waits this.duration + 1000 milliseconds and displays all the labels at once. I tried with a runnable and calling .invokeLater or .invokeAndWait but I still get the same behavior, and even if I get dirty like above using synchronized it still doesn't work. Does anyone know how I can display each label at a time? Thank you!

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• How can we change views in a UISplitViewController other than using the popover and selecting?

  - by wolverine

  I have done a sample app with UISplitViewController studying the example they have provided. I have created three detailviews and have configured them to change by the default means. Either using the left/master view in landscape AND using the popover in the portrait orientation. Now I am trying to move to another view(previous/next) from the currentView by using left/right swipe in each view. For that, what I did was just created a function in the RootViewController. I copy-pasted the same code as that of the tablerow selection used by the popover from the RootViewController. I am calling this function from my current view's controller and is passing the respective index of the view(to be displayed next) from the current view. Function is being called but nothing is happening. Plz help me OR is anyother way to do it other than this complex step? I am giving the function that I used to change the view. - (void) rearrangeViews:(int)viewRow { UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (viewRow == 0) { DetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[DetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 2) { ThirdDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[ThirdDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ThirdDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers; [viewControllers release]; if (rootPopoverButtonItem != nil) { [detailViewController showRootPopoverButtonItem:self.rootPopoverButtonItem]; } [detailViewController release]; }

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• qTip jQuery Plugin not always Firing

  - by tonsils

  Hi, I am using the qTip jquery plugin qTip plugin for a website I'm working on based on another thread I raised here: stack overflow thread My question is, I have a navigation bar running along the top of my screen which is basically sets the title attribute based on the tab menu you are in, these are all stored within a javascript array. For example, I have three menu options running along the top of the screen, say Menu A, Menu B and Menu C. I also have an information image positioned at the rightmost position of the nav bar, which I set the title attribute, based on the Menu option selected in the Nav Bar. For example: Menu A => myRole[0] = "Admin" Menu B => myRole[1] = "Manager" Menu C => myRole[2] = "Guest" So basically as the user clicks on each of the menus in the nav bar, I set the title attribute in the information image to either "Admin","Manager" or "Guest". At startup, the qTip plugin works and displays "Admin" when I hover over it but when I change the menu to Menu C, it still displays "Admin" instead of "Guest" From the looks of it, it doesn't seem to be calling the qTip plugin, which I have positioned at the footer of the screen (see actual code below). Any ideas how to ensure that the qTip fires every time I click/change menu options and pickups value within javascript array? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.qtip-1.0.0-rc3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('div#infoi img[title]').qtip({ position: { adjust: { x:-110, y:0 }, corner: { target: 'bottomLeft', tooltip: 'topMiddle' } }, style: { width: 250, padding: 5, background: '#E7F1FA', color: 'black', textAlign: 'center', border: { width: 3, color: '#65a9d7' }, tip: 'topRight' } }); }); </script> Thanks.

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• What does 'postMessage()' do when called on an object tag?

  - by Stephano

  I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. Any ideas?

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• what is the point of heterogenous arrays?

  - by aharon

  I know that more-dynamic-than-Java languages, like Python and Ruby, often allow you to place objects of mixed types in arrays, like so: ["hello", 120, ["world"]] What I don't understand is why you would ever use a feature like this. If I want to store heterogenous data in Java, I'll usually create an object for it. For example, say a User has int ID and String name. While I see that in Python/Ruby/PHP you could do something like this: [["John Smith", 000], ["Smith John", 001], ...] this seems a bit less safe/OO than creating a class User with attributes ID and name and then having your array: [<User: name="John Smith", id=000>, <User: name="Smith John", id=001>, ...] where those <User ...> things represent User objects. Is there reason to use the former over the latter in languages that support it? Or is there some bigger reason to use heterogenous arrays? N.B. I am not talking about arrays that include different objects that all implement the same interface or inherit from the same parent, e.g.: class Square extends Shape class Triangle extends Shape [new Square(), new Triangle()] because that is, to the programmer at least, still a homogenous array as you'll be doing the same thing with each shape (e.g., calling the draw() method), only the methods commonly defined between the two.

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• How to implement progressbar(to show progress) using threading concept in win 32?

