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  • How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

    - by Philip
    I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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  • Dynamically populated NSPopUpButtonCell menu in an NSOutlineView

    - by Mo
    I’m working with an NSOutlineView which has two columns. My dataSource supplies the outline view with a tree of items of a custom class which represents file types (that is, you initialise it with a UTI). The first column is the display name of the file type (e.g., “Source code”, “Interface Builder NIB document”, etc.). The second column is an NSPopUpButtonCell which is supposed to allow the user to pick a handler for the given document type (think of Xcode’s “File Types” preference pane, and you’re pretty much there). I can generate an NSMenu for a given item in the tree, populated with options based upon the Launch Services database entries for the UTI, complete with the relevant application icon and and so on. In fact, the menu itself works wonderfully, populated by way of NSPopUpButtonCellWillPopUpNotification. The problem is, try as I might, the cell when the menu isn’t popped up always contains precisely one of two things: either an empty string, or the default text for the cell, the former if the result of -handlerName on the item (the attribute assigned to the column) is non-nil, the latter otherwise. Moreover, I’m manually calling -selectItem: on the NSPopUpButtonCell instance, which just seems Wrong. In contrast, the left-hand column, which is just an NSTextFieldCell, everything just works (although granted, all it’s got to do is read the value from the item and present it). (Disclaimer: I’m fairly new at Cocoa UI stuff; I know Objective-C, and lots of other programming languages, but I’ve not a huge amount of experience of building Mac OS X UIs, so be gentle).

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • Not able to display the progress bar using threading concept?

    - by Rakesh
    I am trying to show a progress bar while my process is going on...in my application there will be a situation where I gotta read files and manipulate them(it will take some time to complete)..want to display a progress bar during this operation..the particular function I am calling is an win 32 ...so if you check my code below ...I am able to display the progressbar but it doesnt show any progress..actually its not doing any further process...Please help me..thanks in advance //my function int Myfunction(....) { MSG msg; HWND dialog = CreateWindowEx(0,WC_DIALOG,L"Proccessing...",WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW|WS_VISIBLE, 600,300,280,120,NULL,NULL,NULL,NULL); HWND pBar = CreateWindowEx(NULL,PROGRESS_CLASS,NULL,WS_CHILD|WS_VISIBLE,40,20,200, 20, dialog,(HMENU)IDD_PROGRESS,NULL,NULL); SendMessage(pBar,PBM_SETRANGE,0,MAKELPARAM(0,noOfFile)); while(GetMessage(&msg,NULL,0,0)) { TranslateMessage(&msg); Dispatch(&message); } HANDLE getHandle = CreateThread(NULL,NULL,(LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SetFilesForOperation(...), NULL,NULL,0); } LPARAM SetFilesForOperation(...) { for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { *checkstate = *(checkState + index); if(*checkstate == -1) { *(getFiles+i) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(getFiles+i),*(dataFiles +index)); i++; } else { (*tempDataFiles)->Add(*(dataFiles+index)); *(checkState + localIndex) = *(checkState + index); localIndex++; } PostMessage(pBar,PBM_SETPOS,(WPARAM)index,0); } }

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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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  • Javascript permission denied - different port

    - by Grnbeagle
    Hi, I have a rails app running on port 3000. The page in question has an iframe and I need to resize it depending on the height of the content loaded in the iframe. <iframe id="ifrm_col3" name="ifrm_col3" frameborder="0" src="<%=invite_path(@invite.alias)%>" onload="util.resize_iframe('ifrm_col3');"></iframe> The resize function is here: util.resize_iframe = function(frame_id) { var h = document.getElementById(frame_id).contentWindow.document.body.scrollHeight; document.getElementById(frame_id).height = h; } After the iframe loads, I see this error in FireBug: Error: Permission denied for <http://192.168.0.157> to get property Window.document from <http://192.168.0.157:3000>. Source File: http://192.168.0.157:3000/javascripts/application.js?1268327481 Line: 84 The src of iframe is a relative path, but I'm not sure why the port info from the parent page is not retained. Is there any workaround to this problem? I tried creating a function in the parent page and calling it from the iframe, but ran into the same issue. Due to extra features in the site, I need to stick to port 3000 for the rails app. Any suggestion is appreciated.

