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• UI Automation Button Style Enabled

  - by Victor Gaspar

  Hi, I'm evaluating UI Automation for UI testing for that I have a WPF application with the following button defined: <Button Style="{DynamicResource ButtonStyle}" x:Name="MyBtn"/> when I need to visually disable the button I just change the style so the user is aware that the button is disabled (the colour changed) but still the button is internally enabled so I can still launch the OnClick event in order to show a message when the user clicks on a "disabled" button. Now the problem is that I don't know how to check from UI Automation the Style that its currently applied i.e. if the button is disabled or enabled. Do you know how can I do that? In a normal situation I should do something like that: Automation.Condition cEBtn = new PropertyCondition(AutomationElement.AutomationIdProperty, "MyBtn"); AutomationElement mybtnElement = appRegraceElement.FindFirst(TreeScope.Children, cEBtn); bool disMyBtn = (bool)mybtnElement .GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.IsEnabledProperty); but in my case the button is always enabled therefore I need to check the Style applied to the button. Thank you very much. Best regards

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• updating system's time using .Net

  - by user62958

  I am trying to update my system time using the following: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct SYSTEMTIME { public ushort wYear; public ushort wMonth; public ushort wDayOfWeek; public ushort wDay; public ushort wHour; public ushort wMinute; public ushort wSecond; public ushort wMilliseconds; } [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "GetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static void Win32GetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "SetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static bool Win32SetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); public void SetTime() { TimeSystem correctTime = new TimeSystem(); DateTime sysTime = correctTime.GetSystemTime(); // Call the native GetSystemTime method // with the defined structure. SYSTEMTIME systime = new SYSTEMTIME(); Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime); // Set the system clock ahead one hour. systime.wYear = (ushort)sysTime.Year; systime.wMonth = (ushort)sysTime.Month; systime.wDayOfWeek = (ushort)sysTime.DayOfWeek; systime.wDay = (ushort)sysTime.Day; systime.wHour = (ushort)sysTime.Hour; systime.wMinute = (ushort)sysTime.Minute; systime.wSecond = (ushort)sysTime.Second; systime.wMilliseconds = (ushort)sysTime.Millisecond; Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime); } When I debug everything looks good and all the values are correct but when it calles the Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime) th actual time of system(display time) doesn't change and stays the same. The strange part is that when I call the Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime) it gives me the new updated time. Can someone give me some help on this?

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• Strange constructor

  - by Bilthon

  Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

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• Schema-less design guidelines for Google App Engine Datastore and other NoSQL DBs

  - by jamesaharvey

  Coming from a relational database background, as I'm sure many others are, I'm looking for some solid guidelines for setting up / designing my datastore on Google App Engine. Are there any good rules of thumb people have for setting up these kinds of schema-less data stores? I understand some of the basics such as denormalizing since you can't do joins, but I was wondering what other recommendations people had. The particular simple example I am working with concerns storing searches and their results. For example I have the following 2 models defined in my Google App Engine app using Python: class Search(db.Model): who = db.StringProperty() what = db.StringProperty() where = db.StringProperty() createDate = db.DateTimeProperty(auto_now_add=True) class SearchResult(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty() content = db.StringProperty() who = db.StringProperty() what = db.StringProperty() where = db.StringProperty() createDate = db.DateTimeProperty(auto_now_add=True) I'm duplicating a bunch of properties between the models for the sake of denormalization since I can't join Search and SearchResult together. Does this make sense? Or should I store a search ID in the SearchResult model and effectively 'join' the 2 models in code when I retrieve them from the datastore? Please keep in mind that this is a simple example. Both models will have a lot more properties and the way I'm approaching this right now, I would put any property I put in the Search model in the SearchResult model as well.