  - by Rakesh

  I am trying to show a progress bar while my process is going on...in my application there will be a situation where I gotta read files and manipulate them(it will take some time to complete)..want to display a progress bar during this operation..the particular function I am calling is an win 32 ...so if you check my code below i am upto the point of creating the progress bar in a dialog window and creating a thread Now I dont know how to post the message and where to get the message and handle...Please help me..thanks in advance //my function int Myfunction(....) { HWND dialog = CreateWindowEx(0,WC_DIALOG,L"Proccessing...",WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW|WS_VISIBLE, 600,300,280,120,NULL,NULL,NULL,NULL); HWND pBar = CreateWindowEx(NULL,PROGRESS_CLASS,NULL,WS_CHILD|WS_VISIBLE,40,20,200, 20, dialog,(HMENU)IDD_PROGRESS,NULL,NULL); HANDLE getHandle = CreateThread(NULL,NULL,(LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SetFilesForOperation(...), NULL,NULL,0); } LPARAM SetFilesForOperation(...) { for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { *checkstate = *(checkState + index); if(*checkstate == -1) { *(getFiles+i) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(getFiles+i),*(dataFiles +index)); i++; } else { (*tempDataFiles)->Add(*(dataFiles+index)); *(checkState + localIndex) = *(checkState + index); localIndex++; } //SendMessage(pBar,PBM_SETSTEP,1,0); } }

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• java applet stops running on exceptions

  - by Marius

  I've developed a simple applet that imports an image from the clipboard. When i run the class file from NetBeans, everything works fine. But when i try to run it as an applet ... it gives me lots of errors in the java console and does not run ... - The applet is signed - There is a static method in one class, called getImageFromClipboard(). When the applet runs, it calls this method. - getImageFromClipboard() method has a try-catch block and suppresses all errors. It simply returns either a BufferedImage or null. - When applet runs, it does some visual adjustments before calling getImageFromClipboard() Now the scenario is as follows: the class from netbeans runs, fails to import the image and adjusts the interface accordingly (displays an error in a label) But when i run it in a browser, java console is filled with errors and nothing after the getImageFromClipboard() line works. Although the applet itself loads and does everything it's supposed do do before importing the image. So why am i getting errors if i accept the certificate and all of the possible errors are in try-catch blocks? None of this code should throw any exceptions. Any ideas why this is happening? Or do you need to see the errors to tell? UPDATE I've managed to find out the problem myself. The class that i'm using is not in the jar file :( How do i add it in? I'm using "add jar folder" in netbeans on the libraries package to import it but it does not seem to get copied to the jar.

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• Shutting down a windows service that has threads

  - by Dave

  I have a windows service written in .NET 3.5 (c#) with a System.Threading.Timer that spawns several Threads in each callback. These are just normal threads (no Thread Pool) and I've set the IsBackground = true on each thread since I'm only going to be running managed code. When a user stops the service, what happens to all the threads? Do they die gracefully? I don't have any code that manages the threads via calling join or abort. Is it correct to assume the IsBackground = true is enough to assume the threads will be disposed and stopped when a user stops the service? What exactly happens when someone stops a windows service via the Service Manager GUI? Does it kill the process after it fires the OnStop event? This would actually be acceptable for me because I've built a separate mechanism that allows a user know for sure there are no threads before they stop the service. This is done via 2 WCF methods exposed from a ServiceHost that runs inside the Windows Service. There's one method to stop spawning new threads and another method to query how many running threads there are left. I'm just curious what happens if they skip those steps and just stop the service... It seems the IsBackground helps achieve this:

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• Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

  - by Thanks

  I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

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• T4MVC and duplicate controller names in different areas

  - by artvolk

  In my application I have controller named Snippets both in default area (in application root) and in my area called Manage. I use T4MVC and custom routes, like this: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss() ); And I get this error: Multiple types were found that match the controller named 'snippets'. This can happen if the route that services this request ('{controller}/{action}/{id}/') does not specify namespaces to search for a controller that matches the request. If this is the case, register this route by calling an overload of the 'MapRoute' method that takes a 'namespaces' parameter. The request for 'snippets' has found the following matching controllers: Snippets.Controllers.SnippetsController Snippets.Areas.Manage.Controllers.SnippetsController I know that there are overloads for MapRoute that take namespaces argument, but there are no such overloads with T4MVC support. May be I'm missing something? The possible syntax can be: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {"Snippets.Controllers"} ); or, it seems quite good to me to have namespace as T4MVC property: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {MVC.Snippets.Namespace} ); Thanks in advance!

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• Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

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• Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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• Sending URL as a parameter using javascript