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  • Jquery - binding click event to a variable

    - by Kayote
    All, I am really stuck/ confused at this point. I have an array with 6 items in it. Each item in the array is dynamically filled with elements using jquery '.html' method. However, I cannot seem to be able to attach/ bind an event to this dynamically created variable. As soon as the browser gets to the problem line (see the area labeled 'PROBLEM AREA'), I get a 'undefined' error, which is really confusing as all the previous code on the very same variable works just fine. var eCreditSystem = document.getElementById("creditSystem"); var i = 0; var eCreditT = new Array(6); // 6 members created which will be recycled function createCreditTransaction () // func called when a transaction occurs, at the mo, attached to onclick() { if (i < 6) { eCreditT[i] = undefined; // to delete the existing data in the index of array addElements (i); } else if (i > 5 || eCreditT[i] != undefined) { ... } } function addElements (arrayIndex) // func called from within the 'createCreditTransaction()' func { eCreditT[i] = $(document.createElement('div')).addClass("cCreditTransaction").appendTo(eCreditSystem); $(eCreditT[i]).attr ('id', ('trans' + i)); $(eCreditT[i]).html ('<div class="cCreditContainer"><span class="cCreditsNo">-50</span>&nbsp;<img class="cCurrency" src="" alt="" /></div><span class="cCloseMsg">Click box to close.</span><div class="dots"></div><div class="dots"></div><div class="dots"></div>'); creditTransactionSlideOut (eCreditT[i], 666); // calling slideOut animation console.log(eCreditT[i]); // this confirms that the variable is not undefined /* ***** THE PROBLEM AREA ***** */ $(eCreditT[i]).on ('click', function () // if user clicks on the transaction box { creditTransactionSlideBackIn (eCreditT[i], 150); // slide back in animation }); return i++; }

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  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

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  • Facebook new js api and cross-domain file

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am building a simple facebook iframe application. I've decided since the code is separate from facebook none the less, I will also create a connect website as well. In my connect website I'm trying to figure out the following: I am using facebook's new api and I am calling the init function. I can't seem to figure out where I combine my cross-domain file. There's no mention of it in their documentation either. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/javascript/FB.init I am referring to these lines of code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'your app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

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  • Two questions on ensuring EndInvoke() gets called on a list of IAsyncResult objects

    - by RobV
    So this question is regarding the .Net IAsyncResult design pattern and the necessity of calling EndInvoke as covered in this question Background I have some code where I'm firing off potentially many asynchronous calls to a particular function and then waiting for all these calls to finish before using EndInvoke() to get back all the results. Question 1 I don't know whether any of the calls has encountered an exception until I call EndInvoke() and in the event that an exception occurs in one of the calls the entire method should fail and the exception gets wrapped into an API specific exception and thrown upwards. So my first question is what's the best way then to ensure that the remainder of the async calls get properly terminated? Is a finally block which calls EndInvoke() on the remainder of the unterminated calls (and ignores any further exceptions) the best way to do this? Question 2 Secondly when I first fire off all my asyc calls I then call WaitHandle.WaitAll() on the array of WaitHandle instances that I've got from my IAsyncResult instances. The method which is firing all these async calls has a timeout to adhere to so I provide this to the WaitAll() method. Then I test whether all the calls have completed, if not then the timeout must have been reached so the method should also fail and throw another API specific exception. So my second question is what should I do in this case? I need to call EndInvoke() to terminate all these async calls before I throw the error but at the same time I don't want the code to get stuck since EndInvoke() is blocking. In theory at least if the WaitAll() call times out then all the async calls should themselves have timed out and thrown exceptions (thus completing the call) since they are also governed by a timeout but this timeout is potentially different from the main timeout

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  • Question about making Asynchronous call in C# (WPF) to COM object

    - by Andrew
    Hi, Sorry to ask such a basic question but I seem to have a brain freeze on this one! I'm calling a COM (ATL) object from my WPF project. The COM method might take a long time to complete. I thought I'd try and call it asychronously. I have a few demo lines that show the problem. private void checkBox1_Checked(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { //DoSomeWork(); AsyncDoWork caller = new AsyncDoWork(DoSomeWork); IAsyncResult result = caller.BeginInvoke(null, null); } private delegate void AsyncDoWork(); private void DoSomeWork() { _Server.DoWork(); } The ATL method DoWork is very exciting. It is: STDMETHODIMP CSimpleObject::DoWork(void) { Sleep(5000); return S_OK; } I had expectations that running this way would result in the checkbox being checked right away (instead of in 5 seconds) and me being able to move the WPF gui around the screen. I can't - for 5 seconds. What am I doing wrong? I'm sure it's something pretty simple. Delegate signature wrong? Thanks.