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• changing default my.cnf path in mysql

  - by user377941

  I am having two mysql instances on same machine. The installations are on /usr/loca/mysql1 and /usr/local/mysql2. I m having separate my.cnf files located in /etc/mysql1 and /etc/mysql2. I installed the first instance of my sql using source distribution and with the --prefix=/usr/local/mysql1 option. The second one i got from copying and pastinf the same directory to /usr/local/mysql2. When i start the mysql daemon on /usr.local/mysql/libexec it reads the my.cnf file in /etc/mysql1. And if i start the mysql daemon in /usr/local/mysql2 it reads the same my.cnf file. I have separate port numbers and .sock files defined in the .cnf file in those 2 locations. I can read the my.cnf file in the second location by using --defaults-file=/etc/mysql2/my.cnf option on mysqld startup. I dnt need to enter this each and every time i start the daemon. If i am going to have more instances how can i point the correct my.cnf file to read to each and every mysql daemon. What is the retionale behind mysqld links with the my.cnf file. how can i predefine the location of my.cnf file for each instance.

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• why DbCommandBuilder (Oracle) produces weird WHERE-clause to UpdateCommand?

  - by matti

  I have a table HolidayHome in oracle db which has unique db index on Id (I haven't specified this in the code in any way for adapter/table/dataset, don't know if i should/can). DbDataAdapter.SelectCommand is like this: SELECT Id, ExtId, Label, Location1, Location2, Location3, Location4, ClassId, X, Y, UseType FROM HolidayHome but UpdateCommand generated by DbCommandBuilder has very weird where clause: UPDATE HOLIDAYHOME SET ID = :p1, EXTID = :p2, LABEL = :p3, LOCATION1 = :p4, LOCATION2 = :p5, LOCATION3 = :p6, LOCATION4 = :p7, CLASSID = :p8, X = :p9, Y = :p10, USETYPE = :p11 WHERE ((ID = :p12) AND ((:p13 = 1 AND EXTID IS NULL) OR (EXTID = :p14)) AND ((:p15 = 1 AND LABEL IS NULL) OR (LABEL = :p16)) AND ((:p17 = 1 AND LOCATION1 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION1 = :p18)) AND ((:p19 = 1 AND LOCATION2 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION2 = :p20)) AND ((:p21 = 1 AND LOCATION3 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION3 = :p22)) AND ((:p23 = 1 AND LOCATION4 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION4 = :p24)) AND (CLASSID = :p25) AND (X = :p26) AND (Y = :p27) AND (USETYPE = :p28)) all these fields that have like: ((:p17 = 1 AND LOCATION1 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION1 = :p18)) are defined in oracle db like this: LOCATION1 VARCHAR2(30) so they allow null values. the code looks like this: static bool CreateInsertUpdateDeleteCmds(DbDataAdapter dataAdapter) { DbCommandBuilder builder = _trgtProvFactory.CreateCommandBuilder(); builder.DataAdapter = dataAdapter; // Get the insert, update and delete commands. dataAdapter.InsertCommand = builder.GetInsertCommand(); dataAdapter.UpdateCommand = builder.GetUpdateCommand(); dataAdapter.DeleteCommand = builder.GetDeleteCommand(); } what to do? The UpdateCommand is utter madness. Thanks & Best Regards: Matti

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• Variable Assignment and loops (Java)

  - by Raven Dreamer

  Greetings Stack Overflowers, A while back, I was working on a program that hashed values into a hashtable (I don't remember the specifics, and the specifics themselves are irrelevant to the question at hand). Anyway, I had the following code as part of a "recordInput" method. tempElement = new hashElement(someInt); while(in.hasNext() == true) { int firstVal = in.nextInt(); if (firstVal == -911) { break; } tempElement.setKeyValue(firstVal, 0); for(int i = 1; i<numKeyValues;i++) { tempElement.setKeyValue(in.nextInt(), i); } elementArray[placeValue] = tempElement; placeValue++; } // close while loop } // close method This part of the code was giving me a very nasty bug -- no matter how I finagled it, no matter what input I gave the program, it would always produce an array full of only a single value -- the last one. The problem, as I later determined it, was that because I had not created the tempElement variable within the loop, and because values were not being assigned to elementArray[] until after the loop had ended -- every term was defined rather as "tempElement" -- when the loop terminated, every slot in the array was filled with the last value tempElement had taken. I was able to fix this bug by moving the declaration of tempElement within the while loop. My question to you, Stackoverflow, is whether there is another (read: better) way to avoid this bug while keeping the variable declaration of tempElement outside the while loop. (suggestions for better title and tags also appreciated)

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• Return an Oracle Associative Array from a function