  - by Prashant Singh

  I have to send a name and a link from client side to the server. I thought of using AJAX called by Javascript to do this. This is what I mean. I wished to make an ajax request to a file called abc.php with parameters :- 1. http://thumbs2.ebaystatic.com/m/m7dFgOtLUUUSpktHRspjhXw/140.jpg 2. Apple iPod touch, 3rd generation, 32GB To begin with, I encoded the URL and tried to send it. But the server says status Forbidden Any solution to this ? UPDATE :: It end up calling to http://abc.com/addToWishlist.php?rand=506075547542422&image=http://thumbs1.ebaystatic.com/m/mO64jQrMqam2jde9aKiXC9A/140.jpg&prod=Flat%20USB%20Data%20Sync%20Charging%20Charger%20Cable%20Apple%20iPhone%204G%204S%20iPod%20Touch%20Nano Javascript Code :: function addToWishlist(num) { var myurl = "addToWishlist.php"; var myurl1 = myurl; myRand = parseInt(Math.random()*999999999999999); var rand = "?rand="+myRand ; var modurl = myurl1+ rand + "&image=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][1]) + "&prod=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][0]); httpq2.open("GET", modurl, true); httpq2.onreadystatechange = useHttpResponseq2; httpq2.send(null); } function useHttpResponseq2() { if (httpq2.readyState == 4) { if(httpq2.status == 200) { var mytext = httpq2.responseText; document.getElementById('wish' + num).innerHTML = "Added to your wishlist."; } } } Server Code <?php include('/home/ankit/public_html/connect_db.php'); $image = $_GET['image']; $prod = $_GET['prod']; $id = $_GET['id']; echo $prod; echo $image; ?> As I mentioned, its pretty basics More Updates : On trying to send a POST request via AJAX to the server, it says :- Refused to set unsafe header "Content-length" Refused to set unsafe header "Connection"

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• MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

  - by Josh Clark

  I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

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• Using unset member variables within a class or struct

  - by Doug Kavendek

  It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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• Problem loading scripts from Ajax Response

  - by konathamrajesh

  The problem is I am using get_info() to make a ajax call to Result.lasso and paste the response in div with id 'test'.I am unable to use the sendForm() function from the page where i am calling the get_info(). I have also tried using different versions of jQuery 1.1.1.3 is working fine.But i am facing the problem while using higher versions of jquery. The error with higher versions is as follows missing } in XML expression [Break on this error] alert('hi');\n test.lasso (line 3) sendForm is not defined [Break on this error] sendForm(); get_info() function definition <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <SCRIPT> function get_info() { $.ajax({url: "Result.lasso", context: document.body, success: function(response){ document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = response ;},dataType:"script"}); } </SCRIPT> The code in Result.lasso is as follows [Content_Type: 'text/html; charset=UTF-8'] <script type="text/javascript"> function sendForm() { alert('hi'); } </script> [Date] form name= "abc" method = "get" action = "abcd.lasso"> input type ="text" name = "element1"/> input type = "button" value="Click" onClick = "javascript: sendForm();"/> </form> Please help me out in resolving this problem Thanks, Rajesh Konatham

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• How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

  - by räph

  I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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• SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

  - by pcampbell

  Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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• ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

  - by zoopzoop

  I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

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• Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

  - by Zarjay

  What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

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• Connection

  - by pepersview

  Hello, I would like to ask you about NSURLConnection in objective-c for iPhone. I have one app that needs to connect to one webservice to receive data (about YouTube videos), Then I have all the things that I need to connect (Similar to Hello_Soap sample code in the web). But now, my problem is that I create a class (inherits from NSObject) named Connection and I have implemented the methods: didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError and connectionDidFinishLoading. Also the method: -(void)Connect:(NSString *) soapMessage{ NSLog(soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://....."]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if( theConnection ) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"theConnection is NULL"); } } But when from my AppDelegate I create one Connection object: Connection * connect = [[Connection alloc] Init:num]; //It's only one param to test. [connect Connect:method.soapMessage]; And I call this method, when this finishes, it doesn't continue calling didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError or connectionDidFinishLoading. I'm trying to do this but I can't for the moment. The thing I would like to do is to be able to call this class "Connection" each time that I want to receive data (after that to be parsed and displayed in UITableViews). Thank you.

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• Add Ellipsis to a Path in a WinForms Program without Win32 API call (revisited)

  - by casterle

  I was searching for a way to insert an ellipsis in a C# path, and found an answer here on stackoverflow: http://tinyurl.com/y6rmdfr Using the RTM versions of VS2010 and .Net 4.0, I was unable to get the suggested method to work. I searched the 'Net and found example code that uses the same method, but it failed in the same way. You can see the string I'm trying to shorten in my code below. After calling the MeasureText method, both the input string (OriginalName) and the output string (ellipsisedName) look like this: d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\...\test.txt\0F\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt Two problems: 1) The resulting string is narfed (the path is truncated as expected, but is followed by what looks like a C-style terminating null and a chunk of the original path). 2) My original string is changed to be identical to the output string. Am I doing something wrong? namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); string OriginalPath = @"d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\uvwx\yzAB\CDEF\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt"; string ellipsisedPath = OriginalPath; Size proposedSize = new Size(label1.Width, label1.Height); TextRenderer.MeasureText(ellipsisedPath, label1.Font, proposedSize, TextFormatFlags.ModifyString | TextFormatFlags.PathEllipsis); } } }

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