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  • How can we change views in a UISplitViewController other than using the popover and selecting?

    - by wolverine
    I have done a sample app with UISplitViewController studying the example they have provided. I have created three detailviews and have configured them to change by the default means. Either using the left/master view in landscape AND using the popover in the portrait orientation. Now I am trying to move to another view(previous/next) from the currentView by using left/right swipe in each view. For that, what I did was just created a function in the RootViewController. I copy-pasted the same code as that of the tablerow selection used by the popover from the RootViewController. I am calling this function from my current view's controller and is passing the respective index of the view(to be displayed next) from the current view. Function is being called but nothing is happening. Plz help me OR is anyother way to do it other than this complex step? I am giving the function that I used to change the view. - (void) rearrangeViews:(int)viewRow { UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (viewRow == 0) { DetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[DetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 2) { ThirdDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[ThirdDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ThirdDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers; [viewControllers release]; if (rootPopoverButtonItem != nil) { [detailViewController showRootPopoverButtonItem:self.rootPopoverButtonItem]; } [detailViewController release]; }

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  • Actual element tags are not getting captured.

    - by user323719
    I am using the below piece of XSL code to construct a span tag calling a javascript function on mouseover. The input to the javascipt should be a html table. The output from the variable "showContent" gives just the text content but not along with the table tags. How can this be resolved. XSL: <xsl:variable name="aTable" as="element()*"> <table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <xsl:for-each select="$capturedTags"> <tr><td><xsl:value-of select="node()" /></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="start" select='concat("Tip(&#39;", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="end" select='concat("&#39;)", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="showContent"> <xsl:value-of select='concat($start,$aTable,$end)'/> </xsl:variable> <span xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" onmouseout="{$hideContent}" onmouseover="{$showContent}" id="{$textNodeId}"><xsl:value-of select="$textNode"></xsl:value-of></span> Actual Output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('content1')" id="d1t14"is my </span Expected output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('<table><tr><td>content1</td></tr>')" id="d1t14">is my </span> What is the change that needs to done in the above XSL for the table, tr and td tags to get passed?

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  • Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

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  • Flash External Interface issue with Firefox

    - by majestiq
    I am having a hard time getting ExternalInterface to work on Firefox. I am trying to call a AS3 function from javascript. The SWF is setup with the right callbacks and it is working in IE. I am using AC_RunActiveContent.js to embed the swf into my page. However, I have modified it to add an ID to the Object / Embed Tags. Below are object and embed tag that are generated for IE and for Firefox respectively. <object codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="400" height="400" align="middle" id="jpeg_encoder2" name="jpeg_encoder3" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" > <param name="movie" value="/jpeg_encoder/jpeg_encoder3.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="scale" value="showall" /> <param name="wmode" value="window" /> <param name="devicefont" value="false" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <param name="menu" value="false" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> </object> <embed width="400" height="400" src="/jpeg_encoder/jpeg_encoder3.swf" quality="high" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" align="middle" play="true" loop="true" scale="showall" wmode="window" devicefont="false" id="jpeg_encoder2" bgcolor="#ffffff" name="jpeg_encoder3" menu="false" allowFullScreen="false" allowScriptAccess="always" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" > </embed> I am calling the function like this... <script> try { document.getElementById('jpeg_encoder2').processImage(z); } catch (e) { alert(e.message); } </script> In Firefox, I get an error saying "document.getElementById("jpeg_encoder2").processImage is not a function" Any Ideas?

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  • XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

    - by rjovic
    Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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  • Lookup site column not saving/storing metadata for Office 2007 documents?