  - by Paul Johnson

  Does anybody know if it is possible to return an associative array as the result of an Oracle function, if so do you have any examples? I have an Oracle package which contains an associative array declaration as defined below: TYPE EVENTPARAM IS TABLE OF NUMBER INDEX BY BINARY_INTEGER; This is then used in a stored procedure outside the package as follows: v_CompParams areva_interface.eventparam; The intention is to store an associative array of strings in the variable v_CompParams, returned from a Parse function in another package. The definition for which is as follows: PACKAGE STRING_MANIP IS TYPE a_array IS TABLE OF NUMBER INDEX BY BINARY_INTEGER; FUNCTION Parse (v_string VARCHAR2, v_delim VARCHAR2) RETURN a_array; FUNCTION RowCount(colln IN a_array) RETURN NUMBER; END; The code which implements this is: v_CompParams := STRING_MANIP.PARSE(v_CompID,v_Delim); Unfortunately it doesn't work, I get the error 'PLS-00382: expression is of wrong type'. I foolishly assumed, that since a_array derives from the same source Oracle type as the variable v_CompParams, that there would be no problem casting between them. Any help much appreciated. Kind Regards Paul J.

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• ExternalInterface issue on loadup with FireFox

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my ExternalInterface. The way it is currently set up is, on the page load up, a boolean is set to true in JavaScript and then checked by ActionScript constructors (using a timer) until it is true. This marks that JavaScript is ready to get calls from AS3. At this point, AS3 will add the callback and do some internal stuff, and at the end of the constructor I call JavaScript. So far so good. JavaScript will at this point call a function in AS3 (that was defined in the callback described above), and this is where it all messes up. On IE this works perfectly fine. On FireFox though, it does not. When I debug it, I see that the javascript function is called but when it tries to call AS3, nothing happens. I also tried to add a timer, but for some reason the function STILL executes straight away (in IE). What is very weird is that a second or two later, that function will work, so it seems that the Flash is not completely loaded in FireFox? But it runs to the last line of my constructor, so I would believe it's loaded. Any idea please, I am really stuck. Thanks a lot, Rudy

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• Total Order between !different! volatile variables?

  - by andreas

  Hi all, Consider the following Java code: volatile boolean v1 = false; volatile boolean v2 = false; //Thread A v1 = true; if (v2) System.out.println("v2 was true"); //Thread B v2 = true; if (v1) System.out.println("v1 was true"); If there was a globally visible total order for volatile accesses then at least one println would always be reached. Is that actually guaranteed by the Java Standard? Or is an execution like this possible: A: v1 = true; B: v2 = true; A: read v2 = false; B: read v1 = false; A: v2 = true becomes visible (after the if) B: v1 = true becomes visible (after the if) I could only find statements about accesses to the same volatile variable in the Standard (but I might be missing something). "A write to a volatile variable (§8.3.1.4) v synchronizes-with all subsequent reads of v by any thread (where subsequent is defined according to the synchronization order)." http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/third_edition/html/memory.html#17.4.4 Thanks!

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• Dependency isn't included in my assembly, although scope is "compile"

  - by Bernhard V

  Hi! I have the following dependency specified in my project's pom: <dependency> <groupId>org.jboss.client</groupId> <artifactId>jbossall-client</artifactId> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> My project itself has to be the child of another pom. And in that one, the following is defined: <dependency> <groupId>jboss</groupId> <artifactId>jbossall-client</artifactId> <version>4.2.2</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>jar</type> </dependency> When I now assembly my program, it seems that the "provided" scope of the parent pom overrides the scope of my project, since the jbossall-client-jar is not included in my assembly. Although it seems illogical to me, maybe it's this feature taking effect here. Do you know a way to include the dependency in my assembly without touching the parent pom?

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• JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

  - by Steve Armstrong

  I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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• how do call a polymorphic function from an agnostic function?

  - by sds

  I have a method foo void foo (String x) { ... } void foo (Integer x) { ... } and I want to call it from a method which does not care about the argument: void bar (Iterable i) { ... for (Object x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } the code above complains that that foo(Object) is not defined and when I add void foo (Object x) { throw new Exception; } then bar(Iterable<String>) calls that instead of foo(String) and throws the exception. How do I avoid having two textually identical definitions of bar(Iterable<String>) and bar(Iterable<Integer>)? I thought I would be able to get away with something like <T> void bar (Iterable<T> i) { ... for (T x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } but then I get cannot find foo(T) error.

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• Redirect to default action in Struts 2

  - by topher-j

  I have an action with an empty string for name defined in the root namespace, and I want to redirect to that action from another action if a certain result is found, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's the default action <action name="" class="com.example.actions.HomeAction"> <result name="success" type="freemarker">freemarker/home.ftl</result> </action> And I'm defining the redirect in the global-results for the package: <global-results> <result name="sendToRouting" type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName"></param> <param name="namespace">/</param> </result> </global-results> I've tried taking out the actionName parameter, but that doesn't work. If I put a name in for the HomeAction and reference it by name in the global-results it works, so I'm assuming the problem is lack of action name for the redirect. Any thoughts?

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• How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

  - by smayers81

  This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

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• JSF/Facelets: set `action` attribute to a dynamically evaluated string

  - by harto

  In my JSF/Facelets application, I want to dynamically generate a breadcrumb trail from a list of page IDs using a custom tag: <foo:breadcrumbs trail="foo,bar,baz"/> This should generate something like: <h:commandLink action="foo" ... /> <h:commandLink action="bar" ... /> <!-- (etc.) --> My code looks something like this: <ui:repeat value="#{fn:split(trail, ',')}" var="key"> <h:commandLink action="#{key}" ... /> </ui:repeat> The problem with this code is that #{key} is interpreted as a method binding. However, I just want the string value of #{key} to be returned as the navigation outcome. How can I achieve this? The only thing I could think of was creating a dummy managed-bean that has an outcome field and an action handler, and invoke it like so: <h:commandLink action="#{dummy.click}" ...> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{dummy.outcome}" value="#{key}" /> </h:commandLink> with the dummy class defined like so: public class Dummy { private String outcome; public String click() { return outcome; } public void setOutcome(String outcome) { this.outcome = outcome; } public void getOutcome() { return outcome; } } That seems ugly though, and I don't know if it would work.

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• Is there an MVVM-friendly way to swap views without value converters firing unnecessarily?

  - by DanM

  I thought what I was doing was right out of the Josh Smith MVVM handbook, but I seem to be having a lot of problems with value converters firing when no data in the view-model has changed. So, I have a ContentControl defined in XAML like this: <ContentControl Grid.Row="0" Content="{Binding CurrentViewModel}" /> The Window containing this ContentControl references a resource dictionary that looks something like this: <ResourceDictionary ...> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:SetupPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:SetupPanel /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:InstructionsPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:InstructionsPanel /> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> So, basically, the two data templates specify which view to show with which view-model. This switches the views as expected whenever the CurrentViewModel property on my window's view-model changes, but it also seems to cause value converters on the views to fire even when no data has changed. It's a particular problem with IMultiValueConverter classes, because the values in the value array get set to DependencyProperty.UnsetValue, which causes exceptions unless I specifically check for that. But I'm getting other weird side effects too. This has me wondering if I shouldn't just do everything manually, like this: Instantiate each view. Set the DataContext of each view to the appropriate view-model. Give the ContentControl a name and make it public. Handle the PropertyChanged event for the window. In the event handler, manually set the Content property of the ContentControl to the appropriate view, based the CurrentViewModel (using if statements). This seems to work, but it also seems very inelegant. I'm hoping there's a better way. Could you please advise me the best way to handle view switching so that value converters don't fire unnecessarily?

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• Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

  - by Gaks

  I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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• Enum and Dictionary<Enum, Action>