    - by Greg Hurlman
    I'm having this issue on several server environments. We have a list at the site collection root. There is a site column created as a multi-value lookup on that list's Title field. This site column is used in document libraries in subsites as a required field. When we upload anything but an Office 2007 document, the user is presented with the document metadata fill-in screen (EditForm.aspx?Mode=Upload), the user fills in the appropriate data (including picking a value(s) for this lookup), and clicks "check in" - the document is checked in as expected, with the lookup field's value filled in. With an Office 2007 document, this fails. The user selected values for the lookup field do not ever make it to the server - no errors are thrown, but the field is not saved with the document. We have an event listener on these document libraries, and if we inspect the incoming SPListItem on the event listener method before a single line of our code has run, we see that the value for the lookup field is null. It smells like a SharePoint bug to me - but before I go calling Microsoft, has anyone seen this & worked around it? Edit: the only entry I see in the SP trace logs relating to the problem: CMS/Publishing/8ztg/Medium/Got List Item Version, but item was null

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  • Inheritance of closure objects and overriding of methods

    - by bobikk
    I need to extend a class, which is encapsulated in a closure. This base class is following: var PageController = (function(){ // private static variable var _current_view; return function(request, new_view) { ... // priveleged public function, which has access to the _current_view this.execute = function() { alert("PageController::execute"); } } })(); Inheritance is realised using the following function: function extend(subClass, superClass){ var F = function(){ }; F.prototype = superClass.prototype; subClass.prototype = new F(); subClass.prototype.constructor = subClass; subClass.superclass = superClass.prototype; StartController.cache = ''; if (superClass.prototype.constructor == Object.prototype.constructor) { superClass.prototype.constructor = superClass; } } I subclass the PageController: var StartController = function(request){ // calling the constructor of the super class StartController.superclass.constructor.call(this, request, 'start-view'); } // extending the objects extend(StartController, PageController); // overriding the PageController::execute StartController.prototype.execute = function() { alert('StartController::execute'); } Inheritance is working. I can call every PageController's method from StartController's instance. However, method overriding doesn't work: var startCont = new StartController(); startCont.execute(); alerts "PageController::execute". How should I override this method?

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  • Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

    - by epischel
    Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

    - by Meltemi
    I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • PostMessage does not seem to be working.

    - by Vaccano
    I am trying to use PostMessage to send a tab key. Here is my code: // This class allows us to send a tab key when the the enter key // is pressed for the mooseworks mask control. public class MaskKeyControl : MaskedEdit { // [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] // static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] // I am calling this on a Windows Mobile device so the dll is coredll.dll [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern bool PostMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); public const Int32 VK_TAB = 0x09; public const Int32 WM_KEYDOWN = 0x100; protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyData == Keys.Enter) { PostMessage(this.Handle, WM_KEYDOWN, VK_TAB, 0); return; } base.OnKeyDown(e); } protected override void OnKeyPress(KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar == '\r') e.Handled = true; base.OnKeyPress(e); } } When I press enter the code gets called, but nothing happens. Then I press TAB and it works fine. (So there is something wrong with my sending of the Tab Message.)

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  • How to manipulate a header and then continue with it in C#?

    - by Simon Linder
    Hi all, I want to replace an old ISAPI filter that ran on IIS6. This filter checks if the request is of a special kind, then manipulates the header and continues with the request. Two headers are added in the manipulating method that I need for calling another special ISAPI module. So I have ISAPI C++ code like: DWORD OnPreProc(HTTP_FILTER_CONTEXT *pfc, HTTP_FILTER_PREPROC_HEADERS *pHeaders) { if (ManipulateHeaderInSomeWay(pfc, pHeaders)) { return SF_STATUS_REQ_NEXT_NOTIFICATION; } return SF_STATUS_REQ_FINISHED; } I now want to rewrite this ISAPI filter as a managed module for the IIS7. So I have something like this: private void OnMapRequestHandler(HttpContext context) { ManipulateHeaderInSomeWay(context); } And now what? The request seems not to do what it should? I already wrote an IIS7 native module that implements the same method. But this method has a return value with which I can tell what to do next: REQUEST_NOTIFICATION_STATUS CMyModule::OnMapRequestHandler(IN IHttpContext *pHttpContext, OUT IMapHandlerProvider *pProvider) { if (DoSomething(pHttpContext)) { return RQ_NOTIFICATION_CONTINUE; } return RQ_NOTIFICATION_FINISH_REQUEST; } So is there a way to send my manipulated context again?

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