  - by Selcuk

  I hope I can explain my problem in a way that it's clear for everyone. We need your suggestions on this. We have an Enum Type which has more than 15 constants defined. We receive a report from a web service and translate its one column into this Enum type. And based on what we receive from that web service, we run specific functions using Dictionary Why am I asking for ideas? Let's say 3 of these Enum contants meet specific functions in our Dictionary but the rest use the same function. So, is there a way to add them into our Dictionary in a better way rather than adding them one by one? I also want to keep this structure because when it's time, we might have specific functions in the future for the ones that I described as "the rest". To be more clear here's an example what we're trying to do: Enum: public enum Reason{ ReasonA, ReasonB, ReasonC, ReasonD, ReasonE, ReasonF, ReasonG, ReasonH, ReasonI, ReasonJ, ReasonK } Defining our Dictionary: public Dictionary<Reason, Action<CustomClassObj, string>> ReasonHandlers = new Dictionary<Reason, Action<CustomClassObj, string>>{ { Reason.ReasonA, HandleReasonA }, { Reason.ReasonB, HandleReasonB }, { Reason.ReasonC, HandleReasonC }, { Reason.ReasonD, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonE, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonF, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonG, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonH, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonI, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonJ, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonK, HandleReasonGeneral } }; So basically what I'm asking is, is there a way to add Reason, Function pair more intelligently? Because as you can see after ReasonC, all other reasons use the same function. Thank you for your suggestions.

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• Django internationalization for admin pages - translate model name and attributes

  - by geekQ

  Django's internationalization is very nice (gettext based, LocaleMiddleware), but what is the proper way to translate the model name and the attributes for admin pages? I did not find anything about this in the documentation: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/i18n/internationalization/ http://www.djangobook.com/en/2.0/chapter19/ I would like to have "???????? ????? ??? ?????????" instead of "???????? order ??? ?????????". Note, the 'order' is not translated. First, I defined a model, activated USE_I18N = True in settings.py, run django-admin makemessages -l ru. No entries are created by default for model names and attributes. Grepping in the Django source code I found: $ ack "Select %s to change" contrib/admin/views/main.py 70: self.title = (self.is_popup and ugettext('Select %s') % force_unicode(self.opts.verbose_name) or ugettext('Select %s to change') % force_unicode(self.opts.verbose_name)) So the verbose_name meta property seems to play some role here. Tried to use it: class Order(models.Model): subject = models.CharField(max_length=150) description = models.TextField() class Meta: verbose_name = _('order') Now the updated po file contains msgid 'order' that can be translated. So I put the translation in. Unfortunately running the admin pages show the same mix of "???????? order ??? ?????????". I'm currently using Django 1.1.1. Could somebody point me to the relevant documentation? Because google can not. ;-) In the mean time I'll dig deeper into the django source code...

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• Runtime Exception when using Custom Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

  - by Elementenfresser

  Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is it doesn't. In less than high trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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• How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

  - by ken-forslund

  I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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• how do i execute a stored procedure with vici coolstorage?

  - by lincolnk

  I'm building an app around Vici Coolstorage (asp.net version). I have my classes created and mapped to my database tables and can pull a list of all records fine. I've written a stored procedure where the query jumps across databases that aren't mapped with Coolstorage, however, the fields in the query result map directly to one of my classes. The procedure takes 1 parameter. so 2 questions here: how do i execute the stored procedure? i'm doing this CSParameterCollection collection = new CSParameterCollection(); collection.Add("@id", id); var result = Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery("procedurename", collection); and getting the exception "Incorrect syntax near 'procedurename'." (i'm guessing this is because it's trying to execute it as text rather than a procedure?) and also, since the class representing my table is defined as abstract, how do i specify that result should create a list of MyTable objects instead of generic or dynamic or whatever objects? if i try Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery<MyTable>(...) the compiler yells at me for it being an abstract class.

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• Subsonic, child records, and collections

  - by Dane

  Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

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• should variable be released or not? iphone-sdk

  - by psebos

  Hi, In the following piece of code (from a book) data is an NSDictionary *data; defined in the header (no property). In the viewDidLoad of the controller the following occurs: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"home", @"work", nil]; NSArray *homeDVDs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"Thomas the Builder", nil]; NSArray *workDVDs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"Intro to Blender", nil]; NSArray *values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:homeDVDs, workDVDs, nil]; data = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithObjects:values forKeys:keys]; } Since I am really new to objective-c can someone explain to me why I do not have to retain the variables keys,homeDVDs,workDVDs and values prior exiting the function? I would expect prior the data allocation something like: [keys retain]; [homeDVDs retain]; [workDVDs retain]; [values retain]; or not? Does InitWithObjects copies (recursively) all objects into a new table? Assuming we did not have the last line (data allocation) should we release all the NSArrays prior exiting the function (or we could safely assumed that all NSArrays will be autoreleased since there is no alloc for each one?) Thanks!!!!

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